Principles of Anatomy Final Exam
Course Introduction
Principles of Anatomy is an introductory course that explores the fundamental structure and organization of the human body. Through detailed study of major body systems including skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, and respiratory systems students gain a foundational understanding of anatomical terminology, body planes, and organ relationships. Emphasis is placed on recognizing normal anatomical features, understanding their functions, and interpreting how they contribute to overall health and homeostasis. The course combines theoretical lectures with practical laboratory experiences, enabling students to observe anatomical structures and develop skills applicable to advanced studies in health sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 7th Edition by Saladin
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Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) The study of how hormones function is called __________.
A)histology
B)neuroanatomy
C)neurophysiology
D)pathophysiology
E)endocrinology
Answer: E
Q2) A change in the genetic composition of a population over time is called
A)mutation
B)natural selection
C)selection pressure
D)evolution
E)adaptation
Answer: D
Q3) Organs are made of tissues.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) An atom with 12 electrons,13 neutrons,and 11 protons is a(n)__________.
A)anion
B)cation
C)free radical
D)isotope
Answer: A
Q2) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and an atomic mass of 16.How many valence electrons does it have?
A)2
B)4
C)6
D)8
E)16
Answer: C
Q3) ATP is the body's most important form of long-term energy storage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Q1) A cell's second messengers serve to transport material through the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following is not considered an inclusion?
A)Lysosome
B)Fat droplet
C)Glycogen granule
D)Bacterium
E)Dust particle
Answer: A
Q3) Na<sup>+</sup>-K<sup>+</sup> ATPase is a countertransport antiport carrier,which always requires energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Q1) The genetic code is the link between the __________ and the __________ that they represent.
A)DNA molecule; 20 amino acids
B)DNA molecule; 64 amino acids
C)mRNA anticodons; 20 amino acids
D)mRNA codons; 64 amino acids
E)mRNA codons; 20 amino acids
Q2) Anticodons,codons,and base triplets correspond to __________ respectively.
A)tRNA, DNA, and mRNA
B)DNA, tRNA, and mRNA
C)tRNA, mRNA, and DNA
D)DNA, RNA, and pre-mRNA
E)RNA, DNA, and pre-mRNA
Q3) A gene can be defined as an information-containing segment of RNA that codes for the production of a polypeptide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Many genes occur in alternative forms called alleles.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Histology
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Q1) An epithelium whose cells are tall and narrow,with each one touching the basement membrane and reaching the apical surface,is called __________ epithelium.
A)stratified squamous
B)stratified cuboidal
C)simple cuboidal
D)simple columnar
E)pseudostratified columnar
Q2) Smooth and cardiac muscles are under involuntary control.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With regard to the healing of a skin wound,macrophages ___________.
A)release histamine to increase blood flow to the area
B)produce and secrete collagenous fibers
C)phagocytize and digest tissue debris
D)stimulate epithelial cells to multiply
E)make capillaries more permeable allowing white blood cells to migrate into the area
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Q1) Excessive hairiness is called __________.
A)telogenism
B)anagenism
C)catagenism
D)alopecia
E)hirsutism
Q2) __________ is/are formed partly from the secretions of glands in the external ear canal.
A)Sebum
B)Cerumen
C)Sweat
D)Scents
E)Mucus
Q3) The reddish color of the skin of the lips is primarily due to the presence of which pigment?
A)Hemoglobin
B)Myoglobin
C)Melanin
D)Carotene
E)Keratin
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Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Q1) The cortex of the long bone's diaphysis is made of _________.
A)marrow
B)compact bone
C)spongy bone
D)dense regular connective tissue
E)articular cartilage
Q2) The hardness of bone comes from __________,whereas __________ provide(s)some degree of flexibility.
A)hydroxyapatite and other minerals; proteins
B)collagen and elastic fibers; minerals
C)glycoproteins; proteoglycans
D)calcium carbonate; calcium phosphate
E)proteins; collagen
Q3) The most common bone disease is __________.
A)osteomyelitis
B)osteoporosis
C)osteosarcoma
D)osteomalacia
E)rickets
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Q1) Which of the following is not part of the pectoral girdle?
A)The glenohumeral joint
B)The acromioclavicular joint
C)The sternoclavicular joint
D)The sacroiliac joint
E)The clavicle and scapula
Q2) Fontanels are __________ in an infant.
A)spaces between the unfused cranial bones
B)cartilages covering cranial bones
C)fibrous connective tissues lining the cranial cavity
D)fibrous connective tissues lining the orbits
E)fibrous connective tissues lining paranasal sinuses
Q3) All of the following are found on the temporal bone except the __________.
A)zygomatic process
B)mastoid process
C)external acoustic meatus
D)sella turcica
E)mandibular fossa
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) The elbow has both pivot and hinge joints.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The talocrural joint is formed by the union of the __________,the _________,and the _________.
A)femur; calcaneus; talus
B)femur; tibia; patella
C)tibia; fibula; talus
D)tibia; fibula; calcaneus
E)tibia; calcaneus; talus
Q3) The joint between the left and right parietal bones is called the __________.
A)lambdoid suture
B)sagittal suture
C)coronal suture
D)parietal joint
E)cranial joint
Q4) A meniscus is a type of bursa seen in the space between the femur and tibia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Q1) An injury that results in complete functional loss of the ulnar nerve will affect which of the following muscles?
A)Abductor digiti minimi
B)Abductor pollicis brevis
C)Flexor carpi radialis
D)Brachioradialis
E)Extensor indicis
Q2) Which of the following describes muscular tissue emerging directly from bone rather than being separated from it by an obvious tendon?
A)Direct attachment
B)Indirect attachment
C)Inverted attachment
D)Insertion
E)Origin
Q3) A sacral fracture affecting the S3 and S4 nerve roots would result in a person having difficulty with evacuation of the bowels.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Q1) Exposure to the bacterium Clostridium tetani causes continuous release of acetylcholine.What effect does this have on smooth muscle?
A)Flaccid paralysis
B)Spastic paralysis
C)Lockjaw
D)No effect
E)Myocardial atrophy
Q2) The transfer of phosphate from CP to ADP is catalyzed by __________.
A)myokinase
B)creatinine
C)cAMP
D)creatine kinase
E)ATP
Q3) How many muscle fibers stimulate one somatic motor neuron?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
E)4
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) How does a neuron transport enzymes produced in the soma to its axon terminals?
A)Along microtubules
B)By diffusion
C)Via cytoplasmic streaming
D)Through co-transport
Q2) An action potential never occurs in dendrites.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The respiratory center gathers information from a variety of sources in order to set the rate and depth of breathing.This is an example of what type of neural circuit?
A)Convergent
B)Divergent
C)Reverberating
D)Parallel after-discharge
Q4) What property of neurons allows them to respond to changes in the environment?
A)Excitablity
B)Conductivity
C)Secretion
D)Permeability
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, spinal Nerves, and Somatic
Reflexes
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Q1) Epidural anesthesia is introduced to the epidural space between the __________ to block pain signals during pregnancy.
A)dural sheath and dura mater
B)dural sheath and vertebral bones
C)dura mater and arachnoid mater
D)arachnoid mater and pia mater
E)dura mater and pia mater
Q2) Which reflex shows the least synaptic delay?
A)A polysynaptic reflex
B)The cross extension reflex
C)The withdrawal reflex
D)The flexor reflex
E)The tendon reflex
Q3) Posterior root ganglia contain somas of unipolar neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The stretch reflex is the tendency of a muscle to stretch when it is overcontracted.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Degeneration of the neurons in which of the following structures leads to the muscle tremors associated with Parkinson disease?
A)Cerebral crus
B)Tegmentum
C)Pons
D)Substantia nigra
E)Inferior colliculi
Q2) In which structure is the arbor vitae found?
A)Left cerebral hemisphere
B)Tegmentum in the midbrain
C)Cerebellum
D)Reticular formation
E)Diencephalon
Q3) The blood-brain barrier (BBB)helps prevent hemorrhages in the nervous tissue of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Purkinje cells are unusually large neurons found in the cerebellum.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Q1) The background rate of sympathetic and parasympathetic activity is called
A)"fight-or-flight" activity
B)visceral motor activity
C)autonomic reflex arc activity
D)visceral tone
E)autonomic tone
Q2) Which one of the following is made up of primarily adrenergic fibers?
A)Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division
B)Postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division
C)Postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic division
D)All motor fibers of the somatic motor system
E)Preganglionic neurons of parasympathetic division
Q3) Binding of norepinephrine (NE)to an alpha-adrenergic receptor is usually excitatory,and binding to a beta-adrenergic receptor is usually inhibitory.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acetylcholine (ACh)binds to both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Q1) What are the first-order neurons in the visual pathway?
A)Optic nerve fibers
B)Rods and cones
C)Ganglion cells
D)Bipolar cells
E)Amacrine cells
Q2) The three types of cones in the retina are differentiated from one another by what feature?
A)The absorption peak of their photopsin
B)The width of their outer segment
C)Whether they contain cis-retinal or trans-retinal or both
D)The number of discs in their outer segment
Q3) Which cells are responsible for photopic (day)vision as well as trichromatic (color)vision?
A)Bipolar cells
B)Rods
C)Cones
D)Ganglion cells
E)Pigment cells
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Any situation that upsets homeostasis and threatens one's physical or emotional well-being is called __________.
A)stress
B)pathology
C)disease
D)hyperthyroidism
E)hirsuitism
Q2) __________ secretion is controlled by neuroendocrine reflexes,whereas __________ secretion is controlled by negative feedback mechanisms.
A)Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH); luteinizing hormone (LH)
B)Oxytocin (OT); antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C)Antidiuretic hormone (ADH); oxytocin (OT)
D)Antidiuretic hormone (ADH); thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
E)Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); luteinizing hormone (LH)
Q3) Prostaglandins are considered paracrines.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Q1) Which of the following is not a function of blood?
A)Transports a variety of nutrients
B)Helps to stabilize the pH of extracellular fluids
C)Participates in the initiation of blood clotting
D)Produces plasma hormones
E)Helps to regulate body temperature
Q2) The universal donor of RBCs,but not necessarily plasma,is blood type __________.
A)AB, Rh-negative
B)AB, Rh-positive
C)O, Rh-negative
D)O, Rh-positive
E)ABO, Rh-negative
Q3) Hemostasis is the production of formed elements of blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood viscosity stems mainly from electrolytes and monomers dissolved in plasma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Q1) The pulmonary circuit is supplied by both the right and the left sides of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The shallow depression seen on the external surface of the heart between the left and right ventricles is called the __________.
A)coronary sinus
B)interventricular sulcus
C)interventricular septum
D)coronary sulcus
E)left atrium
Q3) Ventricular pressure increases the fastest during ventricular filling.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Atrial systole begins __________.
A)immediately before the P wave
B)immediately after the P wave
C)during the Q wave
D)during the S-T segment
E)immediately after the T wave
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) How many pulmonary arteries empty into the right atrium of the heart?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)4
E)8
Q2) How is venous return to your heart affected when you go for an easy jog?
A)It is increased due to increased skeletal muscular pump activity
B)It is decreased due to decreased skeletal muscular pump activity
C)It is decreased due to increased skeletal muscular pump activity
D)It is increased due to decreased skeletal muscular pump activity
Q3) Which of the following are powerful vasoconstrictors?
A)Norepinephrine and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B)Norepinephrine and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
C)Epinephrine and angiotensin II
D)Epinephrine and aldosterone
E)Epinephrine and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Q4) The radial artery is lateral to the ulnar artery.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) Most common allergies are the result of __________.
A)autoimmune diseases
B)type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
C)type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity
D)type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic) hypersensitivity
E)type I (acute) hypersensitivity
Q2) When an enemy cell is present,a(n)__________ secrete perforins,which bore a hole in the enemy cell membrane.
A)interferon
B)interleukin
C)natural killer cell
D)antibody
E)opsonization
Q3) Helper T (T<sub>H</sub>)cells do not __________.
A)secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of B cells
B)secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of cytotoxic T cells
C)secrete cytokines that stimulate macrophage activity
D)secrete inflammatory chemicals
E)secrete fever-producing chemicals
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) The pH of the cerebrospinal fluid is monitored by which of these brainstem centers?
A)PRG
B)Hypothalamic osmoreceptors
C)Medullary baroreceptors
D)Central chemoreceptors
Q2) What is the least common but most dangerous form of lung cancer?
A)Mesothelioma
B)Adenocarcinoma
C)Squamous cell carcinoma
D)Small-cell carcinoma
Q3) The anatomical dead space is greatest in which of the following situations?
A)After eating a large meal
B)After swerving to narrowly avoid an accident while driving
C)After waking up from a long nap
D)After watching TV for an hour
Q4) The maximum amount of air the lungs can contain is known as inspiratory capacity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Q1) Parathyroid hormone increases phosphate excretion by the proximal convoluted tubule as well as promotes synthesis of calcitriol.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The average person has approximately __________ nephrons per kidney.
A)1.2 million
B)2.4 million
C)3.6 million
D)4.8 million
E)5.6 million
Q3) Micturition is another term for __________.
A)the production of nitrogenous wastes
B)glomerular filtration
C)the countercurrent multiplier process
D)inflammation of the urinary bladder
E)the elimination of urine
Q4) Ethyl (drinking)alcohol stimulates the secretion of ADH,thereby reducing reabsorption by the collecting duct.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Water,Electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Women have a tendency to retain water during part of the menstrual cycle because estrogen mimics the action of what?
A)ADH
B)Aldosterone
C)Atrial natriuretic hormone
D)Oxytocin
E)Prolactin
Q2) Long-term inhibition of thirst is mostly associated with which of the following?
A)Cooling of the mouth
B)Distention of the stomach by ingested water
C)A drop in blood osmolarity
D)Moistening of the mouth
E)Increased salivation
Q3) Chloride homeostasis is achieved mainly as a result of ____________ homeostasis.
A)H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>
B)PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup>
C)HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
D)Na<sup>+</sup>
E)K<sup>+</sup>
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Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Q1) Most fat is digested by pancreatic lipase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Contact digestion takes place in/at the __________.
A)gastric pits
B)surface of the gastric mucosa
C)intestinal crypts
D)brush border of the small intestine
E)cytoplasm in the cells of the small intestine
Q3) Which of the following is not normally found in saliva?
A)Mucus
B)Lysozyme
C)Amylase
D)Lipase
E)Protease
Q4) The small intestine begins with the duodenum,which is its longest segment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) Norepinephrine stimulates cravings for carbohydrates,whereas endorphins stimulate cravings for proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following results in heat exhaustion?
A)Extreme electrolyte loss via sweat
B)Denaturation of proteins in the brain tissue
C)Excessive heat loss from the body
D)A high rate of conduction and convection
E)A high humidity that retards evaporative cooling
Q3) The liver performs all of the following functions except __________.
A)converting ammonia to urea
B)carrying out most beta oxidation
C)producing insulin and glucagon
D)synthesizing cholesterol
E)synthesizing glucose from fats and amino acids
Q4) Glucose in excess of the body's immediate needs is usually converted to protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) The acrosome contains enzymes used to __________.
A)dissolve the mucosa of the vagina
B)dissolve the mucosa of the uterus
C)dissolve the stickiness of the semen
D)penetrate the vagina
E)penetrate barriers surrounding the ovum
Q2) Dilation of the __________ causes the lacunae to fill with blood and the penis to become erect.
A)helicine arteries
B)internal pudendal (penile) arteries
C)dorsal arteries
D)dorsal veins
E)deep arteries
Q3) The scrotum contains the testes and spermatic cords.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sustentacular cells secrete inhibin,which regulates the rate of sperm production.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) In the female fetus,the absence of testosterone results in the development of the external genitalia into clitoris,labia minora,and labia majora.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which uterine layer is composed of a simple columnar epithelium containing tubular glands?
A)Fimbrium
B)Myometrium
C)Endometrium
D)Cervix
E)Perimetrium
Q3) What is the midlife change in estrogen and progesterone levels referred to as?
A)Climacteric
B)Menopause
C)Atresia
D)Menarche
E)Pubarche
Q4) The proliferative phase of the uterus is driven by estrogen from the ovaries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Q1) Down syndrome (trisomy-21)results from _________.
A)a mutagen
B)nondisjunction
C)a teratogen
D)a sex-linked mutation
E)an autosomal recessive allele
Q2) In fetal circulation,blood bypasses the lungs by flowing through the __________.
A)umbilical vein and umbilical arteries
B)fossa ovalis and umbilical arteries and vein
C)foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus
D)ductus venosus and ductus arteriosus
E)ligamentum venosum and ligamentum arteriosum
Q3) Cleavage results in daughter cells containing half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Neonatal immunity depends on IgG and IgA acquired through the placenta and colostrum,respectively.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: General Orientation to Human Anatomy
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Q1) The thymus,spleen,and tonsils are principal organs of the __________ system.
A)endocrine
B)respiratory
C)lymphatic
D)circulatory
E)muscular
Q2) The left and right portions of the thoracic cavity are divided by the _________.
A)mediastinum
B)diaphragm
C)serous membrane
D)meninges
E)peritoneum
Q3) The __________ system stores 99% of your calcium and is critical for blood cell formation.
A)circulatory
B)skeletal
C)excretory
D)muscular
E)endocrine
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