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Primary Dental Care introduces students to the fundamental concepts and practices essential for the prevention, diagnosis, and management of common oral health conditions at the primary care level. The course emphasizes the importance of patient-centered care, oral health education, disease prevention strategies, and the early detection and management of dental diseases. Students will develop foundational skills in clinical examination, basic restorative and preventive procedures, and case management, with a focus on ethical, cultural, and community-based aspects of primary dental care. Practical sessions and simulated scenarios will provide opportunities for students to gain hands-on experience and foster effective communication with patients in a primary care setting.
Recommended Textbook
Primary Preventive Dentistry 8th Edition by Norman O. Harris
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276 Verified Questions
276 Flashcards
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of primary prevention?
A)Oral evaluation
B)Dental prophylaxis
C)Periodontal debridement
D)Xylitol
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following are aspects of primary prevention?
A)Professional oral assessment
B)Patient's plaque control
C)Community water fluoridation
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Secondary prevention can also be termed:
A)Restorative care
B)Dental visits
C)Prophylaxis
D)Rehabilitation
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following is projected to have to slowest population growth through the year 2050?
A)Hispanic
B)White,non-Hispanic
C)Asian
D)Black
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the skill areas assessed in the Cross-Cultural Adaptability Inventory (CCAI)?
A)Emotional resilience
B)Flexibility/openness
C)Nonjudgmental
D)Personal acuity
Answer: C
Q3) From a legal perspective,cultural competence can help to avoid:
A)Liability
B)Malpractice claims
C)Both A and B
D)None of the above,cultural competence has no effect on legal matters
Answer: C
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Q1) Whose responsibility is it to educate patients about oral diseases and their prevention?
A)Dental hygienist
B)Dentist
C)Dental assistant
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) What is the name of the manual published by the American Dental Association that provided a set of codes and accompanying definitions that reflect the commonly accepted dental procedures?
A)MRI-2007/2008
B)CDT-2007/2008
C)MDS-2007/2008
D)CAT-2007/2008
Answer: B
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Q1) In dental plaque metabolism,after the microorganism is exposed to sucrose,they produce:
A)Acid
B)Intracellular polysaccharides
C)Extracellular polysaccharides
D)All of the above
Q2) Pyrophosphates decrease the formation of which of the following?
A)Plaque
B)Calculus
C)Early carious lesions
D)Gingivitis
Q3) Subgingival calculus derives their mineral from which of the following that is found in the sulcus and periodontal pocket.
A)Sulcular epithelium
B)Mucogingival fluid
C)Inflammatory exudate
D)Endotoxins
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Q1) For dental caries to develop which conditions,must occur simultaneously?
A)There must be a susceptible tooth and host.
B)Cariogenic microorganisms must be present in a sufficient quantity.
C)There must be frequent oral consumption of refined sugars.
D)Both A and B.
E)All of the above.
Q2) When there is an immediate drop in pH after carbohydrate consumption,this is termed:
A)Stephan curve
B)Liken curve
C)Liken drop
D)Strait of Reitz
Q3) Which bacterial group is MOST implicated with dental caries?
A)Streptococcus Mutans d.
B)Lactobacillus species e.
C)Streptococcus aureus f.
D)Both A and B g.
E)All of the above
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Q1) Gingival crevicular fluid is an exudate.It contains many cells and proteins.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) For each millimeter of apical migration of sulcular epithelial attachment,there is also one millimeter of periodontal fibers lost.This migration of junctional epithelium and clinical attachment loss is the hallmark sign for diagnosing periodontitis.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of gingival crevicular fluid?
A)Clears bacteria from sulcus
B)Vehicle for leukocytes
C)First line of defense against periodontal pathogens
D)Indicator of healthy sulcus
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Q1) Which of the following can be complications from irradiation?
A)Xerostomia
B)Altered taste
C)Osteoradionecrosis
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following factors determines the stage of cancer?
A)Size
B)Involvement of lymph nodes
C)Presence or absence of distant metastasis
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following should be included in tobacco assessment?
A)Amount used
B)Frequency/duration used
C)Previous quit attempts
D)All of the above
Q4) Which of the following factors affects a patient's prognosis?
A)Grading
B)Staging
C)Both A and B
D)None of the above

9
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Q1) Oral pain after trauma as a result of temperature change is consistent with pulpal inflammation.Pain related to occlusion may mean that a tooth has been displaced or that swelling of the periodontal or supporting tissue has occurred.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) MOST often,discolored primary teeth will need which of the following treatments?
A)Conservative monitoring
B)Immediate extraction
C)Root canal therapy
D)Bleaching
Q3) Which of the following is an appropriate media in which to store an avulsed tooth?
A)Milk
B)Patient's saliva
C)Saline
D)All of the above
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Q1) Which is NOT a protective function of saliva?
A)Lubrication
B)Buffering demineralization
C)Flushing/rinsing
D)Remineralization of tooth structures
E)All of the above are functions of saliva
Q2) Cementum is the hardest substance in the human body,harder than cortical bone.Enamel is composed of fluorapatite.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q3) Humoral immunity is carried out by T cells from the thymus.Cellular immunity is carried out by the B cells from the bone marrow.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
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Q1) The scrub toothbrushing technique uses which movements?
A)Horizontal strokes
B)Vertical strokes
C)Circular strokes
D)All of the above
Q2) The purpose of toothbrushing includes:
A)Removal of plaque biofilm and disturbance of its reformation
B)Removal of food,debris,and stain from the oral cavity
C)Application of a dentifrice containing specific ingredients to address
D)All of the above
Q3) MOST toothbrushes have some type of plastic handle.The plastic allows the handle to be durable while being resistant to water.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
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Q1) Potassium nitrate is a commonly used,FDA-approved,OTC desensitization agent.It reduces the reaction of nerves in the teeth to stimuli such as heat and cold.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q2) Important characteristics that lead to public acceptance of a dentifrice are:
A)Flavor,smell,color,and consistency
B)Flavor,smell,and texture
C)Smell,color,and consistency
D)Flavor,smell,texture,and consistency
Q3) Baking soda (sodium bicarbonate)has had a long history of use as an oral-hygiene aid.The uses for these oral-hygiene aids include fighting plaque,gingivitis reduction,stain-removal,and odor-reducing efficacy.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
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Q1) What oral hygiene product is recommended for Type II and III embrasures?
A)Floss threaders
B)Floss picks
C)Interdental brushes
D)Rubber tip stimulator
Q2) Oral irrigation removes the biofilm on the tooth structure.Supragingival irrigation improves and prevents gingivitis.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q3) It is recommended that bulimics do which of the following after vomiting?
A)Rinse with water
B)Brush teeth
C)Floss
D)Rinse with chlorhexidine
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Q1) Candidiasis appears as raised,white patches on the mucosa and can be painful.The patches can be scraped off revealing healthy mucosa.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q2) Success or failure of implants depends on many factors;however,use of bisphosphonates,osteoporosis,patients who smoke and immunosuppressed patients are NOT considered factors that may contraindicate implant selection.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,.second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q3) The endosseous dental implant includes which component?
A)Implant body
B)Abutment
C)Superstructure
D)All of the above
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Q1) Water fluoridation is a controversial subject.In regard to fluoride,the media is usually more interested in controversy than risk.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) What compound was the FIRST used in controlled water fluoridation programs and is still used in smaller communities?
A)Stannous fluoride
B)Neutral fluoride
C)Sodium silicofluroide
D)Sodium fluoride
Q3) What is the MOST frequently used compound for water fluoridation in the United States today?
A)Hydrofluosilicic acid
B)Sodium silicofluoride
C)Sodium fluoride
D)Stannous fluoride
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Q1) For how long should teeth be exposed to fluoride to garner the maximum anticaries effect?
A)2 minutes
B)3 minutes
C)4 minutes
D)5 minutes
Q2) What is defined as a solution that sets in a gel-like state but is NOT a true gel?
A)Thixotropic
B)Gelation
C)Solidify
D)Hypotropic
Q3) When is fluoride recommended for newly erupted teeth?
A)12 months
B)16 months
C)2 years
D)3 years
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Q1) What is the main advantage of a color sealant?
A)Higher fluoride content
B)Visualization
C)Easier manipulation of the material
D)Less technique sensitivity
Q2) What is defined as finger-like depressions created by the etching solution?
A)Tags
B)Tubules
C)Residue
D)Damaged tooth structure
Q3) When is the BEST time to place a sealant?
A)Once all the permanent molars have erupted
B)As the permanent dentition erupts
C)When the child begins consuming sugars
D)If the child begins to develop caries
Q4) How long should etch remain on the tooth prior to rinsing?
A)5 seconds
B)10-15 seconds
C)20-30 seconds
D)40-50 seconds
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Q1) Dental professionals can have a difficult time identifying patients with eating disorders.When one is identified with an eating disorder,the patient must be cautioned that,for dental rehabilitation to be successful,the underlying eating disorder and its cause must be resolved.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) AIDS and cancer patients can experience which of the following oral condition?
A)Oral candidiasis
B)Herpes simplex
C)Anorexia
D)All of the above
Q3) What are the three local factors needed for caries to develop?
A)Cariogenic bacteria,dietary fibers,and a susceptible tooth
B)A susceptible tooth,cariogenic bacteria,and fermentable carbohydrates
C)A susceptible tooth,proteins,and fermentable carbohydrates
D)Cariogenic bacteria,gingival inflammation,and fermentable carbohydrates
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Q1) Which sugars are implicated as caries causing agents?
A)Sucrose,glucose,NutraSweet,and fructose
B)Xylitol,sucrose,fructose,and maltose
C)Sucrose,glucose,fructose,and maltose
D)Maltose,glucose,xylitol,and NutraSweet
Q2) Where does the chemical detection of taste occur?
A)Taste buds
B)Palate
C)Taste receptor cells
D)Buccal mucosa
Q3) When someone has this particular condition they experience nausea and vomiting,and sweat excessively after consuming fructose.What is the condition known as?
A)Diabetes
B)Hypoglycemia
C)Hereditary fructose intolerance
D)Food allergies
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Q1) The theory of reasoned action is more effective with which of the following?
A)A collective community
B)An individual
C)A small group setting
D)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a key point in learning?
A)Self-efficacy
B)Relevance
C)Stressors
D)Determination
Q3) Which involves a method of seeing the world and one's place in it?
A)Sense of coherence
B)Sense of self
C)Sensory learning
D)None of the above
Q4) Which is NOT a source of motivation?
A)Religious beliefs
B)External expectations
C)Social relationships
D)Social welfare
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Q1) One can of snuff equals approximately what?
A)Two packs of cigarettes
B)Three packs of cigarettes
C)Four packs of cigarettes
D)Five packs of cigarettes
Q2) Second-hand smoke exposes the non-smoker to more chemicals than the smoker.How much worse are these chemicals?
A)25 fold
B)50 fold
C)100 fold
D)125 fold
Q3) Smokers have greater probing depths,gingival recession,loss of attachment,and bone loss than non-smokers.Cigarette smoking is a potential contributing factor in necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
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Q1) Mouthguards work by moving soft tissue in the oral cavity away from the teeth and into the upper jaw.This prevents laceration and bruising of the lips and cheeks.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) What is the MOST common type of injury sustained during participation in sports?
A)Broken limbs
B)Dental injuries
C)Concussions
D)Sprains
Q3) What is the purpose of the Academy of Sports Dentistry?
A)Esthetic dentistry
B)Prevention of sport injuries
C)Restorative dentistry
D)Preventive dentistry
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Q1) When taking dental histories,it is important to gather information on both parents' and siblings' history of caries.This should be done in addition to evaluating nutritional and oral hygiene habits.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) What does DNA stand for?
A)Deoxygenated neutral acid
B)Deoxyribonucleic acid
C)Differential nucleic acid
D)Differential neutral acid
Q3) Co-aggregated cells are more resistant to phagocytosis and killing by neutrophils in vitro and in vivo.Colonization of P.gingivalis at subgingival sites is secondary in the pathogenic process of periodontal disease and tissue destruction.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Page 24
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Q1) At what age should the child be weaned from the bottle?
A)6 months
B)12 months
C)18 months
D)24 months
Q2) How often do pediatricians recommend that infants have exams during the first year of life?
A)5
B)6
C)7
D)8
Q3) When completing the interview process for a child's first visit what are some areas to inquire about?
A)Social activities,speech,and feeding history
B)Feeding history,medical history,and social activities
C)Growth and development,siblings,and family dental history
D)Growth and development,feeding history,medical history
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Q1) During the adolescence stage,teens begin to think about things that cannot be seen,touched,or heard.Examples of this are: faith,trust,beliefs,values,and spirituality.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) At what stage does motor development become much smoother and more coordinated?
A)Infancy
B)Early childhood
C)Childhood
D)Adolescence
Q3) What does culture help determine?
A)Values,beliefs,sense of self,and expected behavior
B)Values,beliefs,communication,and expected behavior
C)Values,communication,attitude,and expected behavior
D)Values,religion,sense of self,and expected behavior
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Q1) Almost half of U.S.adults aged 35-44 years have gingivitis.Approximately one-half of the U.S.population has periodontitis.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) Periomylosis and floating amalgams are a sign of what condition?
A)Anorexia
B)Bulimia
C)Vitamin deficiencies
D)Anemia
Q3) At what stage of life are patients more aware of the importance of good oral health?
A)Adolescence
B)Young adulthood
C)Female adulthood
D)Male adulthood
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Q1) What portion of the elderly population has oral health problems?
A)1/4
B)1/3
C)1/2
D)1/8
Q2) Oral disease can affect patients in other areas of the body.Which area is MOST commonly affected?
A)Limbs
B)Lungs
C)Kidney
D)Ears
Q3) Osteoporosis may contribute to the progression of periodontal disease.Significant decrease in bone mass of the mandible may lead to fragility and increased resorption,risk of fracture,and failure of osseointegration of dental implants.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
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Q1) Periodontal involvement in the HIV-positive patient advances slowly compared to the general population.This slower advancement is thought to be associated with the immunocompromised state.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) What is the major oral complication associated with epilepsy?
A)Mucositis
B)Xerostomia
C)Gingival overgrowth
D)Gingival recession
Q3) Pallor (paleness)of the oral mucosa occurs when which medical condition is present?
A)Alcoholism
B)Asthma
C)Hyperthyroidism
D)Renal failure
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Q1) Approximately how many births result in a child born with cerebral palsy?
A)1.7 out of every 1,000
B)2.1 out of every 1,000
C)3.1 out of every 1,000
D)4.8 out of every 1,000
Q2) In which population is periodontal disease and caries widespread?
A)Down syndrome
B)Cerebral palsy
C)Autism
D)Mental retardation
Q3) What percentage of the children with cerebral palsy have epilepsy?
A)5%
B)10%
C)20%
D)30%
Q4) Approximately how many births result in a child with autism?
A)1.2 out of every 1,000 births
B)2.6 out of every 1,000 births
C)3.4 out of every 1,000 births
D)4.5 out of every 1,000 births
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