Primary Care Management Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Primary Care Management explores the principles and practices essential to the effective administration of primary healthcare services. This course covers foundational topics such as healthcare delivery models, patient-centered approaches, chronic disease management, interprofessional collaboration, and quality improvement strategies. Students will examine leadership roles, resource allocation, regulatory compliance, and care coordination within primary care settings. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based management, data-driven decision-making, and organizational strategies that enhance patient outcomes and operational efficiency.
Recommended Textbook
Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing 4th Edition by Dunphy
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21 Chapters
549 Verified Questions
549 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 3: Health Promotion
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pandemic affects many communities in a short period of time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
Answer: A
Q3) Endemic is the term used when the presence of an event is constant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Prevalence is the number of new cases of a particular disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 5: Evidence-Based Care
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level VI evidence?
A)Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies
B)Opinion of authorities and expert committees
C)Well-designed case control or cohort studies
D)Single descriptive or qualitative study
Q2) Nursing research should be utilized by:
A)Nurses at the bedside
B)Advanced practice nurses
C)Nurse researchers
D)Nurses at all levels of practice
Q3) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level IV evidence?
A)Single descriptive or qualitative study
B)Opinion of authorities and expert committees
C)Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies
D)Well-designed controlled trials without randomization
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Chapter 6: Neurological Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?
A)Epidural hematoma
B)Subdural hematoma
C)Subarachnoid hematoma
D)Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
Q2) A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer's disease: A)SLUMS
B)MoCA
C)FAST
D)MMSE
Q3) The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
A)No activity at all
B)A blank stare
C)Urine is usually voided involuntarily
D)The attack usually lasts several minutes
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Chapter 7: Skin Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most potent and irritating dose of tretinoin?
A)0.05% liquid formulation
B)0.1% cream
C)1% foam
D)0.02% cream
Q2) Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region.You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
A)Filiform/digitate wart
B)Dysplastic cervical lesion
C)Condyloma acuminata
D)Koilocytosis
Q3) Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the "mask of pregnancy"?
A)It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone during pregnancy.
B)This condition only occurs on the face.
C)Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.
D)It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.
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6
Chapter 8: Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As diabetic retinopathy progresses, the presence of "cotton wool" spots can be detected.Cotton wool spots refer to:
A)Nerve fiber layer infarctions
B)Blood vessel proliferation
C)Venous beading
D)Retinal hemorrhage
Q2) Which of the following antibiotics provides the best coverage in acute or chronic sinusitis when gram-negative organisms are suspected?
A)Penicillin V
B)Amoxicillin
C)Levofloxacin
D)Clindamycin
Q3) Which subtype of cataracts is characterized by significant nearsightedness and a slow indolent course?
A)Nuclear cataracts
B)Cortical cataracts
C)Posterior cataracts
D)Immature cataracts
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7
Chapter 9: Respiratory Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which obstructive lung disease is classified as reversible?
A)Asthma
B)Chronic bronchitis
C)Emphysema
D)COPD
Q2) Your patient is on Therabid for his asthma.You want to maintain his serum levels between:
A)0 to 5 mcg/mL
B)5 to 10 mcg/mL
C)5 to 15 mcg/mL
D)10 to 20 mcg/mL
Q3) Which of the following patients would you expect to have a decreased response to TST?
A)Julie, a 50-year-old postal worker
B)Sandy, a 40-year-old patient who recently survived a fire that left 40% of her total body surface covered in burns
C)Jill, a 16-year-old cheerleader
D)Mark, a 29-year-old tennis player
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8
Chapter 10: Cardiovascular Problems
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the best therapeutic effect after a myocardial infarction (MI), thrombolytics should be administered within the first 3 hours (ideally 30 minutes) of symptom onset.Studies have shown, however, that thrombolytic therapy can be of benefit up to how many hours after the initial presentation of MI symptoms?
A)6 hours
B)8 hours
C)10 hours
D)12 hours
Q2) Mary has hypertension and previously had a stroke.Which hypertensive drug would you order for her?
A)Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
B)Calcium channel blocker
C)Angiotensin II receptor blocker
D)Beta blocker
Q3) Lifestyle modifications to manage hypertension (HTN) include:
A)Maintaining a body mass index of 17
B)Restricting dietary sodium to 2 grams per day
C)Engaging in exercise or physical activity for 90 minutes a day
D)Limiting beer intake to 24 ounces per day
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Page 9
Chapter 11: Abdominal Problems
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 21-year-old student presents with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose, all of which began about 2 weeks ago.She started taking vitamins and over-the-counter cold preparations but feels worse.The smell of food makes her nauseated.Her boyfriend had mononucleosis about a month ago, and she wonders if she might have it also.Examination reveals cervical adenopathy and an enlarged liver and spleen.Which of the following labs would be most helpful in the differential diagnosis at this point?
A)Stool culture
B)Liver enzymes
C)Antihepatitis D virus
D)Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
Q2) Which of the following is most effective in diagnosing appendicitis?
A)History and physical
B)Sedimentation rate
C)Kidney, ureter, and bladder x-ray
D)Complete blood count (CBC) with differentials
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Chapter 12: Renal Problems
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following instructions should be given to the patient with nephrolithiasis?
A)Take ibuprofen, 600 mg every 8 hours.
B)Take Tums, for stomach upset.
C)Drink more black tea.
D)Increase intake of vegetables, like spinach.
Q2) Which of the following are predisposing factors for pyelonephritis?
A)Pregnancy
B)Dehydration
C)Smoking
D)Alkaline urine
Q3) Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a patient in ARF?
A)Pruritis
B)Glycosuria
C)Irritability
D)Hypotension
Q4) Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for CRF.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Mens Health Problems
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 56-year-old man with chronic prostatitis should be treated with trimethoprim 80 mg-sulfamethoxazole 400 mg (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for how long?
A)3 to 7 days
B)14 to 21 days
C)3 to 6 weeks
D)6 to 12 weeks
Q2) Which of the following data is indicative of testicular torsion?
A)Absent cremasteric reflex
B)Pain relieved on testicular elevation
C)Testicle very low in the scrotum
D)Swollen scrotum with "red dot sign"
Q3) A 46-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy and low back pain.He has no history of UTI.Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a normal prostate, and a diagnosis of prostatodynia is made.Which is the appropriate treatment?
A)Terazosin 2 mg PO once a day
B)Ice pack to the scrotal area
C)Saw palmetto 320 mg per day
D)All of the above
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Page 12
Chapter 14: Womens Health Problems
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman taking estradiol is at risk for developing endometrial cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills.Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?
A)Pregnancy test
B)Complete blood cell count
C)Thyroid-stimulating hormone
D)Urine dip for protein
Q3) A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge.Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis.What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably been exposed to?
A)Gonorrhea
B)HPV
C)Chlamydia
D)Trichomonas
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13
Chapter 15: Musculoskeletal Problems
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal estrogen function is important for preventing osteoporosis in both men and women.Estrogen works to prevent osteoporosis in which of the following ways?
A)By decreasing the erosive activity of osteoclasts
B)By promoting osteoclastogenesis
C)By inhibiting osteoclast apoptosis
D)All of the above
Q2) What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
A)1,200 mg/day
B)1,000 mg/day
C)1,300 mg/day
D)1,500 mg/day
Q3) Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
A)Decreased C-reactive protein
B)Hyperalbuminemia
C)Morning stiffness
D)Weight gain
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Chapter 16: Endocrinemetabolic Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine.Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?
A)Ketoacidosis
B)Cirrhosis
C)Hypoglycemic episodes
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is essential for diagnosing thyroid cancer?
A)Fine needle aspiration
B)Thyroid ultrasound
C)CT scan
D)Magnetic resonance imaging
Q3) Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
A)A<sub>1</sub>C 7.0 on one occasion
B)Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions
C)Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions
D)Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion
Page 15
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Chapter 17: Hematologic and Immune Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which test is diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis?
A)Rheumatoid factor
B)ESR
C)CRP
D)Anti-CCP titers
Q2) Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?
A)Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B)White blood cell count
C)Polymorphonuclear cells
D)C-reactive protein (CRP)
Q3) In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
A)Osteoarthritis
B)Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
C)Rheumatoid arthritis
D)Sj gren's syndrome
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Chapter 18: Psychosocial Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?
A)Depression
B)Anxiety
C)Substance-related addictions
D)Gambling
Q2) It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors.Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?
A)Depression
B)Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C)Substance abuse
D)PTSD
Q3) Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa?
A)Hypercholesterolemia
B)Hypermagnesmia
C)Leukocytosis
D)Decreased TRH
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Chapter 19: Emergency Problems
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may leak through the cribriform plate region of the skull following a head injury and cause which of the following?
A)Ear CSF otorrhea
B)Leakage of CSF from the eye
C)Nasal CSF rhinorrhea
D)Leakage of CSF from the mouth
Q2) A patient who sustains blunt chest trauma and/or penetrating chest trauma must have which of the following imaging examinations?
A)Upright chest x-ray film
B)Supine chest x-ray
C)Lateral chest x-ray
D)MRI
Q3) A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?
A)A sprain
B)A strain
C)A partial fracture
D)A fracture
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18
Chapter 20: Palliative Care
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the World Health Organization's analgesic ladder, which drug combination would be most appropriate in an opiate-na ve patient who presents with moderate pain?
A)Ibuprofen/imipramine
B)Naproxen/morphine
C)Aspirin/fentanyl
D)Indomethacin/hydrocodone
Q2) Which of the following is the best description of dyspnea?
A)An oxygen saturation of less than 90%
B)Respiratory rate greater than 24
C)A psychological state resulting in the feeling of air hunger
D)A subjective feeling of breathlessness
Q3) Some anticonvulsant drugs can be used as an adjuvant treatment for mild pain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Oxygen has shown no benefit in alleviating dyspnea in patients without hypoxemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Ethical and Legal Issues of a Caring-Based Practice
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Constructing a decision tree is helpful in analyzing ethical dilemmas, because a decision tree:
A)Shows the best solution
B)Explains the ethical principles
C)Delineates the legal parameters
D)Allows all the options to be considered
Q2) Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
A)Autonomy
B)Beneficence
C)Justice
D)Veracity
Q3) Deontology is:
A)The greatest amount of happiness or the least amount of harm for the greatest number
B)The consideration of consequences and the calculation of benefits
C)The belief that the ends justify the means
D)The principle of universalizability
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Page 20
Chapter 22: Business of Advanced Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beginning in 2014, all medical practices will be required by the CMS to adopt a certified electronic medical record software system for documenting and billing for medical services.What is a primary reason for this implementation mandate?
A)Allows CMS to audit all medical practices' performance
B)Standardizes the billing rules for all clinicians
C)Reduces the duplication of services noted in the current system
D)Reduces costs related to multiple billing systems
Q2) Maintaining optimum cash flow is a basic fundamental concept in all businesses.Cash flow is impacted at the initial request for appointment and is affected by practices that include:
A)Billing within 15 days of services
B)Beneficiary verification of patient
C)Timely processing of denials
D)Identifying payment below contract rate
Q3) Identify one of the primary reasons for an APRN to develop a business plan?
A)To monitor monthly actual expense to budgeted expense
B)To reduce the likelihood of litigation action
C)To identify the marketing needed to grow the APRN practice
D)To assure accreditation standards are met
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Page 21
Chapter 23: The 15-Minute Hour
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Sample Questions
Q1) Valliant (1979) discusses the "ubiquity of stress." Ubiquity of stress maintains that:
A)In a current and rapidly changing society, stress can be viewed as a positive.
B)Eustress is counterproductive.
C)The overwhelmed can functionally regress.
D)Dream therapy has been found to be an effective treatment of overwhelming stress.
Q2) Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates the relationship between physical health and distress?
A)A patient's high calorie diet contributes to his diagnosis of type 2 diabetes.
B)A patient with an elevated HbA<sub>1</sub>C reports that he was recently evicted from his home.
C)A patient with depression reports an increase in suicidal thoughts.
D)A patient reports feeling "numb" after learning her malignant tumor is inoperable.
Q3) Commonalities among psychotherapeutic techniques include the following:
A)Dream therapy, listening, and reflection
B)Psychodrama, group psychotherapy, and 12-step programs
C)Self-help groups
D)Obtaining external perspective and participation in a helping relationship
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Chapter 24: Putting Caring Into Practice: Caring for Self
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Sample Questions
Q1) The World Health Organization defines self-care as:
A)An important global activity for all health-care providers
B)A set of deliberate actions that all individuals, families, and communities should engage in to maintain good health
C)Essential to efficacious advanced practice nursing (APRN) practice
D)An awareness by the APRN of their self-care behaviors as related to diet, activity, and mental attitude
Q2) The term resilience implies:
A)Ability to look to a higher power to get you through a crisis
B)Response to difficult and adverse circumstances through positively adjusting to stressors
C)That the APRN can weather any emergency
D)Learning to set appropriate boundaries
Q3) The following statement is true:
A)APRNs are often sensitive to patients' deficiencies but not their own.
B)APRNs always respond appropriately to patients, families, and team members.
C)APRNs are well-equipped from their APRN educational programs to care for self.
D)Relicensure in some states mandates continuing education units in self-care.
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Page 23