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Principles of Anatomy and Physiology is an introductory course that explores the structure and function of the human body at both the macroscopic and microscopic levels. The course covers the organization of the body, major organ systems, and fundamental physiological processes such as homeostasis, metabolism, and cellular communication. Students will learn to identify anatomical structures, understand their relationships, and appreciate how physiological mechanisms contribute to health and disease. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical applications, students will develop a strong foundation for further study in health sciences, medicine, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by
Kevin T. Patton
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Q1) The dorsal cavity contains all of the following except the: A)brain.
B)spinal column.
C)spinal cord.
D)thyroid gland.
Answer: D
Q2) Narrow part or point of an organ
A)Medullary
B)Basal
C)Apical
D)Cortical
E)Lumen
Answer: C
Q3) Blood production is a function of which system?
A)Reproductive
B)Respiratory
C)Skeletal
D)Lymphatic
Answer: C
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Q1) The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback.
A)negative
B)positive
C)inhibitory
D)deviating
Answer: B
Q2) Altered DNA that causes abnormal proteins to be made that do not perform their intended function
A)Prion
B)Tumor
C)Fungi
D)Gene mutation
E)Bacteria
F)Virus
G)Protozoa
Answer: D
Q3) Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Q1) Which subatomic particles carry a charge?
A)Protons and neutrons
B)Neutrons and electrons
C)Protons and electrons
D)Neutrons only
Answer: C
Q2) Litmus paper will turn red in the presence of a base.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Electrolytes are:
A)organic compounds.
B)called cations if they have a negative charge.
C)called cations if they have a positive charge.
D)both A and B.
Answer: C
Q4) Trace elements in the body make up about 1% of the body weight.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H ion is released.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be:
A)CTAGGCTG.
B)GATCCGAC.
C)CUAGGCUG.
D)GAUCCGAC.
Q3) The three most common disaccharides-sucrose, lactose, and maltose-each contain at least one molecule of glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the types of lipids, and give a function for each type.
Q5) A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons.
A)hydroxyl
B)phosphate
C)amine group
D)free radical
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Q1) Explain the structure and function of the microvilli.
Q2) A specialized cell structure that propels the sperm is the: A)flagellum.
B)cilium.
C)microvillus.
D)microtubule.
Q3) Explain the functions of the cell membrane.
Q4) Generally, the more active a cell is, the fewer mitochondria it will contain.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Another term for cytosol is intracellular fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Primary cilia can act as sensory organelles.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Lysosomes are vesicles that have been pinched off from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Molecules may move down their concentration gradient by passing through a membrane carrier.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The "lock-and-key" model of enzyme function explains how the protein and substrate join.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is true about the sodium and potassium pump?
A)Two sodium ions are taken into the cell.
B)Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell.
C)Three potassium ions are taken into the cell.
D)Two potassium ions are taken out of the cell.
Q4) The most important end product in cellular respiration is oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Endocytosis and pinocytosis are both active transport processes, because they require a carrier system such as a pump.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Process that occurs when the double strands of a DNA segment separate and RNA nucleotides pair with DNA nucleotides
A)mRNA
B)tRNA
C)Transcription
D)Translation
E)RNAi
Q2) Introns carry the code for the making of a protein.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An individual's entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: A)chromosome.
B)chromatid.
C)genome.
D)cytokinesis.
Q4) It is during meiosis phase I that the number of chromosomes is halved.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the process of DNA replication.
Q6) Describe the process of translation. What is RNAi?
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Q1) A malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is generally called a sarcoma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Briefly describe cutaneous membranes and mucous membranes, and give the location of each in the body.
Q3) When epithelial tissue is badly injured, a thick scar, or keloid, may develop.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A group of cells that performs a common function is called tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The primary germ layers that are formed in the embryo are epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous.
A)True B)False
Q6) Serous membranes have an underlying connective tissue layer called the lamina propria.
A)True B)False

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Q1) Mammary glands are endocrine glands that produce milk.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The mature cells of bone are called:
A)fibroblasts.
B)osteoclasts.
C)osteocytes.
D)osteoblasts.
Q3) Microvilli assist epithelial tissue in:
A)protecting the underlying tissue.
B)releasing substances from glands.
C)absorbing nutrients.
D)all of the above functions.
Q4) The cell that has the opposite function of the osteoblast is the:
A)chondrocyte.
B)osteocyte.
C)osteoclast.
D)fibroblast.
Q5) List and describe the five important functions performed by the various types of epithelial tissues.
11
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Q1) Keratohyalin is a protein in the stratum lucidum that will eventually be transformed into keratin in the cells of the epidermis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Integument and integumentary system are interchangeable terms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People who have mostly pheomelanin in their skin tend to have darker skin than people who have mostly eumelanin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fibers in which layer make it possible for skin to stretch and be elastic?
A)Connective tissue
B)Epidermal
C)Muscle
D)Reticular
Q5) Both the epidermis and the dermis continually undergo shedding and regeneration. A)True
B)False
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Q1) As the activity of osteoclasts increases, the:
A)level of calcium in the blood increases.
B)amount of calcium in bone increases.
C)level of calcium in the blood decreases.
D)Both B and C occur.
Q2) Bone tissue is also called osseous tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Location of spongy bone in a long bone
A)Periosteum
B)Endosteum
C)Epiphyses
D)Diaphysis
E)Medullary cavity
F)Articular cartilage
Q4) Calcitonin is released when the blood calcium levels are too high.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Where is the epiphyseal plate located? What is the function of the epiphyseal plate?
Describe the layers that make up the epiphyseal plate.
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Q1) Which bone makes up the forehead and the anterior part of the calvaria?
A)Occipital
B)Frontal
C)Parietal
D)Temporal
Q2) Lower, posterior skull bone
A)Frontal
B)Hyoid
C)Mandible
D)Maxillae
E)Occipital
F)Palatine
G)Sphenoid
H)Temporal
I)Zygomatic
Q3) Damage to the cribriform plate may also injure the olfactory nerves and cause a loss of the sense of smell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the clinical significance of the cribriform plate.
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Q1) What are the differences between the male and female skeleton that have clinical importance? Explain your answer.
Q2) An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The shoulder girdle consists of the sternum, the clavicle, and the scapula.
A)True B)False
Q4) The wrist consists of six irregular carpal bones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Both the tibia and fibula articulate with the femur.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The subpubic angle is wider in the male than it is in the female.
A)True B)False
Q7) The patella is the largest sesamoid bone in the body.
A)True B)False
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Q1) The annular ligament is the ligament that helps connect the ulna and radius.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Plantar flexion is a movement that applies only to the hands and feet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All synovial joints have an enclosed cavity with a lubricating fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The distal end of the radius articulating with the carpal bones is an example of a _____ joint.
A)saddle
B)gliding
C)condyloid (ellipsoidal)
D)pivot
Q5) The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the:
A)amount of synovial fluid in the joint.
B)shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones.
C)presence of bursae in the joint.
D)Both A and B are correct.

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Q1) Muscles usually originate distal to the point of insertion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. Its fibers run parallel to the body. Which of the following terms might be part of its name?
A)Extensor
B)Abductor
C)Flexor
D)Adductor
Q3) Brachialis
A)Location
B)Function
C)Shape
D)Direction of fibers
E)Number of heads or divisions
F)Points of attachment
Q4) The gluteus muscles are examples of muscles that are named by location.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The respiratory, digestive, circulatory, excretory, and endocrine systems all contribute to the ability of muscles to maintain posture.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The muscle that flexes the semipronated or semisupinated forearm is the: A)biceps brachii.
B)brachialis.
C)brachioradialis.
D)triceps brachii.
Q3) The teres major and teres minor muscles move the: A)forearm.
B)arm.
C)shoulder. D)wrist.
Q4) Muscles maintain posture by the property of tonicity. A)True B)False
Q5) Explain how, during sleep, the muscles of the throat relax and can allow the muscles to partially close the airway, causing sleep apnea.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the sarcomere stays almost the same size during contraction?
A)A-band
B)I-band
C)H-band
D)None of the parts of the sarcomere stay the same size during contraction.
Q2) The type of contraction exhibited by normal skeletal muscles most of the time is called tetanus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain how glycogen and myoglobin aid in muscle contraction.
Q4) Oxygen molecules in the sarcoplasm are bound to the troponin molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The graded strength principle states that skeletal muscles contract with varying degrees of strength at different times.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Tetanus will not occur in an individual with an up-to-date tetanus vaccination.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The blood-brain barrier is so effective that only water molecules are able to cross it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A lack of which neurotransmitter is associated with Parkinson's disease?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Endorphins
C)Dopamine
D)Enkephalin
Q3) What is the relationship between the afferent and efferent neurons of the reflex arc?
A)The afferent neurons move signals to the CNS, and the efferent neurons move signals away from the CNS.
B)The afferent neurons move signals away from the CNS, and the efferent neurons move signals to the CNS.
C)Afferent neurons are present in the brain, and efferent neurons are present at the sensory site.
D)None. Efferent neurons are only present in gray matter of the brain and are needed for the reflex arc to work correctly.
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Q1) Type of synapse in which the signal from the presynaptic to postsynaptic cell is carried by a neurotransmitter
A)Presynaptic cell
B)Neurotransmitter
C)Postsynaptic cell
D)Synaptic knob
E)Electrical synapse
F)Chemical synapse
G)Synaptic cleft
Q2) In a myelinated fiber, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential?
A)The cell membrane is permeable to Na<sup>+</sup> but impermeable to K<sup>+</sup> ions.
B)The outer surface of the plasma membrane has a negative charge.
C)The highest concentration of K<sup>+</sup> is extracellular.
D)The sodium pump has moved Na<sup>+</sup> to the outside of the plasma membrane.
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Q1) All spinal nerves are mixed nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A physician can use lumbar puncture to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space in the lumbar region of the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Several "vital centers" are located in the:
A)basal ganglia.
B)cerebrum.
C)cerebellum.
D)medulla.
Q4) The structure in the brain called the olive is found in the midbrain of the brainstem. A)True
B)False
Q5) What is a lumbar puncture? Why is it done?
Q6) Association tracts connect parts of the same cerebral hemisphere.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All reflexes have their interneurons in the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a correct statement?
A)There are 7 cervical nerve pairs.
B)There are 11 thoracic nerve pairs.
C)There are 5 lumbar nerve pairs.
D)All of the above are correct statements.
Q3) Afferent nerves or fibers are found only in the _____ nervous system.
A)sensory
B)autonomic
C)central
D)Both A and B are correct.
Q4) Judy has sustained an injury that has damaged the vestibulocochlear nerve. This injury will have an effect on her ability to:
A)hear.
B)move her jaw.
C)open and close her eyes.
D)maneuver her tongue.
Q5) What is a dermatome? What is a myotome?
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Q1) Explain the way parasympathetic neurons travel from the CNS to their effector organs. Compare the relative length between the parasympathetic pre- and postganglionic neurons.
Q2) A short postganglionic neuron is a characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Neurotransmitter released by adrenergic fibers
A)Sympathetic nervous system
B)Parasympathetic nervous system
C)Alpha receptor
D)Nicotinic receptor
E)Sympathetic trunk
F)Splanchnic nerve
G)"Fight or flight"
H)"Rest and repair"
I)Acetylcholine
J)Norepinephrine
Q4) Explain in general, what the function of the sympathetic nervous system is.
Q5) Explain physiologically how a beta blocker affects heart muscle activity.
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Q1) Intense stimuli of any type that results in tissue damage will activate:
A)mechanoreceptors.
B)thermoreceptors.
C)nociceptors.
D)photoreceptors.
Q2) Mechanoreceptors are activated by stimuli that in some way deform or change the position of the receptor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The treatment of fibromyalgia requires an increase of calcium ions in the pain centers of the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A graded response is a response graded to the strength of a stimulus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Nociceptors can respond to intense light.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Differentiate between exteroceptors, visceroceptors, and proprioceptors.
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Q1) Space that contains the organ of Corti
A)Basilar membrane
B)Bony labyrinth
C)Cochlea
D)Cochlear duct
E)Endolymph
F)Membranous labyrinth
G)Organ of Corti
H)Perilymph
I)Scala tympani
J)Scala vestibule
K)Semicircular canals
L)Tectorial membrane
M)Vestibular membrane
N)Vestibule
Q2) Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the crista ampullaris.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a generalized manner, describe the dual sensory functions of the ear.
Q4) Explain why watery eyes occur when a person gets a common cold.
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Q1) The "lock-and-key" mechanism allows hormones to bind only with target cells that have receptors that "fit" them exactly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because most cells secrete prostaglandins, there is usually a fairly high concentration of prostaglandins in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The name prostaglandin comes from the prostate gland.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not true of prostaglandins?
A)Contain a 20-carbon unsaturated fatty acid chain
B)Contain a 5-carbon ring
C)Made from membrane phospholipid molecules
D)All of the above are true of prostaglandins.
Q5) Examples of nonsteroid hormones are insulin, oxytocin, and epinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how cAMP acts as a second messenger for certain nonsteroid hormones.
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Q1) Glucocorticoids are essential for maintaining a normal blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tropic hormones are secreted by the acidophils of the pars anterior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) High blood levels of ADH would be found in someone who has:
A)just eaten a meal high in sugar or other carbohydrates.
B)been working in high temperatures and is dehydrated.
C)a high level of calcium in the blood.
D)a low level of calcium in the blood.
Q4) The release of ADH and oxytocin is controlled by nervous stimulation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Insulin:
A)tends to lower blood concentrations of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids.
B)promotes metabolism of glucose by tissue cells.
C)is produced by beta cells.
D)All of the above are true of insulin.
Q6) Briefly summarize how growth hormone affects metabolism.
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Q1) The function of blood clotting is hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hematocrit includes red blood cells, white blood cells, and soluble proteins from the plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What happens to the components of a red blood cell after it is broken down or fragments?
Q4) Which of the following substances is not secreted by platelets?
A)ATP
B)Thromboxane
C)Arachidonic acid
D)All of the above are secreted by platelets.
Q5) In the formation of blood cells, the megakaryoblast ultimately develops into: A)lymphocytes.
B)platelets.
C)monocytes.
D)both A and B.
Q6) Name and give the function of the three blood-formed elements.
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Q1) After birth the ductus venosus closes and:
A)allows blood to flow to the lungs.
B)allows blood to flow to the liver.
C)prevents blood from moving from the right to the left atrium.
D)stops blood flow to the placenta.
Q2) Arteries always carry blood away from the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Upper arm
A)Axillary
B)Carotid
C)Coronary
D)Femoral
E)Gastric
F)Hepatic
G)Radial
H)Renal
I)Suprarenal
J)Tibial
Q4) Name the three layers of tissue that make up a blood vessel.
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Q1) The characteristic signs of inflammation are the results of increased blood flow and increased vascular permeability.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A macrophage can migrate out of the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Aspirin is effective in lowering fever because it inhibits the growth of the disease-causing organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The body identifies normal body cells by way of the unique major histocompatibility complex displayed by the cell as a surface protein.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most numerous type of phagocyte is the macrophage.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is a natural killer cell? Explain the functioning of a natural killer cell.
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Q1) The respiratory escalator are a group of cilia that beat in unison to move air more effectively to the alveoli.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are 21 levels of branching in the bronchial tree.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All three sets of tonsils are located in the oropharynx.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When the intrinsic muscles of the larynx contract, the larynx moves up in the throat.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The cribriform plate is perforated by many small holes through which branches of the olfactory nerve pass, relaying smell to the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What structures enter each lung at the hilum?
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Q1) Glycosuria refers to blood in the urine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The nephron loop is a countercurrent structure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Determine the filtration pressure based on the following values:
A. The glomerular hydrostatic pressure is 55 mm Hg.
B. The glomerular osmotic pressure is 27 mm Hg.
C. The capsular hydrostatic pressure is 18 mm Hg.
Q4) There are how many openings in the urinary bladder?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
Q5) The bladder has two main functions: to serve as a reservoir for urine until it leaves the body and, aided by the urethra, expels urine from the body.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Outline the flow of blood through the kidney tissue.
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