Principles of Anatomy and Physiology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology provides a comprehensive introduction to the structure and function of the human body, exploring the interrelationships between the bodys systems at both the macroscopic and microscopic levels. The course covers fundamental concepts such as cell structure, tissue organization, and the physiology of major organ systems including the nervous, muscular, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and endocrine systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how the body maintains homeostasis, responds to external stimuli, and adapts to changes through intricate physiological processes, laying the groundwork for further study in health, medicine, and biomedical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Kevin T. Patton
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Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anterior torso
A)Abdominal
B)Brachial
C)Cervical
D)Coxal
E)Cutaneous
F)Digital
G)Femoral
H)Lumbar
Answer: A
Q2) Level at which a group of organs work together to perform specific complex functions
A)Chemical
B)Organelle
C)Cellular
D)Tissue
E)Organ
F)System
G)Organism
Answer: F
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Simple organisms that are similar to plants but lack chlorophyll, which allows plants to make their own food; because these organisms cannot make their own food, they parasitize human tissue
A)Prion
B)Tumor
C)Fungi
D)Gene mutation
E)Bacteria
F)Virus
G)Protozoa
Answer: C
Q2) Negative-feedback mechanisms:
A)minimize changes in blood glucose levels.
B)maintain homeostasis.
C)are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature.
D)All of the above are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents a trace element in the body?
A)Sulfur
B)Chlorine
C)Iron
D)Phosphorus
Answer: C
Q2) Subatomic particle with a positive charge
A)Proton
B)Neutron
C)Electron
D)Isotopes
E)Ionic bonds
F)Covalent bonds
G)Octet rule
H)Atomic number
I)Atomic mass
J)Hydrogen bonds
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) The joining of amino acids in a peptide bond is an example of the process of hydrolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Name and describe the structural levels of protein.
Q3) The three most common disaccharides-sucrose, lactose, and maltose-each contain at least one molecule of glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are:
A)triglycerides.
B)phosphoglycerides.
C)steroids.
D)prostaglandins.
Q5) Amino acids frequently become joined by:
A)peptide bonds.
B)catabolic reactions.
C)atrophic reactions.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell fibers that are slightly thicker than microfilaments
A)Microtubules
B)Intermediate filaments
C)Microfilaments
D)Centrosomes
E)Cilia
F)Flagella
G)Microvilli
H)Desmosomes
I)Tight junctions
J)Gap junctions
K)Primary cilium
L)Centrioles
Q2) The functions of the nucleus are regulated by RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Joanne, a 75-year-old patient, has an active peptic ulcer. Describe the cellular organelles involved in synthesizing digestive enzymes for the stomach.
Q4) Name and describe the three types of cell connections.
Q5) What are molecular motors, and what is their function in the cell?
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of catabolic pathways?
A)They turn larger molecules into smaller ones.
B)They turn smaller molecules into larger ones.
C)They require energy from the cell.
D)Both B and C are true.
Q2) A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing the enzyme's shape is called a(n):
A)cofactor.
B)coenzyme.
C)allosteric effector.
D)proenzyme.
Q3) A nurse was instructed to dissolve a pill in a small amount of liquid medication. As she dropped the capsule into the liquid, she was interrupted by a telephone call. On her return to the medication cart, she found the medication had completely dissolved and apparently scattered evenly throughout the liquid. This phenomenon did not surprise her; because she was aware from her knowledge of cell transport that _____ had created this distribution. Explain this phenomenon.
Q4) Briefly explain the process of glycolysis. What energy molecules are produced, and how many of each are produced?
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Q1) DNA replication occurs during:
A)prophase.
B)telophase.
C)metaphase.
D)none of the above.
Q2) Can inhibit the process of protein synthesis
A)mRNA
B)tRNA
C)Transcription
D)Translation
E)RNAi
Q3) Interphase does not include which of the following?
A)M phase
B)G1 phase
C)G2 phase
D)S phase
Q4) Genes determine polypeptide structure, which determines the structure of enzymes and structural proteins, which determine the cell's functions and structure.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epithelial and muscle tissue have the greatest ability to regenerate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following would be an inflammation of the serous membrane?
A)Pleurisy
B)Peritonitis
C)Pericarditis
D)All of these are serous membrane inflammations
Q3) Briefly describe connective tissue membranes, and give their location in the body.
Q4) The serous membrane covering the stomach is called the:
A)visceral pleura.
B)visceral peritoneum.
C)parietal pleura.
D)parietal peritoneum.
Q5) Cells in the embryo begin the process of cell differentiation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Give a brief description of tissue repair, including the varying capacities with which the different types of tissues can accomplish this task.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the process of endochondral ossification, the bone that is formed replaces cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is another name for skeletal muscle?
A)Striated voluntary
B)Nonstriated involuntary
C)Striated involuntary
D)Pseudostriated involuntary
Q3) Cell process that carries nerve impulses toward the cell body
A)Neuron
B)Neuroglia
C)Axon
D)Soma
E)Dendrite
Q4) Because of the stripes visible under the microscope, smooth muscle is called striated muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the three functional classifications of exocrine glands.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) The skin of an infant is more easily damaged by penetration or abrasion than that of an adult. Which layer is probably thinner in an infant than in an adult?
A)Stratum basale
B)Stratum corneum
C)Stratum lucidum
D)Stratum spinosum
Q2) There is a more than fivefold increase in the rate of sebum secretion between 10 and 19 years of age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Terminal hair is the coarse pubic and axillary hair that develops at puberty.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person who is shivering would normally have dilated surface blood vessels in the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Differentiate among first-, second-, and third-degree burns.
Q6) Name and explain the methods of heat loss discussed in this chapter.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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Q1) Transverse canals are located in the center of the osteon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Myeloid tissue is another name for bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The small tubes in the osteon that bring nutrients and oxygen to the osteocytes are called:
A)canaliculi.
B)lacunae.
C)lamellae.
D)diploë.
Q4) A person with a diet rich in calcium would probably have a:
A)low level of calcitonin.
B)low level of parathyroid hormone.
C)high level of calcitonin.
D)Both B and C are correct.
Q5) The fracture hematoma is the last stage in the healing of a bone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) All vertebrae except the sacrum and coccyx have a central opening called the:
A)spinous process.
B)vertebral foramen.
C)dens.
D)transverse process.
Q2) Costal cartilage
A)Ribs
B)Sternum
C)Vertebrae
Q3) Middle part of the sternum
A)Body
B)False ribs
C)Floating ribs
D)Manubrium
E)True rib
F)Xiphoid process
G)Costal cartilage
Q4) The lacrimal bone contains grooves for the paranasal sinuses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lateral malleolus
A)Femur
B)Fibula
C)Humerus
D)Coxal
E)Radius
F)Scapula
G)Tibia
H)Ulna
Q2) Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The wrist consists of six irregular carpal bones.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both the tibia and fibula articulate with the femur.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how age differences and environmental factors may cause skeletal variations.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Circumduction consists of pivoting a bone on its own axis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Condyloid (ellipsoidal) joints are biaxial joints in which one bone fits into a depression on another bone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of a pivot joint is(are) the: A)head of the radius articulating with the ulna. B)first metacarpal articulating with the trapezium. C)humerus articulating with the scapula. D)interphalangeal joints.
Q4) There are six categories of synovial joints between the bones of the forearm, wrist, hand, and fingers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The elbow and the dens of the axis are both part of a uniaxial joint.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Define flexion and extension, and give an example of each.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A)The origin of the muscle is attached to the bone that does not move.
B)The insertion of the muscle is attached to the bone that moves.
C)When the muscle contracts, the insertion moves toward the origin.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) That which is considered the origin and insertion of a muscle may change under certain circumstances.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fixator muscles would most likely be found at the origin points of muscles rather than at the insertion points of muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The rectus abdominal muscle is an example of a _____ muscle.
A)convergent
B)parallel
C)fusiform
D)pennate
Q5) Name and explain the three types of levers. Which type is the most common in the body?
17
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) With aging, connective tissue replaces some muscle fibers, causing decreased muscle strength.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both the pectoralis minor and the serratus anterior help hold or "fix" the scapula in place.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Muscles that move the thigh and lower leg can be divided into two groups, muscles that come from the hips and those that come from the gluteal muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Muscles maintain posture by the property of tonicity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The respiratory, digestive, circulatory, excretory, and endocrine systems all contribute to the ability of muscles to maintain posture.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the role of ATP in muscle contraction.
Q2) Isometric contraction is a contraction in which the tone or tension within a muscle remains the same, but the length of the muscle changes.
A)True B)False
Q3) A neuromuscular junction is a type of connection called a synapse.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called:
A)tetanic contractions.
B)cramps.
C)convulsions.
D)fibrillations.
Q5) Sarcolemma is a:
A)system of transverse tubules that extend at a right angle to the long axis of the cell.
B)segment of the myofibril between two successive Z-lines.
C)unique name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber.
D)None of the above are correct.
Q6) List three characteristics of muscles.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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Q1) The PNS includes both efferent and afferent nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The other term for cell body is:
A)telodendria.
B)perikaryon.
C)Nissl body.
D)axon hillock.
Q3) The CNS is composed of efferent nerves only.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nerve fibers with many Schwann cells forming a thick myelin sheath are called myelinated fibers, or gray fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following statements does not apply to ependymal cells?
A)They form the sheets of cells that line fluid-filled cavities in the brain.
B)They make up part of the blood-brain barrier.
C)They produce fluid that fills the cavities in the brain.
D)They have cilia to move fluid in the brain.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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Q1) The action potential is called an all-or-none response, because if the threshold potential is surpassed, the full peak of the action is always reached; if the threshold potential is not surpassed, no action potential will occur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cocaine produces a temporary feeling of well-being by blocking the release of dopamine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some neurotransmitters use cyclic adenosine monophosphate as a second messenger to cause a response in the postsynaptic cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential is produced through the hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the process of an action potential moving down a neuron.
Q6) Define IPSP and EPSP.
21
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Q1) The corpora quadrigemina is a landmark of which part of the central nervous system?
A)Midbrain
B)Cerebellum
C)Hypothalamus
D)Cerebrum
Q2) Which part of the brain releases the hormone melatonin?
A)Hypothalamus
B)Thalamus
C)Pineal gland
D)Cerebellum
Q3) General term for a convolution or raised area on the cortex
A)Longitudinal fissure
B)Lateral fissure
C)Sulci
D)Parieto-occipital sulcus
E)Fissure
F)Central sulcus
G)Gyri
Q4) Name and describe the three important inward extensions of the dura mater.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) How is herpes zoster (shingles) a result of the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus?
A)Adrenergic receptors of the cranial nerve send impulses to the brain, indicating pain at the nerve site.
B)A cutaneous nerve is affected by the virus causing shingles, which remains dormant in the dorsal root ganglion for years.
C)a-receptors of the cranial nerve send impulses to the brain, indicating pain at the nerve site.
D)A cranial nerve is affected by the virus causing shingles, which remains dormant in the dorsal root ganglion for years.
Q2) Branches of the dorsal ramus innervate the skin and muscles of the posterior surface of the head, neck, and trunk.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When referring to a spinal nerve, the terms dorsal root and dorsal ramus refer to the same structure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) Sympathetic responses are usually widespread, involving many organ systems at once.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Biofeedback involves willful control of specific effectors normally controlled only autonomically.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain why the cells of the adrenal medulla can be considered sympathetic postganglionic neurons with no specific effector organ.
Q4) Preganglionic neurons conduct impulses from the brain or spinal cord to an autonomic ganglion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the principle of autonomic antagonism and why it is important in maintaining homeostasis.
Q6) Sensory neurons can operate in autonomic reflex arcs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: General Senses
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Q1) Muscle spindles are stimulated by excessive muscle contraction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true about pain receptors?
A)Alpha fibers respond to chronic pain.
B)Alpha fibers are associated with dull, aching pain.
C)Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain.
D)Beta fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain.
Q3) The interpretation of the sensation of being tickled requires a complex interaction of many parts of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including: A)touch.
B)temperature.
C)pain.
D)all of the above.
Q5) Lamellar corpuscle and Ruffini corpuscle refer to the same structure.
A)True
B)False
25
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Q1) Because rhodopsin is less sensitive to light than the cone photopigments, brighter light is necessary for its breakdown.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Receptor that is more concentrated in the peripheral area of the retina
A)Aqueous humor
B)Choroid
C)Cones
D)Cornea
E)Fovea centralis
F)Iris
G)Optic disk
H)Retina
I)Rods
J)Vitreous humor
Q3) The canal of Schlemm drains the aqueous humor from the anterior chamber.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a generalized manner, describe the dual sensory functions of the ear.
Q5) Describe the neuronal pathway for taste.
26
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Q1) Somatostatin
A)Steroid
B)Protein
C)Glycoprotein
D)Peptide
E)Amine
Q2) If a small amount of hormone produced a disproportionately great response in a cell, the hormone was most likely a nonsteroid hormone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The "lock-and-key" mechanism allows hormones to bind only with target cells that have receptors that "fit" them exactly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a source of nonsteroid hormones?
A)Cholesterol
B)Protein
C)Protein joined with a carbohydrate
D)Individual amino acids
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Q1) Which of the following depends on maintaining normal levels of calcium in the blood?
A)Blood clotting
B)Cell membrane
C)Neuromuscular excitability
D)All of the above
Q2) When the amount of ADH increases, the body tries to get rid of excess fluid and the volume of urine increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Psychosomatic relationships between human body systems and the brain have been proven not to exist.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Calcitonin:
A)decreases calcium storage in bones.
B)raises blood calcium levels.
C)has the opposite effect of parathyroid hormone.
D)reveals thyroid functioning in the protein-bound iodine (PBI) test.
Q5) Explain why it is equally likely that males and females can produce hCG.
28
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Q1) Basophil
A)105-120 days
B)10-12 days
C)Months
D)Days to years
E)Hours to 3 days
Q2) Insoluble protein that forms fine threads in the blood needed to make a clot
A)Tissue factor
B)Calcium
C)Fibrinogen
D)Prothrombin activator
E)Fibrin
F)Prothrombin
G)Vitamin K
H)Thrombin
I)Plasmin
Q3) Vitamin B is needed for the production of red blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name and give the function of the three blood-formed elements.
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Q1) One function of the skeleton of the heart is to assist in the conduction of an impulse from the atria to the ventricles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The correct order of the layers of the heart from deep to superficial is:
A)myocardium, pericardium, and endocardium.
B)epicardium, myocardium, and pericardium.
C)epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium.
D)endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium.
Q3) The term ischemia refers to abnormal heart sounds.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pericardial fluid can be found between the:
A)myocardium and the epicardium.
B)myocardium and the endocardium.
C)pericardium and the ribs.
D)epicardium and the pericardium.
Q5) Atria receive blood from veins, and ventricles pump blood into arteries.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Q1) A portal system sends blood through two sets of capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a superficial vein in the lower arm?
A)Great saphenous
B)Cephalic
C)Brachial
D)Axillary
Q3) Microcirculation includes only the blood flowing through the capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The aorta is an example of a muscular artery.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Both the tunica media and the tunica adventitia are absent in: A)arteries.
B)veins.
C)capillaries.
D)both B and C.
Q6) Name the three layers of tissue that make up a blood vessel.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Q1) Because of their small diameter, capillaries account for almost all the resistance to blood flow in the circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If fluid were collecting at the venous end of a capillary, it could be caused by either a drop in hydrostatic pressure or an increase in osmotic pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The effect of what substance is to increase the total blood volume?
A)ADH
B)ANH
C)Aldosterone
D)Both A and C
Q4) Which of the following is not a mechanism that increases blood volume and therefore venous return of blood to the heart?
A)Antidiuretic hormone
B)Aldosterone
C)Atrial natriuretic hormone
D)Renin-angiotensin mechanism
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymph circulation is maintained by all of the following except:
A)the heart.
B)inspiration.
C)skeletal muscle contractions.
D)valves.
Q2) The lymphatic system returns about 3 liters of lymph back to the blood each day by consistently returning about 125 ml per hour.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement?
A)The wall of the lymphatic capillary consists of a multiple layer of flattened endothelial cells.
B)Lymphatic and blood capillary networks are dependent on each other.
C)Lymph from the entire body, except the upper right quadrant, drains eventually into the thoracic duct.
D)The thoracic duct is approximately the same size as the large veins.
Q4) Compare and contrast the structures of veins and lymphatics.
Q5) What is the clinical significance of the anastomoses that occur between superficial lymphatics from both breasts across the middle line?
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance can destroy pathogens by lowering the pH to a level at which they cannot function?
A)Hydrochloric acid
B)Mucus
C)Enzymes
D)Sebum
Q2) The toll-like receptors on the cell membrane can be seen as a midpoint between specific and nonspecific immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of cells is not involved in nonspecific immunity?
A)Monocytes
B)Lymphocytes
C)Neutrophils
D)Macrophages
Q4) A person's natural killer cells usually kill cells of their own body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how a white blood cell ingests and destroys a microorganism.
Q6) What is a natural killer cell? Explain the functioning of a natural killer cell.
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antibody normally constituting the highest percentage of antibodies in the blood is:
A)IgE.
B)IgG.
C)IgM.
D)IgA.
Q2) All of the cells in a clone of plasma cells produce identical antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not caused by complement protein activity?
A)Vasodilation
B)Agglutination of antigens
C)Cytolysis
D)All of the above are caused by complement protein activity.
Q4) The somatic recombination hypothesis is one possible explanation for the diversity of antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name the classes of antibodies, and give the function of each.
Q6) Name and explain the role of regulating cells in the immune system.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the alarm reaction responses resulting from increased sympathetic activity is decreased digestion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Release of corticotrophin-releasing hormone directly causes:
A)an increase in glucose, which corrects the hypoglycemia.
B)the posterior pituitary gland to release ACTH.
C)the release of cortisol.
D)none of the above.
Q3) An indicator of stress is a drop in lymphocytes and an increase in eosinophils.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Increased _____ is characteristic of the alarm stage of stress.
A)lymphocytes
B)glucocorticoids
C)parasympathetic activity
D)eosinophils
Q5) Anxiety level does not influence allostasis and allostatic load.
A)True
B)False
36
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Double layer of cells where gases are exchanged between alveolar air and blood
A)Larynx
B)Pleura
C)Turbinates
D)Respiratory membrane
E)Alveolus
F)Trachea
G)Pharynx
H)Bronchial tree
I)Respiratory mucosa
J)Paranasal sinus
K)Bronchiole
L)Nares
Q2) The respiratory escalator are a group of cilia that beat in unison to move air more effectively to the alveoli.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Differentiate between the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the larynx, and give one function of each.
Q4) What part of the respiratory system serves as resonating chambers for speech?
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inspiratory capacity is equal to the sum of the tidal volume and the inspiratory reserve volume.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Excessive fluid in the pleural cavity would be most likely to cause:
A)increased residual volume.
B)decreased vital capacity.
C)increased functional reserve volume.
D)decreased tidal volume.
Q3) Steve used a spirometer to analyze his respiratory capacities. He found the following results:
A. After normal inspiration, a normal expiration was 500 ml.
B. After a normal expiration, he was able to expel an additional 1000 ml.
C. Taking as deep a breath as possible, then forcefully exhaling all the air possible, he yielded an output of 4500 ml.
Based on the outcome of these measurements, what is Steve's inspiratory reserve?
Q4) Name and explain the pulmonary volumes and capacities. Which of these increase and decrease as a person moves from normal breathing to forceful inspiration and expiration?
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg.
A)23
B)160
C)300
D)590
Q2) One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen?
A)10%
B)15%
C)20%
D)25%
Q3) Oxygenated blood contains equal amounts of both dissolved oxygen and oxygen combined with hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are six iron atoms in a single hemoglobin molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is transported by the blood.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a division of the stomach?
A)Rugae
B)Body
C)Pylorus
D)Fundus
Q2) The esophagus is composed of striated and smooth muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Outermost GI tract layer that is actually the visceral peritoneum
A)Sublingual salivary gland
B)Submucosa layer
C)Dentin
D)Muscularis layer
E)Mucosa layer
F)Parotid salivary gland
G)Enamel
H)Submandibular salivary gland
I)Tongue
J)Serosa layer
Q4) List the functions of the stomach.
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The liver is the largest gland in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The right angle formed by the transverse colon and the descending colon is called the:
A)hepatic flexure.
B)sigmoid colon.
C)splenic flexure.
D)secondary colonic flexure.
Q3) Microvilli can be found in the:
A)stomach.
B)small intestine.
C)large intestine.
D)Both B and C are correct.
Q4) The microbiome is a name for the normal community of bacteria that inhabit the colon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the functions of the liver.
Q6) Describe the location, structure, and function of the pancreas.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because acid would be harmful to enzymes, the salivary glands produce bicarbonate ions to lower the pH of saliva.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ingestion, digestion, secretion, and absorption are all necessary for the proper functioning of the digestive system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although the cotransport of sodium and glucose is a passive process, it would not be possible without the active transport of sodium out of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Segmentation can be described simply as a mixing movement. A)True
B)False
Q5) Nucleotidase digests nucleotides.
A)True B)False
Q6) Explain why trypsin and pepsin need to be made in an inactive form.
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both vitamins and minerals act as coenzymes for the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The basal metabolic rate is higher in all of the following situations except:
A)youth compared with adult.
B)male compared with female.
C)hypothermia compared with fever.
D)excess of thyroid hormone compared with the normal level.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of glycolysis?
A)It occurs in the mitochondria.
B)Glucose is split into two pyruvic acid molecules.
C)It is an anaerobic process.
D)A specific enzyme catalyzes each step of the reaction.
Q4) Energy-requiring process by which small molecules are joined to form larger molecules
A)Anabolism
B)Catabolism
C)Metabolism
D)Nutrition
E)Assimilation
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Renin is released in response to a rise in blood pressure in the afferent arteriole.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The renal tubule is made up of simple squamous and simple cuboidal epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The folds in the bladder wall are called rugae.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The reabsorption of electrolytes by the peritubular capillaries will cause obligatory water reabsorption.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If the Tm for glucose in the nephron was 300 mg/100 ml and a person had blood glucose level of 380 mg/100 ml, there would be:
A)300 mg/100 ml of glucose in the urine.
B)80 mg/100 ml of glucose in the urine.
C)80 mg/100 ml of glucose in the blood leaving the kidney.
D)both A and C.
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the seven basic solutions used for parenteral therapy?
A)Ammonium chloride
B)Lactate solutions
C)Carbohydrate in water
D)Liquid protein
Q2) Physiologically, the valence of an electrolyte is more important than the number of particles in a solution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To be effective, a diuretic (drug that increases water loss through the kidneys) should not only increase water loss but also increase sodium loss. Why?
Q4) Aged individuals of either sex may have less total body water because of their:
A)reduced kidney function.
B)decreased percentage of body fat.
C)decreased muscle mass.
D)Both A and B are correct.
Q5) How does an electrolyte imbalance lead to fluid imbalances?
Q6) Describe the functioning thirst center. Where is it located?
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Chapter 44: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperkalemia may have a major effect on which of the following?
A)Gastrointestinal tract
B)Heart
C)Kidney
D)Liver
Q2) Describe the respiratory compensation for a change in blood pH.
Q3) Explain the pH scale
Q4) An increase in the base bicarbonate/carbonic acid ratio causes a decrease in the pH.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is most basic?
A)Oven cleaner
B)Baking soda
C)Household ammonia
D)Great Salt Lake water
Q6) A chloride shift that occurs in the neutralization of carbonic acid involves the replacement of a bicarbonate ion for chloride ions.
A)True
B)False
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vasectomy is usually performed by making a small incision at the base of the penis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The corpus spongiosum of the penis contains the male urethra.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Normally, capacitation occurs in sperm:
A)in the testes.
B)in the vas deferens.
C)in the urethra.
D)after they have been introduced into the vagina of the female.
Q4) Sperm carry DNA in a structure called the acrosome.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The opening of the urethra at the tip of the glans is called the:
A)prepuce.
B)external urinary meatus.
C)corpora cavernosa.
D)glans penis.
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mammary glands are essential organs of reproduction in women.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Going from the ovary to the uterus, the sequence of the divisions of the uterine tubes is:
A)isthmus, ampulla, fimbriae, and infundibulum.
B)ampulla, isthmus, infundibulum, and fimbriae.
C)fimbriae, infundibulum, ampulla and isthmus.
D)fimbriae, ampulla, isthmus, and infundibulum.
Q3) FSH stimulates the rupturing of the mature follicle and the expulsion of its ovum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The division of the uterine tube that has an outer margin that resembles a fringe is called the:
A)isthmus.
B)ampulla.
C)infundibulum.
D)oviduct.
Q5) What are the main functions of the uterus?
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Chapter 47: Growth, Development, and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crossing over can add almost infinite variety to the genetic makeup of an individual.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Process by which older bones develop bone margins that become indistinct and shaggy-appearing
A)Atherosclerosis
B)Arteriosclerosis
C)Stroke
D)Osteoarthritis
E)"Barrel chest"
F)Lipping
G)Cataract
H)Hypertension
I)Glaucoma
J)Presbyopia
Q3) The length of pregnancy is called the gestation period.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the function of polar bodies in oogenesis?
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Statistical evidence supports a link between time of insemination and the sex of the offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The effect on the body of uncontrolled PKU is damage to the liver and kidneys.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pseudogenes are gene fragments that can be reassembled to form a variety of polypeptides.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lymphocytes fail to develop properly
A)Down syndrome
B)Huntington disease
C)Klinefelter syndrome deficiency
D)Multiple neurofibromatosis
E)Parkinson disease
F)Retinitis pigmentosa
G)Severe combined immune deficiency
H)Tay-Sachs disease
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