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Primary Health Care Nursing Chapter Exam Questions - 1148 Verified Questions

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Primary Health Care Nursing

Chapter Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Primary Health Care Nursing focuses on the essential principles and practices of delivering comprehensive, accessible, community-based healthcare services that emphasize health promotion, disease prevention, and patient-centered care. This course explores the nurses role within multidisciplinary teams, health education, cultural competence, advocacy, and the management of chronic and acute conditions within primary care settings. Students will analyze health systems, policies, and strategies that influence primary healthcare delivery, and develop critical skills in assessment, clinical decision-making, and collaboration to improve patient outcomes across diverse populations.

Recommended Textbook

Physical Examination and Health Assessment Canadian 2nd Edition by Carolyn Jarvis

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31 Chapters

1148 Verified Questions

1148 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Critical Thinking and Evidence-Informed Assessment

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Novice nurses,without a background of skills and experience to draw from,are more likely to make their decisions using:

A)intuition.

B)a set of rules.

C)articles in journals.

D)advice from supervisors.

Answer: B

Q2) A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous,that he is nauseated,and that he "feels hot." This type of data would be:

A)objective.

B)reflective.

C)subjective.

D)introspective.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Health Promotion in the Context of Health Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is considered a social determinant of health according to the PHAC?

A)Age

B)Gender

C)Marital status

D)Mental health

Answer: B

Q2) According to Pender's Health Promotion Model,which of the following is an example of behaviour-specific cognition and affect?

A)Prior related behaviour

B)Biological personal factors

C)Perceived self-efficacy

D)Immediate competing demands

Answer: C

Q3) Which of the following is the most commonly used developmental screening tool?

A)Denver Developmental Screening Test (DDST)

B)Ages and Stages Questionnaires (ASQs)

C)Nipissing District Developmental Screen (NDDS)

D)Parents' Evaluation of Developmental Status (PEDS)

Answer: C

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Cultural Competence: Cultural Care and Social

Considerations in Health Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) An Aboriginal woman who lives away from the reserve has come to the clinic to seek help with regulating her diabetes.In conducting an interview,the nurse's priority involves:

A)finding out why the patient is not compliant.

B)reinforcing the health teaching related to diet and exercise.

C)determining if the patient can afford her medications.

D)sending the patient to the diabetic clinic for follow-up.

Answer: C

Q2) The Indian Act of 1876 classifies First Nations people into registered status Indians or nonstatus Indians.Knowing a First Nations person's status is important for health care providers,as it:

A)informs them of the patient's provincial health insurance coverage.

B)permits only those with status to have unlimited benefits for health care across Canada.

C)guides health care providers in planning care,as those with status are entitled to certain benefits that are not covered under the provincial plan.

D)is a factor to consider when planning to send the patient to an urban hospital for further treatment and care.

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: The Interview

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Sample Questions

Q1) Critique the following statement made by the nurse: "I know it may be hard,but you should do what the doctor ordered because he/she is the expert in this field."

A)This statement is inappropriate because it shows the nurse's bias.

B)This statement is appropriate because members of the health care team are experts in the area of patient care.

C)This type of statement creates dependency and inferiority in the patient and is best avoided in an interview situation.

D)At times,it is necessary to use authority statements when dealing with patients,especially when they are undecided about an issue.

Q2) During an interview,a parent of a hospitalized child is sitting with an "open" posture.As the interviewer begins to discuss his son's treatment,however,the father suddenly crosses his arms against his chest and crosses his legs.This would suggest that he is:

A)just changing positions.

B)more comfortable in this position.

C)tired and needs a break in the interview.

D)uncomfortable talking about his son's treatment.

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Page 6

Chapter 5: The Complete Health History

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 59-year-old patient tells the nurse that he is in the clinic to "check up on his ulcerative colitis." He has been having "black stools" in the last 24 hours.How would the nurse document his reason for seeking care?

A)J.M.is a 59-year-old male here for "ulcerative colitis."

B)J.M.came into the clinic complaining of black stools in the past 24 hours.

C)J.M. ,a 59-year-old male,states he has ulcerative colitis and wants to have it checked up.

D)J.M.is a 59-year-old male here for having "black stools" in the past 24 hours.

Q2) The nurse is assessing a new patient who has recently immigrated to Canada.Which of the following questions is appropriate to add to the health history questionnaire?

A)"Why did you come to Canada?"

B)"When did you come to Canada,and from which country?"

C)"What made you leave your home country?"

D)"Are you planning to return to your home country?"

Q3) The review of systems provides the nurse with:

A)physical findings related to each system.

B)information regarding health promotion practices.

C)an opportunity to teach the patient medical terms.

D)information necessary for the nurse to diagnose the patient's medical problem.

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Mental Health Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) During morning rounds,the nurse asks a patient,"How are you today?" The patient mumbles,"You today,you today,you today!" This speech pattern is an example of:

A)Echolalia

B)Clanging

C)Word salad

D)Perseveration

Q2) Which of the following individuals would the nurse consider at highest risk for a suicide attempt?

A)A man who jokes about death

B)A woman who,during a past episode of major depression,attempted suicide

C)An adolescent who has just broken up with her boyfriend and states that she wants to kill herself

D)An older adult who tells the nurse that he is going to "join his wife in heaven" tomorrow and plans to shoot himself

Q3) A score of 6 on the MoCA tool indicates:

A)no cognitive impairment.

B)mild cognitive impairment.

C)moderate cognitive impairment.

D)severe cognitive impairment.

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Substance Use in the Context of Health Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement is true in relation to the CAGE questionnaire?

A)It takes about 5 minutes to administer.

B)It has 20 closed-ended questions.

C)It does not distinguish past problem drinking from active present drinking.

D)It is reliable and valid to use on any nationality and both genders.

Q2) Who has the greatest chance of success in a substance misuse treatment program?

A)A 22-year-old female who misuses alcohol and tobacco

B)A 38-year-old male who misuses heroin and tobacco

C)A 62-year-old female who misuses alcohol and marijuana

D)A 43-year-old single mother of three school-aged children who misuses alcohol

Q3) Social attitudes toward which one of the following have become increasingly less tolerant in Canada?

A)Alcohol use

B)Marijuana use

C)Tobacco use

D)Gambling

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Interpersonal Violence Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is using the danger assessment (DA)tool to evaluate the risk of homicide.Which of the following statements best describes its use?

A)The DA tool is to be administered by law enforcement personnel.

B)The DA tool should be used in every assessment of suspected abuse.

C)The number of "Yes" answers indicates the woman's understanding of her situation.

D)The more affirmative answers there are,the more serious is the danger in the woman's situation.

Q2) When assessing bruises,which colour indicates a new bruise that is less than 2 hours old?

A)Red

B)Purple-blue

C)Greenish brown

D)Brownish yellow

Q3) When documenting IPV and elder abuse,the nurse should include:

A)photographic documentation of injuries.

B)a summary of the abused person's statements.

C)verbatim documentation of every statement made by the abused person.

D)a general description of injuries in the progress notes.

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Chapter 9: Assessment Techniques and the Clinical Setting

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Sample Questions

Q1) With which of the following patients would it be most appropriate to use games during the assessment,such as having the patient "blow out" the light on the penlight?

A)An infant

B)A preschool child

C)A school-age child

D)An adolescent

Q2) A 6-month-old infant has been brought to the well-child clinic for a checkup.She is currently sleeping.What should the examiner do first?

A)Auscultate the lungs and heart while the infant is still sleeping.

B)Examine the infant's hips when the infant is still asleep because this procedure usually causes discomfort.

C)Begin with the assessment of the eye and continue with the remainder of the examination in a head-to-toe approach.

D)Wake the infant before beginning any part of the examination to obtain the most accurate assessment of body systems.

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Chapter 10: General Survey, measurement, and Vital Signs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following describes the correct technique the nurse should use when measuring oral temperature with a mercury thermometer?

A)Wait for 30 minutes if the patient has ingested hot or cold liquids.

B)Leave the thermometer in place for 3 to 4 minutes if the patient is afebrile.

C)Place the thermometer in front of the tongue,and have the patient close his or her lips.

D)Shake the mercury-in-glass thermometer down to 36.6°C before taking the temperature.

Q2) When measuring a patient's body temperature,the nurse keeps in mind that body temperature is influenced by:

A)constipation.

B)patient's emotional state.

C)the diurnal cycle.

D)the nocturnal cycle.

Q3) Which of the following factors helps determine BP?

A)Pulse rate

B)Pulse pressure

C)Vascular output

D)Peripheral vascular resistance

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Chapter 11: Pain Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of pain occurs as a result of abnormal processing of the pain impulse through the peripheral or central nervous system?

A)Visceral pain

B)Referred pain

C)Cutaneous pain

D)Neuropathic pain

Q2) When completing an initial pain assessment,the nurses uses PQRSTU to remember all of the aspects to assess.Which of the following are represented by PQRSTU? (Select all that apply. )

A)Quality

B)Provocative or palliative

C)Malignant or nonmalignant

D)Region

E)Severity

F)Impairment

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13

Chapter 12: Nutritional Assessment and Nursing Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant woman is interested in breastfeeding her baby and asks several questions about it.Which of the following would be appropriate information the nurse should provide?

A)Breastfeeding is best when also supplemented with bottle feedings.

B)Babies who are breastfed often require supplemental vitamins.

C)Breastfeeding is recommended for the first 2 years of life.

D)Breast milk provides the nutrients necessary for growth as well as natural immunity.

Q2) Which of the following is a side effect of energy boosting drinks (for example,Red Bull)?

A)Overhydration

B)Hypotension

C)Tachycardia

D)Personality disorders

Q3) The nurse is discussing appropriate foods for a 3-year-old child with the mother.Which of the following foods can be recommended?

A)Foods that the child will eat,no matter what they are

B)Foods that are easy to hold,such as hot dogs,nuts,and grapes

C)Any foods that the rest of the family is eating

D)Finger foods and nutritious snacks that will not cause choking

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Skin, hair, and Nails

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56 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 45-year-old farmer comes in for skin evaluation and complains of hair loss. He has noticed that the hair on his head seems to be breaking off in patches and that there is some scaling on his scalp. The nurse would begin the examination suspecting:

A)tinea capitis.

B)tinea corporis.

C)toxic alopecia.

D)seborrheic dermatitis.

Q2) Jaundice is manifested by a yellow skin colour,indicating rising levels of bilirubin in the blood.Which of the following findings is indicative of true jaundice?

A)Yellow patches throughout the sclera

B)Yellow colour of the sclera,with the colour extending up to the iris

C)Skin that appears yellow when examined under low light

D)Yellow deposits on the palms and soles of the feet where jaundice is first manifested

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Chapter 14: Head and Neck, including

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman is at the clinic for a checkup and says,"My eyes have gotten puffy,and my eyebrows and hair have become coarse and dry." The nurse suspects:

A)cachexia.

B)cretinism.

C)myxedema.

D)scleroderma.

Q2) During the examination of a patient in her third trimester of pregnancy,the nurse notices that the patient's thyroid gland is slightly enlarged.No enlargement had been noted previously.The nurse suspects that:

A)she has an iodine deficiency.

B)she is exhibiting early signs of goitre.

C)this is a normal finding during pregnancy.

D)further tests are needed for possible thyroid cancer.

Q3) The nurse is aware that all of the areas in the body where lymph nodes are accessible for examination are the:

A)head,breasts,groin,and abdomen.

B)arms,breasts,inguinal area,and legs.

C)head and neck,arms,breasts,and axillae.

D)head and neck,arms,inguinal area,and axillae.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Eyes

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 68-year-old woman is in the eye clinic for a checkup.She tells the nurse that she has been having trouble reading the paper,sewing,and even seeing the faces of her grandchildren.On examination,the nurse notes that she has some loss of central vision but her peripheral vision is normal.These findings suggest that:

A)she may have macular degeneration.

B)her vision is normal for someone her age.

C)she has the beginning stages of cataract formation.

D)she has increased intraocular pressure or glaucoma.

Q2) Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when examining the eyes of a patient of African descent?

A)Increased night vision

B)A dark retinal background

C)Increased photosensitivity

D)Narrowed palpebral fissures

Q3) Which of the following physiological changes is responsible for presbyopia?

A)Degeneration of the cornea

B)Loss of lens elasticity

C)Decreased adaptation to darkness

D)Decreased distance vision abilities

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Page 17

Chapter 16: Ears

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a middle ear infection asks the nurse,"What does the middle ear do?" The nurse says that the function of the middle ear is to:

A)maintain balance.

B)interpret sounds as they enter the ear.

C)conduct vibrations of sounds to the inner ear.

D)increase amplitude of sound to enable the inner ear to function.

Q2) A 70-year-old patient reports to the nurse that he is having trouble hearing,especially when he is in large groups.He says he "can't always tell where the sound is coming from" and the words often sound "mixed up." What might the nurse suspect as the cause for this?

A)Atrophy of the apocrine glands

B)Cilia becoming coarse and stiff

C)Degeneration of nerves in the inner ear

D)Scarring of the tympanic membrane

Q3) Which of the following statements about the eustachian tube is true?

A)It is responsible for the production of cerumen.

B)It remains open except during swallowing or yawning.

C)It allows passage of air between the middle and outer ear.

D)It helps equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane.

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Nose, mouth, and Throat

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Sample Questions

Q1) The tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth is the:

A)uvula.

B)palate.

C)papillae.

D)frenulum.

Q2) The nurse is teaching a health class to high school boys.One of the topics is the use of smokeless tobacco (SLT).Which of the following statements about SLT are accurate? (Select all that apply. )

A)One pinch of SLT in the mouth for 30 minutes delivers the effect of an equivalent amount of tobacco in one cigarette.

B)SLT has a greater risk of oral cancer than does smoking.

C)Pain is an early sign of oral cancer.

D)Pain is rarely an early sign of oral cancer.

E)Tooth decay is another risk of SLT because of the use of sugar in it.

F)SLT is considered a healthy alternative to smoking.

Q3) The primary purpose of the ciliated mucous membrane in the nose is to:

A)warm the inhaled air.

B)filter out dust and bacteria.

C)filter coarse particles from inhaled air.

D)facilitate movement of air through the nares.

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Chapter 18: Breasts and Regional Lymphatic System

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Sample Questions

Q1) While examining a 70-year-old male patient,the nurse notices that he has bilateral gynecomastia.Which of the following describes the nurse's best course of action?

A)Recommend that he make an appointment with his physician for a mammogram.

B)Ignore it;it is not unusual for men to have benign breast enlargement.

C)Explain that this condition may be the result of hormonal changes,and recommend that he consult his physician.

D)Tell him that gynecomastia in men is usually associated with prostate enlargement,and recommend that he undergo thorough screening.

Q2) A new mother,who has been breastfeeding for 1 month,calls the clinic to report that an area of her left breast is red,swollen,tender,very hot,and hard.She has a fever of 38.3°C.She has also had symptoms of flu,such as chills,sweating,and tiredness.From this description,what condition does the nurse suspect?

A)Mastitis

B)Paget's disease

C)Plugged milk duct

D)Mammary duct ectasia

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Chapter 19: Thorax and Lungs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A teenage patient comes to the emergency department complaining of an inability to "breathe and a sharp pain in my left chest." Assessment findings include cyanosis,tachypnea,tracheal deviation to the right,decreased tactile fremitus on the left,hyperresonance on the left,and decreased breath sounds on the left.This description is consistent with:

A)bronchitis.

B)a pneumothorax.

C)acute pneumonia.

D)an asthma attack.

Q2) While auscultating for breath sounds,the nurse will use the stethoscope correctly by:

A)listening to at least one full respiration in each location.

B)listening as the patient inhales and then going to the next site during exhalation.

C)having the patient breathe in and out rapidly while listening to the breath sounds.

D)listening to sounds through clothing or the hospital gown if the patient is shy.

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21

Chapter 20: Heart and Neck Vessels

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 30-year-old woman with a history of mitral valve problems states that lately she has been "very tired." She has started waking up at night and feels like her "heart is pounding." During assessment,the nurse identifies a thrill and lift at the fifth left intercostal space midclavicular line.In the same area,the nurse also identifies a blowing,swishing sound right after S .These findings would be most consistent with:

A)heart failure.

B)aortic stenosis.

C)pulmonary edema.

D)mitral regurgitation.

Q2) Which of the following statements about S during cardiac auscultation is true?

A)S is louder than S at the base.

B)S indicates the beginning of diastole.

C)S coincides with the carotid artery pulse.

D)S is caused by closure of the semilunar valves.

Q3) Normal splitting of the second heart sound is associated with:

A)expiration.

B)inspiration.

C)exercise state.

D)low resting heart rate.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Peripheral Vascular System and Lymphatic System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about assessment of the ankle-brachial index (ABI)is true?

A)Normal ABI indices are from 0.50 to 1.0.

B)The normal ankle pressure is slightly lower than the brachial pressure.

C)The ABI is a reliable measurement of peripheral vascular disease in diabetic individuals.

D)An ABI of 0.90 to 0.70 indicates the presence of peripheral vascular disease and mild claudication.

Q2) When auscultating over a patient's femoral arteries,the nurse notes a bruit on the left side.The nurse knows that:

A)bruits are often associated with venous disease.

B)bruits occur in the presence of lymphadenopathy.

C)hypermetabolic states will cause bruits in the femoral arteries.

D)bruits occur with turbulent blood flow,indicating partial occlusion.

Q3) To assess the dorsalis pedis artery,the nurse would palpate:

A)behind the knee.

B)over the lateral malleolus.

C)in the groove behind the medial malleolus.

D)lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Abdomen

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is complaining of tenderness along the costovertebral angles.The nurse knows that this symptom is most often indicative of:

A)ovary infection.

B)liver enlargement.

C)kidney inflammation.

D)spleen enlargement.

Q2) During an abdominal assessment,the nurse tests for a fluid wave.A positive fluid wave test occurs with:

A)splenomegaly.

B)distended bladder.

C)constipation.

D)ascites.

Q3) When palpating the abdomen of a 20-year-old patient,the nurse notes the presence of tenderness with deep palpation in the LUQ.Which of the following structures is most likely to be involved?

A)Spleen

B)Sigmoid

C)Appendix

D)Gallbladder

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Anus,rectum and Prostate

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Sample Questions

Q1) During a DRE,the nurse notes that the patient has hard feces in the rectum.The patient complains of feeling "full," has a distended abdomen,and states that she has not had a bowel movement "for several days." The nurse suspects which condition?

A)Rectal polyp

B)Fecal impaction

C)Rectal abscess

D)Rectal prolapse

Q2) The nurse is examining only the rectal area of a woman.In what position should the woman be placed?

A)The lithotomy position

B)Lying in the prone position

C)The left lateral decubitus position

D)Bending over the table while standing

Q3) A 46-year-old man requires assessment of his sigmoid colon.Which of the following is most appropriate for this examination?

A)A proctoscope

B)An ultrasound

C)A colonoscope

D)A rectal exam with an examining finger

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Musculoskeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has had rheumatoid arthritis for years comes to the clinic to ask about changes in her hands.The nurse knows that changes associated with rheumatoid arthritis include:

A)Heberden's nodes.

B)Bouchard's nodules.

C)swan-neck deformities.

D)Dupuytren's contractures.

Q2) A mother brings her newborn male infant in for a checkup.She tells the nurse that he doesn't seem to be moving his right arm as much as his left and that he seems to have pain when she lifts him up under the arms.The nurse suspects a fractured clavicle and would observe for:

A)a negative Allis sign.

B)a positive Ortolani sign.

C)limited range of motion during the Moro reflex.

D)limited range of motion during LaSegue's reflex.

Q3) The knee joint is the articulation of the femur,the tibia,and the:

A)fibula.

B)radius.

C)patella.

D)humerus.

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Chapter 25: Neurological System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A mother of a 1-month-old infant asks the nurse why it takes so long for babies to learn to roll over.The nurse knows that the reason for this is that:

A)there must be a demyelinating process occurring with the baby.

B)myelin is needed to conduct these impulses,and the neurons of a newborn are not myelinated.

C)the cerebral cortex is not fully developed,so control over motor function occurs gradually.

D)the spinal cord is controlling the movement because the cerebellum is not yet fully developed.

Q2) When the nurse asks a 68-year-old patient to stand with his feet together,his arms at his sides,and his eyes closed,he starts to sway and moves his feet further apart.The nurse would document this finding as a(n):

A)ataxia.

B)lack of coordination.

C)negative Homan's sign.

D)positive Romberg sign.

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Chapter 26: Male Genitourinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) During a genital examination,the nurse notes that a male patient has clusters of small vesicles on his glans,surrounded by erythema.The nurse recognizes that these lesions are:

A)Peyronie's disease.

B)genital warts.

C)genital herpes.

D)syphilitic cancer.

Q2) A 62-year-old man states that his doctor told him that he has an "inguinal hernia." He asks the nurse to explain what a hernia is.The nurse should:

A)tell him not to worry,since most men his age develop hernias.

B)explain that a hernia is often the result of prenatal growth abnormalities.

C)refer him to his physician for additional consultation,because the physician made the initial diagnosis.

D)explain that a hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles.

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Chapter 27: Female Genitourinary System

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48 Verified Questions

48 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24689

Sample Questions

Q1) An 18-year-old patient is having her first pelvic examination.It would be appropriate to:

A)invite her mother to be present during the examination.

B)avoid the lithotomy position this first time,because it can be uncomfortable and embarrassing.

C)raise the head of the examination table and give her a mirror so that she can view the exam.

D)drape her fully,leaving the drape between her legs elevated to avoid embarrassing her with eye contact.

Q2) A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection.She tells the nurse that she is afraid that this infection will "hurt my baby." The nurse knows that which of the following statements is true?

A)If intercourse is avoided,the risk for infection is minimal.

B)A thick mucus plug forms that protects the fetus from infection.

C)The acidic pH of vaginal secretions promotes the growth of pathogenic bacteria.

D)The mucus plug that forms in the cervical canal is a good medium for bacterial growth.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24690

Sample Questions

Q1) During an examination,a patient has successfully completed the finger-to-nose and the rapid-alternating-movements tests,and is able to run each heel down the opposite shin.The nurse will conclude that the patient's:

A)occipital function is intact.

B)cerebral function is intact.

C)temporal function is intact.

D)cerebellar function is intact.

Q2) Fifth perform:

A)Deep palpation,all quadrants

B)Light palpation,all quadrants

C)Auscultation of bowel sounds

D)Inspection of abdomen for contour,skin characteristics,and pulsations

E)Percussion of all quadrants

Q3) Fourth perform:

A)Deep palpation,all quadrants

B)Light palpation,all quadrants

C)Auscultation of bowel sounds

D)Inspection of abdomen for contour,skin characteristics,and pulsations

E)Percussion of all quadrants

Page 30

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Chapter 29: Bedside Assessment of the Hospitalized Patient

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24691

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse has administered a pain medication to a patient by IV infusion.The nurse should reassess the patient's response to the pain medication within:

A)5 minutes.

B)15 minutes.

C)30 minutes.

D)60 minutes.

Q2) When assessing the neurological system of a hospitalized patient during morning rounds,the nurse will include which of the following assessments?

A)Blood pressure

B)The patient's rating of pain on a 1 to 10 scale

C)The patient's verbal response

D)The patient's personal hygiene level

Q3) During an assessment of a hospitalized patient,the nurse pinches a fold of skin under the clavicle or on the forearm to note:

A)mobility and turgor.

B)the patient's response to pain.

C)the percentage of the patient's fat-to-muscle ratio.

D)the presence of edema.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 30: Pregnancy

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24692

Sample Questions

Q1) During auscultation of fetal heart tones (FHTs),the nurse determines that the rate is 136 beats per minute.The nurse's next action should be to:

A)document the results,which are within normal range.

B)take the maternal pulse to verify these findings as the uterine souffle.

C)have the patient change positions and count the FHTs again.

D)notify the physician immediately for possible fetal distress.

Q2) A patient's pregnancy test is positive,and she wants to know when the baby is due.The first day of her last menstrual period was June 14,and that period ended June 20.What is her expected date of delivery,using Nägele's rule?

A)March 7

B)March 14

C)March 21

D)March 27

Q3) Which of the following best describes the action of the hormone progesterone during pregnancy?

A)It produces the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin.

B)It stimulates duct formation in the breast.

C)It promotes sloughing of the endometrial wall.

D)It maintains the endometrium around the fetus.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 32

Chapter 31: Functional Assessment of the Older Adult

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24693

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to assess an older adult and discovers that he is in severe pain.Which of the following statements about pain and the older adult is true?

A)Pain is inevitable with aging.

B)Older adults with cognitive impairment feel less pain.

C)Alleviating pain should take priority over other aspects of the assessment.

D)The assessment should take priority so that care decisions can be made.

Q2) During a morning assessment,the nurse notices that an older patient is less attentive and is unable to recall yesterday's events.The nurse administers the Confusion Assessment Method,which will screen for:

A)dementia.

B)depression.

C)delirium.

D)psychosis.

Q3) The nurse is assessing an older adult's advanced ADLs (AADLs),which would include:

A)recreational activities.

B)meal preparation.

C)balancing the chequebook.

D)self-grooming activities.

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