Primary Care Assessment Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Primary Care Assessment focuses on the foundational principles and practices required for effective patient evaluation in primary healthcare settings. The course covers key concepts such as patient history taking, physical examination techniques, risk factor identification, screening protocols, and interpretation of diagnostic tests. Emphasis is placed on developing clinical reasoning skills, understanding the importance of preventive care, and employing evidence-based guidelines to assess and manage acute and chronic conditions. Students will gain practical experience through case studies and simulations that reflect the diverse and dynamic nature of primary care, preparing them to deliver comprehensive and equitable care across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Seidels Guide to Physical Examination 9th Edition by Jane W. Ball
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26 Chapters
648 Verified Questions
648 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The History and Interviewing Process
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2604
Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. D complains of a headache. During the history, he mentions his use of alcohol and illicit drugs. This information would most likely belong in the:
A) chief complaint.
B) past medical history.
C) personal and social history.
D) review of systems.
Answer: C
Q2) Direct questioning about domestic violence in the home should be:
A) a routine component of history taking with female patients.
B) avoided for fear of offending the woman's partner.
C) conducted only in cases in which there is a history of abuse.
D) used only when the patient is obviously being victimized.
Answer: A
Q3) When are open-ended questions generally most useful?
A) During sensitive area part of the interview
B) After several closed-ended questions have been asked
C) While designing the genogram
D) During the review of systems
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cultural Competency
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which variables can intrude on successful communication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Social class
B) Gender
C) Stereotype
D) Phenotype
E) Age
Answer: A, B, E
Q2) A 22-year-old female nurse is interviewing an 86-year-old male patient. The patient avoids eye contact and answers questions only by saying, "Yeah," "No," or "I guess so."
Which of the following is appropriate for the interviewer to say or ask?
A) "We will be able to communicate better if you look at me."
B) "It's hard for me to gather useful information because your answers are so short."
C) "Are you uncomfortable talking with me?"
D) "Does your religion make it hard for you to answer my questions?"
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Examination Techniques and Equipment
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are caring for a nonambulatory 80-year-old male patient and he tells you, a female nurse, that he feels like he is having drainage from his rectum. Which initial nursing action is appropriate?
A) Drape the patient and observe the rectal area.
B) Tell the patient that his doctor will be notified of his problem.
C) Tell the patient that you will ask the male nurse on the next shift to check on the problem.
D) Give the patient an ice pack to apply to the area.
Answer: A
Q2) Which technique is used during both the history taking and the physical examination process?
A) Auscultation
B) Inspection
C) Palpation
D) Percussion
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Clinical Reasoning
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-analysis assists providers in giving proper context to:
A) history and physical findings.
B) therapeutic options.
C) attitudes, values, and feelings.
D) differential diagnoses.
Q2) The most important guide to sequencing actions should be:
A) probability and utility.
B) assumption and intuition.
C) costs and risks of procedures.
D) reimbursement potential and patient acceptance.
Q3) Mr. Johnson actually has streptococcal pharyngitis; however, the throat culture is initially read as negative. This situation describes a test with a:
A) low sensitivity.
B) high sensitivity.
C) high specificity.
D) low specificity.
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6
Chapter 5: Documentation
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allergies to drugs and foods are generally listed in which section of the medical record?
A) History of present illness
B) Past medical history
C) Social history
D) Problem list
Q2) The examiner's evaluation of a patient's mental status belongs in the:
A) history of present illness.
B) review of systems.
C) physical examination.
D) patient education.
Q3) Which is an effective adjunct to document the location of findings during the recording of the physical examination?
A) Relationship to anatomic landmarks
B) Computer graphics
C) Comparison with other patients of same gender and size
D) Comparison to previous examinations using light pen markings
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Chapter 6: Vital Signs and Pain Assessment
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a syndrome in which regional pain extends beyond this specific peripheral nerve injury, you would notice which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allodynia
B) Sleep disturbance
C) Blood flow changes
D) Numbness
E) Edema
Q2) Infants delivered by Cesarean section demonstrate which respiratory characteristic in comparison to infants delivered vaginally?
A) Slower respiratory rate
B) Faster respiratory rate
C) Shallower respirations
D) Deeper respirations
Q3) The pyrexia response is triggered by the production and release of:
A) prostaglandins.
B) endogenous pyrogens.
C) hypothalamic enzymes.
D) thyroid hormones.
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8
Chapter 7: Mental Status
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible?
A) Delirium
B) Dementia
C) Depression
D) Anxiety
Q2) Under most conditions, adult patients should be able to repeat forward a series of _____________ numbers.
Q3) Which clinical assessments test attention span?
A) Spell WORLD backward.
B) Draw a clock.
C) Say the days of the week.
D) Do arithmetic calculations.
E) Explain "a stitch in time saves nine."
Q4) Appropriateness of logic, sequence, cohesion, and relevance to topics are markers for the assessment of:
A) mood and feelings.
B) attention span.
C) thought process and content.
D) abstract reasoning.
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Chapter 8: Growth, Measurement, and Nutrition
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ms. Davis is a 27-year-old patient with a BMI of 33. Based on her BMI, your diagnosis would be:
A) normal body weight.
B) overweight.
C) obese.
D) extremely obese.
Q2) The term large for gestational age (LGA) indicates that an infant is larger than ____% of infants born at the same number of weeks' gestation.
Q3) Round face, preauricular fat, hyperpigmentation, and "buffalo hump" in the posterior cervical area are associated with:
A) infantile hydrocephalus.
B) acromegaly.
C) Cushing syndrome.
D) achondroplasia.
Q4) Milestone achievements are data most likely to appear in the history of: A) adolescents.
B) infants.
C) school-age children.
D) young adults.
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Chapter 9: Skin, Hair, and Nails
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cultural group has the lowest incidence of nevi?
A) Native Americans
B) African Americans
C) Mexican Americans
D) Asians
Q2) Fluorescing lesions are best distinguished using a(n):
A) incandescent lamp.
B) magnifying glass.
C) transilluminator.
D) Wood's lamp.
Q3) Which nail change found on examination would be most alarming?
A) Dark bands seen on all fingernails of a dark-skinned person
B) Yellow discoloration of the great toe of an older adult
C) Single dark band in a white adult
D) Pits in both index fingernails of an adult
Q4) The most common cutaneous neoplasm is:
A) basal cell carcinoma.
B) compound nevus.
C) seborrheic keratosis.
D) senile actinic keratosis.
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Chapter 10: Lymphatic System
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymph flows faster in response to:
A) increased metabolic activity.
B) decreased blood volume.
C) decreased metabolic rate.
D) decreased permeability of the capillary walls.
Q2) Which finding indicates that the examiner is assessing a blood vessel rather than a lymph node?
A) A bruit
B) Inflammation
C) Tenderness
D) Redness
Q3) Cells that line the lymph node sinuses perform the specific function of:
A) fat absorption.
B) fetal immunization.
C) hematopoiesis.
D) phagocytosis.
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12
Chapter 11: Head and Neck
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a head and neck assessment of a neonate, it is important to screen for:
A) the presence of torticollis.
B) signs and symptoms of cerebral palsy.
C) uneven movement of the eyes.
D) unilateral movement of the tongue.
Q2) The thyroid gland should:
A) be slightly left of midline.
B) have a clear vascular sound.
C) move when the patient swallows.
D) tug with each heartbeat.
Q3) The correct way to transilluminate an infant's skull is to:
A) hold the light 18 inches from the skull.
B) move the light toward and then away from the head.
C) place the light firmly against the skull.
D) shine the light inside the infant's mouth.
Q4) Which of the following is true regarding a cephalohematoma?
A) It is bound by suture lines.
B) The affected part feels soft.
C) It is obvious at birth.
D) The margins are poorly defined.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Eyes
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When testing corneal sensitivity controlled by cranial nerve V, you should expect the patient to respond with:
A) brisk blinking.
B) copious tearing.
C) pupil dilation.
D) reflex smiling.
Q2) Which are the signs and symptoms of infant retinoblastoma? (Select all that apply.)
A) White reflex
B) Red reflex
C) Corneal light reflex
D) Absence of a blink reflex
E) Autosomal dominant trait
F) Drainage from the affected eye
G) Visual acuity of 20/500
Q3) Examination to assess for extraocular muscle imbalance is conducted by:
A) comparing pupillary responses to different shapes.
B) having the patient follow your finger through planes.
C) inspecting slightly closed lids for fasciculations.
D) transilluminating the cornea with tangential light.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Ears, Nose, and Throat
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs. Donaldson is a 31-year-old patient who is pregnant. In providing Mrs. Donaldson with healthcare information, you will explain that she can expect to experience:
A) more nasal stuffiness.
B) a sensitive sense of smell.
C) drooling.
D) enhanced hearing.
Q2) Mr. Akins is a 78-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of hearing loss. Which are changes in hearing that occur in older adults? (Select all that apply.)
A) Results from cranial nerve VII
B) Slow progression
C) Loss of high frequency
D) Bone conduction heard longer than air conduction
E) Sounds may be garbled, difficult to localize
F) Unable to hear in a crowded room
Q3) When you ask the patient to identify smells, you are assessing cranial nerve __.
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15
Chapter 14: Chest and Lungs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which site of chest wall retractions indicates a more severe obstruction in the asthmatic patient?
A) Lower chest
B) Along the anterior axillary line
C) Above the clavicles
D) At the nipple line
Q2) With consolidation in the lung tissue, the breath sounds are louder and easier to hear, whereas healthy lung tissue produces softer sounds. This is because:
A) consolidation echoes in the chest.
B) consolidation is a poor conductor of sound.
C) air-filled lung sounds are from smaller spaces.
D) air-filled lung tissue is an insulator of sound.
Q3) Which lung sounds are associated with atelectasis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Wheezes
B) Ronchi
C) Crackles
D) Crepitus
E) Rales
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16
Chapter 15: Heart
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask patients to:
A) lie on their back.
B) lie on their left side.
C) lie on their right side.
D) sit up and lean forward.
Q2) If the apical impulse is more vigorous than expected, it is called a:
A) lift.
B) thrill.
C) bruit.
D) murmur.
Q3) Which of the following information belongs in the past medical history section related to heart and blood vessel assessment?
A) Adolescent inguinal hernia
B) Childhood mumps
C) History of bee stings
D) Previous unexplained fever
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Chapter 16: Blood Vessels
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bounding pulse in an infant may be associated with:
A) patent ductus arteriosus.
B) coarctation of the aorta.
C) decreased cardiac output.
D) peripheral vaso-occlusion.
Q2) In infants or small children, a capillary refill time of 4 seconds:
A) is normal.
B) indicates hypervolemia.
C) indicates dehydration or hypovolemic shock.
D) indicates renal artery stenosis.
Q3) To assess a patient's jugular veins, the patient should first be placed in which position?
A) Supine
B) Semi-Fowler
C) Upright
D) Left lateral recumbent
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Chapter 17: Breasts and Axillae
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When conducting a clinical breast examination, the examiner should:
A) forgo the examination if the patient has had a recent mammogram.
B) keep the patient's breasts completely covered to respect modesty.
C) dim the lights to minimize anxiety.
D) inspect both breasts simultaneously.
Q2) Most women with breast cancer:
A) possess the BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene.
B) risk increases with aging.
C) have a mother who had breast cancer.
D) continue to menstruate after age 52.
Q3) If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a:
A) Vacutainer tube.
B) glass slide and fixative.
C) specimen jar with formaldehyde.
D) tape strip to test pH.
Q4) Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of:
A) adult males.
B) patients with lung disease.
C) pregnant women.
D) pubertal females.
19
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Chapter 18: Abdomen
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient presents with symptoms that lead you to suspect acute appendicitis. Which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with this condition?
A) Positive psoas sign
B) Positive McBurney sign
C) Consistent right lower quadrant (RLQ) pain
D) Rebound tenderness
Q2) Your patient is a 48-year-old woman with complaints of severe cramping pain in the abdomen and right flank. Her past medical history includes a history of bladder calculi. You diagnose her with renal calculi at this time. Which of the following symptoms would you expect with her diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Abdominal pain on palpation
B) Blumberg sign
C) Cullen sign
D) CVA tenderness
E) Fever
F) Grey Turner sign
G) Hematuria
H) Nausea
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Chapter 19: Female Genitalia
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs. Reilly brings her 6-year-old daughter in with complaints of a foul vaginal discharge noted in her underpants. The most common cause of a foul vaginal discharge in children is a(n):
A) accident.
B) foreign body.
C) infection.
D) ruptured hymen.
Q2) Which one of the following is a proper technique for the use of a speculum during a vaginal examination?
A) Allow the labia to spread, and insert the speculum slightly open.
B) Insert one finger, and insert the opened speculum.
C) Press the introitus downward, and insert the closed speculum obliquely.
D) Spread the labia, and insert the closed speculum horizontally.
Q3) The form of gynecologic cancer that is increased in obese women is:
A) vaginal.
B) cervical.
C) ovarian.
D) endometrial.
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Chapter 20: Male Genitalia
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26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Difficulty replacing the retracted foreskin of the penis to its normal position is called:
A) paraphimosis.
B) Peyronie disease.
C) phimosis.
D) priapism.
Q2) Inspection of the scrotum should reveal:
A) lightly pigmented skin.
B) two testes per sac.
C) smooth scrotal sacs.
D) the left scrotal sac lower than the right.
Q3) You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should:
A) chart the finding as paraphimosis.
B) inquire about previous penile infections.
C) retract the foreskin firmly.
D) transilluminate the glans.
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Chapter 21: Anus, Rectum, and Prostate
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perianal abscesses, fissures, or pilonidal cysts will cause the patient to experience:
A) bulging and wrinkling.
B) constipation and pallor.
C) diarrhea and redness.
D) tenderness and inflammation.
Q2) The posterior surface of the prostate can be located by palpation of the:
A) anal canal and perineum.
B) anterior wall of the rectum.
C) lateral wall of the anus.
D) lower abdomen and perineum.
Q3) Palpation of the anal ring is done by:
A) bidigital palpation with the thumbs.
B) inserting the smallest finger into the anus.
C) pressing a gauze pad over the anus.
D) rotation of the forefinger inside the anus.
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Chapter 22: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardinal signs for rheumatoid disorders include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gradual onset
B) Weakness that is usually localized and not severe
C) Coarse crepitus on motion
D) Joint tenderness
E) Sleep disturbance
Q2) When the shoulder contour is asymmetric and one shoulder has hollows in the rounding contour, you would suspect:
A) kyphosis.
B) fractured scapula.
C) a dislocated shoulder.
D) muscle wasting.
Q3) Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of:
A) adolescents.
B) infants.
C) older adults.
D) middle-age adults.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Neurologic System
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The finger to nose test allows assessment of:
A) coordination and fine motor function.
B) point location.
C) sensory function.
D) stereognosis.
Q2) Deep pressure tests are used mostly for patients who are experiencing:
A) absent superficial pain sensation.
B) gait and stepping disturbances.
C) lordosis, osteoporosis, or arthritis.
D) tonic neck or torso spasms.
Q3) Which condition is potentially life-threatening if not treated expeditiously with antibiotics?
A) HIV encephalopathy
B) Dementia
C) Parkinson disease
D) Bacterial meningitis
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Chapter 24: Sports Participation Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child has a poorly controlled seizure disorder. He has restricted sports participation but would be able to engage in:
A) archery.
B) swimming.
C) weight lifting.
D) badminton.
Q2) You are auscultating heart tones as part of a sports physical examination. You hear a murmur at the right second intercostal space (aortic area). The murmur increases in intensity when this teenager goes from a sitting to standing position. The subsequent recommendation should be to:
A) consult a cardiologist as soon as possible.
B) have a stress test before completion of the form.
C) participate in low-static, high-dynamic sports.
D) limit contact sports and have an echocardiogram.
Q3) Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation?
A) Asthma
B) Fever
C) Controlled seizures
D) HIV-positive status
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Chapter 25: Putting it All Together
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Sample Questions
Q1) Throughout the history and physical examination, the clinician should:
A) concentrate on emotional issues.
B) follow an inflexible sequence.
C) evaluate the whole patient.
D) deal only with previously identified problems.
Q2) An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves:
A) lens inspection.
B) near vision evaluation.
C) sclera observation.
D) visual field assessment.
Q3) Which position is most likely the most comfortable for a patient who is 6 months pregnant?
A) Side-lying
B) Lithotomy
C) Prone
D) Flexed-knee
Q4) Mrs. Jones is a 44-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. The patient is unable to shrug her shoulders against the examiner's hands during the examination. The cranial nerve involved with successful shoulder shrugging is CN ____.
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Chapter 26: Emergency or Life-Threatening Situations
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Sample Questions
Q1) When calculating the force of impact of a penetrating object, use:
A) the size of the missile and size of the patient.
B) the time of the incident and depth of the wound.
C) the amount of blood loss and level of consciousness.
D) the velocity of the missile and distance from the source.
Q2) Which injury is the most common precipitator of blunt trauma?
A) Age-related falls
B) Motor vehicle accidents
C) Work-related injuries
D) Childhood play injuries
Q3) In life-threatening emergencies, consent for treatment:
A) is obtained before treatment to protect the facility from liability.
B) is not necessary.
C) occurs after treatment is administered.
D) is not valid because the patient is not competent.
Q4) Respiratory distress may be evidenced by:
A) retractions of accessory muscles.
B) bradycardia.
C) flushed skin.
D) decreased capillary refill time.
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