Primary Care for Physical Therapists Solved
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Primary Care for Physical Therapists explores the expanding role of physical therapists in the primary care setting. This course emphasizes the integration of physical therapy into patient-centered health care teams, focusing on screening, examination, and management of common conditions seen in primary care. Students will develop advanced clinical decision-making skills, learn to recognize red flags for referral, and address diagnostic uncertainty. The course highlights collaboration with other healthcare professionals, the importance of direct access, and management of comorbidities in diverse populations across the lifespan. Ethical considerations, healthcare policy, and strategies for patient education and health promotion are also covered to prepare students for contemporary practice in primary care environments.
Recommended Textbook
Differential Diagnosis for Physical Therapists 5th Edition by Catherine C. Goodman
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18 Chapters
276 Verified Questions
276 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Screening for Referral in Physical Therapy
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of physical therapy describes a philosophy of whole-person care?
A) Direct access
B) Autonomous practice
C) Secondary care physical therapy
D) Primary care physical therapy
Answer: D
Q2) Risk factor assessment and risk reduction fall under which type of disease prevention?
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Health promotion and wellness
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is defined as a comparison of symptoms of similar diseases and laboratory/procedure results?
A) Physical therapy and differential diagnosis
B) Evaluation
C) Medical differential diagnosis
D) Examination
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Interviewing as a Screening Tool
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What communication technique should a physical therapist use when beginning a client interview?
A) Open-ended questions
B) Closed-ended questions
C) Funnel sequence or technique
D) Paraphrasing
Answer: A
Q2) What vital sign does Dr. James Cyriax recommend all therapists take in any client with back pain of unknown origin?
A) Heart rate
B) Temperature
C) Blood pressure
D) Respiration rate
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is a side effect of local injection of corticosteroids?
A) Liver damage
B) Kidney damage
C) Impaired cardiovascular function
D) Accelerated joint destruction
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Pain Types and Viscerogenic Pain Patterns
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Visceral diseases of the abdomen and pelvis are likely to refer pain where?
A) To the shoulders
B) To the back
C) To the arms
D) To the legs
Answer: B
Q2) Sensory fibers to the appendix enter at what spinal cord level?
A) T8
B) T9
C) T10
D) T11
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is a false statement regarding neuropathic pain?
A) It is usually described as sharp or shooting pain.
B) Acute nerve root irritation tends to be severe.
C) It is not alleviated by narcotics.
D) There is usually muscle spasm associated with the pain.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Physical Assessment as a Screening Tool
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Referral for medical evaluation is advised when resting oxygen saturation falls below
A) 97%
B) 95%
C) 92%
D) 90%
Q2) During chart review a therapist notes that a patient had a 4+ reflex response at the patella tendon during the last examination. What information does this convey to the therapist?
A) No response or absent response
B) Decreased or slight muscle contraction
C) Normal visible muscle twitch
D) Hyperactive with possible spinal cord disorder
Q3) The therapist begins an evaluation of a patient with Kaposi's sarcoma. What underlying disease does this patient most likely have?
A) Herpes simplex
B) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Diabetes
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6
Chapter 5: Screening for Hematologic Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following individuals is likely to have the most erythrocytes?
A) A sedentary woman
B) A sedentary man
C) An athletic woman
D) An athletic man
Q2) Which of the following is a sign or symptom of primary polycythemia?
A) Weight gain
B) Hypotension
C) Gout
D) Increased urine production
Q3) When is a patient most susceptible to infections after receiving chemotherapy or radiation therapy?
A) 1-3 days
B) 3-7 days
C) 7-14 days
D) 14-21 days
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Chapter 6: Screening for Cardiovascular Disease
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cardiac arrhythmia?
A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Sinus bradycardia
D) Sinus tachycardia
Q2) Almost all symptoms of mitral valve prolapse are due to imbalance in what body system?
A) Renal system
B) Muscular system
C) Gastrointestinal system
D) Autonomic nervous system
Q3) What is the most common cardiac lesion associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A) Endocarditis
B) Myocarditis
C) Pericarditis
D) Vasculocarditis
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Chapter 7: Screening for Pulmonary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is most often the first sign or symptom of lung cancer?
A) Shortness of breath
B) Hemoptysis
C) Cough
D) Shoulder pain
Q2) Chronic bronchitis is characterized by
A) Mucous hypersecretion and hypertrophy of mucus-producing cells in the bronchi
B) Mucous hypersecretion and atrophy of mucus-producing cells in the bronchi
C) Mucous hyposecretion and hypertrophy of mucus-producing cells in the bronchi
D) Mucous hyposecretion and atrophy of mucus-producing cells in the bronchi
Q3) What type of emphysema usually occurs in the upper lung regions?
A) Centrilobular emphysema
B) Panlobular emphysema
C) Paraseptal emphysema
D) Panacinar emphysema
Q4) What is the most common cause of Cheyne-Stokes respiration (CSR)?
A) Basilar artery infarct
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Damage to the medulla
D) Paralysis of the chest wall muscles and thorax
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Chapter 8: Screening for Gastrointestinal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals with inflammatory visceral pain are most often found in which of the following positions?
A) Supine
B) Prone
C) Fetal
D) Right side lying
Q2) Visceral pain fibers are only sensitive to which of the following?
A) Cutting
B) Tearing
C) Crushing
D) Stretching
Q3) Peptic ulcers caused by Helicobacter pylori are primarily located in the lining of which portion of the digestive tract?
A) Ileum
B) Duodenum
C) Jejunum
D) Rectum
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Chapter 9: Screening for Hepatic and Biliary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be carefully monitored in an individual with primary biliary cirrhosis?
A) Calcium and vitamin A
B) Sodium and vitamin A
C) Sodium and vitamin D
D) Calcium and vitamin D
Q2) Which of the following types of hepatitis does not have a carrier state?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
Q3) Which of the following is not a risk factor for development of gallstones?
A) Female gender
B) Small frame
C) Diet high in cholesterol and low in fiber
D) Diabetes
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Chapter 10: Screening for Urogenital Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered an upper urinary tract infection?
A) Bladder infection
B) Cystitis
C) Urethritis
D) Ureteral infections
Q2) The kidneys should be assessed during an objective evaluation by percussion over what anatomic landmark?
A) ASIS
B) PSIS
C) Costovertebral angle
D) Umbilicus
Q3) The physician orders a urinary analysis for a patient with possible kidney dysfunction. What specifically is the physician looking for in the urine to determine possible kidney damage?
A) Albumin
B) Creatinine
C) Nitrogen
D) Potassium
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Chapter 11: Screening for Endocrine and Metabolic Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adult with acromegaly will have enlargement of which of the following structures?
A) Femur
B) Humerus
C) Ribs
D) Hands
Q2) Which of the following is not a normal manifestation of hypothyroidism?
A) Carpal tunnel syndrome
B) Proximal muscle weakness
C) Distal muscle weakness
D) Normal muscle bulk
Q3) Parathyroid hormone regulates which of the following?
A) Sodium and iron
B) Potassium and iron
C) Calcium and phosphorus
D) Sodium and phosphorus
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13
Chapter 12: Screening for Immunologic Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of organ-specific autoimmune disease?
A) Pernicious anemia
B) Fibromyalgia
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Scleroderma
Q2) What has caused a recent resurgence of diagnosed cases of tuberculosis (TB)?
A) HIV/AIDS
B) Poor hand-washing techniques by healthcare workers
C) Diminished socioeconomic status in third-world countries
D) Lack of proper medications
Q3) Which of the following is correct advice to give a client with fibromyalgia?
A) Begin a jogging program.
B) Ice affected joints.
C) Get 8-10 hours of sleep at night.
D) Stretch painful muscles eight to 10 times per day.
Q4) What joints are primarily affected with ankylosing spondylitis?
A) Spine
B) Elbows
C) Ankles
D) Wrists
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Chapter 13: Screening for Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common primary tumor to metastasize to the brain?
A) Colorectal cancer
B) Pancreatic cancer
C) Breast cancer
D) Lung cancer
Q2) What is the primary metastatic pathway for osteogenic sarcoma?
A) Lymphatics
B) Blood
C) Along nerves
D) Through the muscles
Q3) What is the single most important risk factor for cancer?
A) Age over 50 years
B) Ethnicity
C) Family history
D) Environment and lifestyle
Q4) Tanning bed lamps emit mostly what type of ultraviolet radiation?
A) UV-A
B) UV-B
C) UV-C
D) UV-D
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Chapter 14: Screening the Head, Neck, and Back
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures in the cranium does not have pain receptors?
A) Skull
B) Sinuses
C) Brain
D) Membrane surrounding the brain
Q2) Where are the complaints of pain in a client with intermittent claudication?
A) Contralateral calf/ankle
B) Ipsilateral calf/ankle
C) Contralateral hip/thigh
D) Ipsilateral hip/thigh
Q3) The therapist begins an examination of a patient with a history of lumbar complaints. During the examination, the physical therapist is unable to reproduce the pain with any position or provocation test. What is the correct course of action by the physical therapist?
A) Begin gentle range of motion all planes.
B) Use mechanical traction to decrease complaints of pain.
C) Use moist heat and ultrasound to decrease complaints of pain.
D) Return to the history portion of the examination, and screen for medical disease.
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Chapter 15: Screening the Sacrum, Sacroiliac, and Pelvis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Occlusion of what artery is likely to result in pelvic pain?
A) Femoral
B) Popliteal
C) Abdominal aorta
D) Iliac
Q2) What is the most common primary cause of pelvic pain?
A) Gynecologic
B) Infectious
C) Cancer
D) Musculoskeletal
Q3) What is the most common symptom of Paget's disease?
A) Redness and warmth over the involved areas
B) Multiple fractures
C) Blood in the urine
D) Bone pain
Q4) What type of hernia is likely to cause groin pain?
A) Hiatal hernia
B) Femoral hernia
C) Inguinal hernia
D) Umbilical hernia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common site for avascular osteonecrosis?
A) Humeral head
B) Femoral head
C) Tibial plateau
D) Talus
Q2) What disease arises in the lymph glands and is most commonly found on the single side of a neck or groin?
A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) Scleroderma
C) Paget's disease
D) Hodgkin's disease
Q3) What gait patterns are common with intraarticular hip pain?
A) Lean away from the affected hip and shorten the swing phase of the affected hip
B) Lean toward the affected hip and shorten the swing phase of the affected hip
C) Lean away from the affected hip and lengthen the swing phase of the affected hip
D) Lean toward the affected hip and lengthen the swing phase of the affected hip
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Chapter 17: Screening the Chest, Breasts, and Ribs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The risk of breast cancer in a woman is linked to her lifelong exposure to what hormone?
A) Parathyroid hormone
B) Estrogen
C) Testosterone
D) Cortisol
Q2) Referred pain from a trigger point in what muscle can cause a sensation of heartburn in the anterior chest wall?
A) Intercostals
B) Rectus abdominis
C) Internal oblique
D) External oblique
Q3) What type of chest pain is commonly encountered in physical therapy practice?
A) Referred
B) Visceral
C) Deep somatic/parietal
D) Cutaneous
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19
Chapter 18: Screening the Shoulder and Upper Extremity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to the spleen is likely to refer pain to what anatomic location?
A) Left shoulder
B) Right shoulder
C) Left elbow
D) Right elbow
Q2) In which stage of complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) does muscle atrophy begin?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q3) Which of the following positions will make pericardial pain better?
A) Deep breathing
B) Swallowing
C) Leaning forward
D) Belching
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