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Preventive Dentistry is a foundational course that explores the methods and strategies used to avert the onset and progression of oral diseases. It emphasizes the principles of prevention, including dental health education, the use of fluorides, dietary counseling, oral hygiene techniques, and sealants. Students learn to assess individual and community risk factors, develop preventive care plans, and apply evidence-based practices to reduce the incidence of dental caries, periodontal diseases, and other oral conditions. The course also covers the roles of dental professionals in promoting oral health and the integration of preventive services into clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Materials 3rd Edition by W. Stephan Eakle DDS FADM
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643 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Until 1970,which of the following groups of dental auxiliaries were allowed to perform intraoral functions in all states?
1)Dental hygienists
2)Registered dental assistants
3)Certified dental assistants
4)On-the-job trained dental assistants
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 1,2,3
C) 1,2
D) 1
Answer: D
Q2) In history,the earliest recorded mention of restorative dentistry occurs when?
A) 2500 BC
B) 600 BC
C) 1200 AD
D) 1700 AD
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following dental restorative materials is particularly susceptible to corrosion?
A) Acrylic
B) Dental porcelain
C) Dental amalgam
D) Composite resin
Answer: C
Q2) Which material listed would show the lowest level of solubility?
A) Amalgam
B) Composite resin
C) Porcelain
D) Cement
Answer: C
Q3) The normal resting pH of saliva ranges from 6.2 to _____,which is neutral.
A) 1
B) 6.6
C) 7
D) 14
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metals that can withstand dimensional change without breaking are:
A) tough.
B) ductile.
C) resilient.
D) malleable.
Answer: B
Q2) Stiffness
A)Resistance to deformation
B)The greatest stress a structure can withstand without permanent deformation
C)The resistance of a solid to penetration
D)The maximum amount of stress a material can withstand without breaking
E)The ability of a material to resist fracture
Answer: A
Q3) Of the following,which is not an application of a material's classification?
A) Longevity
B) Utilization
C) Fabrication
D) All of these are correct.
Answer: D
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Q1) Exposure to chemicals over a prolonged period of time is _____ exposure.
A) chronic
B) acute
C) latent
Q2) What is the purpose of the Safety Data Sheets (SDSs)?
A) Provide information regarding the manufacturer
B) Provide instructions for product use
C) Provide instructions in case of spill
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is a symptom of acute chemical toxicity?
A) Cancer
B) Neurologic defects
C) Nausea
D) Infertility
Q4) Which of the following are considered to be personal protective equipment (PPE)?
A) Protective shields on model trimmers and on collection bins for lathes
B) Dust or surgical masks,eyewear,gowns,and hair coverings or tiebacks when appropriate
C) Surface and immersion disinfectants
D) Plastic wraps and covers
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Q1) For how many seconds should dentin be etched?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 40
D) 60
Q2) Total-etch system
A)An attribute that allows a material to tolerate the presence of moisture
B)A bonding system that does not use a separate etching procedure with phosphoric acid
C)A resin/dentin layer formed by the intermixing of the dentin bonding agent with collagen fibrils exposed by acid etching
D)An attribute that does not allow a material to tolerate or perform well in the presence of moisture
E)A bonding system that includes etching of both enamel and dentin as a separate step from the application of bonding agents
Q3) The primer portion of the dental bonding agent is _____ to water.
A) hydrophilic
B) hydrophobic
C) hydroelectric
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Q1) Which of the following types of curing lights is currently the most popular?
A) Plasma arc (PAC)
B) Laser (initially argon laser)
C) Light-emitting diode (LED)
D) Halogen (quartz-tungsten-halogen,or QTH)
Q2) Nanohybrids have a particle size of _____ microns (mm).
A) 0.1 to 0.4
B) 310 to 100
C) 0.03 to 0.5
D) 0.005 to 0.020
Q3) Which of the following composite resin materials would not be used in non-stress-bearing areas?
A) Macrofilled
B) Microfilled
C) Microhybrid
Q4) The fillers used in composite resins are:
A) bis-GMAs.
B) inorganic silica particles.
C) urethane dimethacrylates (UDMAs).
D) low-molecular-weight monomers called TEGDMAs.
Page 8
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Q1) What will occur if carious teeth are treated with sealants?
A) An acceleration of decay
B) Complete reversal and elimination of all traces of decay
C) An 11% reversal from a caries-active to a caries-inactive state
D) An 89% reversal from a caries-active to a caries-inactive state
Q2) What should be done if a child has consumed an excessive amount of fluoride?
Q3) In-office fluoride application directly to the teeth
A)Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF)
B)Neutral sodium fluoride (NaF)
C)1.1% Neutral sodium fluoride 5000 ppm restorations made of porcelain,composite fluoride
D)0.4% Stannous fluoride 900 ppm fluoride
E)Fluoride varnish 5.0% sodium fluoride than the other choice of self-applied topical gel
Q4) Which of the following would be a likely cause of sealant failure?
A) Plaque deep in the grooves
B) Rubber dam application
C) Moisture on the tooth
D) Demineralization
Q5) What is the oxygen-inhibited layer on cured dental sealant?
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Q1) These stains form on the surface of the teeth and are caused by food,drink,smoking,and a variety of other sources.
A)Extrinsic stains
B)Intrinsic stains
C)Hydrogen peroxide
D)Carbamide peroxide
E)Hydrochloric acid
Q2) This is mixed with flour pumice and applied to surface discolorations on the tooth.
A)Extrinsic stains
B)Intrinsic stains
C)Hydrogen peroxide
D)Carbamide peroxide
E)Hydrochloric acid
Q3) Which stains are most effectively removed by bleaching of vital teeth?
A) Black stains
B) Green stains
C) Blue-gray stains
D) Yellow-brown stains
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Q1) What is the temperature range for a medium fusing porcelain?
A) 1600° F to 1950° F
B) 2000° F to 2300° F
C) 2360° F to 2500° F
D) 2550° F to 2700° F
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic used for taking shades?
A) Translucency
B) Chroma
C) Value
D) Hue
Q3) Which of the following is the first layer of porcelain applied to the metal during fabrication of porcelain-metal restorations?
A) Body porcelain
B) Incisal porcelain
C) Opaque porcelain
D) Translucent porcelain
Q4) Describe the different techniques for fabrication of ceramic restorations.
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Q1) Compared to composites or glass ionomers,amalgams are higher in compression strength but weaker in:
A) stress and shear.
B) stress and strain.
C) tension and shear.
D) flexion and tension.
Q2) Phase that consists of mercury reacting with tin
A)Gamma phase ( )
B)Gamma-1 phase ( 1)
C)Gamma-2 phase ( 2)
Q3) Spherical alloys require _____ mercury to wet the particles and generally set _____ than lathe-cut particles.
A) more;more quickly
B) more;more slowly
C) less;more quickly
D) less;more slowly
Q4) Phase that consists of mercury reacting with the silver
A)Gamma phase ( )
B)Gamma-1 phase ( 1)
C)Gamma-2 phase ( 2)

Page 12
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Q1) During conventional root canal therapy,the root canal space is sealed with _____ so that bacteria cannot grow in the space.
A) gutta percha
B) chlorobutanol
C) zinc phosphate
D) silver amalgam
Q2) Which of the following is true concerning nickel allergy?
A) Men have a higher rate of allergy to nickel than do women,by a ratio of 10 to 1.
B) The overall allergy rate to nickel for the general population is about 1% to 3%.
C) It is more common to see nickel allergy in removable partial dentures than in the margins of base-metal crowns.
D) Some responses to nickel cause a skin reaction rather than a response in the mouth,even though the oral cavity is the source of the nickel.
Q3) Which of the following would not be considered an extracoronal restoration?
A) Inlay
B) Onlay
C) Crown
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Q1) What is an acrylic guide essential to proper implant placement called?
A) Splint
B) Splice
C) Stent
D) Screw
Q2) Which of the following should occur during the hygiene visit for routine implant assessment and maintenance?
A) Routine probing is recommended.
B) The patient should return to the dental office at 12-month intervals.
C) The implant prosthesis should be removed for cleaning and maintenance.
D) The dentist may request periodic radiographs to check the bone level surrounding the implants.
Q3) Why are endosseous implants more successful in the mandible than in the maxilla?
A) Blood flow is better in the mandible.
B) Gravity drags maxillary implants from their sockets.
C) The bone in the mandible is generally much denser than in the maxilla.
D) There is a greater lateral component of force on maxillary teeth than on mandibular teeth.
Q4) List and describe the different types of surgical procedures for placement of implants.
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Q1) Define finishing,polishing,and cleansing.
Q2) When using hand instruments for margination,use very sharp instruments and begin _____ to the margin of the restoration,using a shaving motion in _____ overlapping strokes.
A) coronal;horizontal
B) coronal;vertical
C) apical;diagonal
D) apical;vertical
Q3) Which of the following is not a benefit of polishing a restoration?
A) Smooth cavosurface margins
B) Decreased biofilm attachment
C) Decreased tarnish and corrosion
D) Increased attrition of tooth structure
Q4) Polishing the contact area between restored teeth is:
A) desirable for esthetic reasons.
B) undesirable because it may leave an open contact.
C) undesirable because it increases treatment time.
D) desirable for esthetic and functional reasons.
Q5) Describe the rationale for selective polishing.
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Q1) When would a cement be mixed to a secondary consistency?
A) Cement a veneer
B) Cement a permanent crown
C) Cement an orthodontic band
D) Cement an intermediate restoration
Q2) The addition of powder to dental cement to create a secondary consistency increases the ______ of the cement.
1)viscosity
2)solubility
3)strength
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2
C) 1,3
D) 2
Q3) What is the advantage of using glass ionomer cement?
A) Fluoride ion
B) Low strength
C) Low solubility
D) Sedative effect
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Q1) Mixed alginate should be loaded into the impression tray in _____ increments as _____ as possible.
A) large;quickly
B) large;slowly
C) small;quickly
D) small;slowly
Q2) For a maxillary alginate impression,the operator stands just _____ the patient at the _____ o'clock position and retracts the corner of the mouth with the side of the tray while retracting the other corner of the mouth with the index finger of the other hand.
A) in front of;5
B) in front of;7
C) behind;1
D) behind;11
Q3) List and describe the different types of impression materials suitable for crown and bridge procedures.
Q4) When mixing alginate,as the water temperature increases,the working time: A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) stays the same.
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Q1) For regular-set gypsum products,the initial set occurs within _____ minutes from the beginning of the mix.
A) 1 to 2
B) 3 to 5
C) 7 to 9
D) 12 to 14
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a pattern wax?
A) Inlay wax
B) Sticky wax
C) Boxing wax
D) Bite registration wax
Q3) What could occur if excess residue remains in the investment mold after the wax pattern is melted out?
A) This will create a harder and denser product.
B) The melting temperature of the wax will increase.
C) The melting temperature of the wax will decrease.
D) This may result in inaccuracies in the object being produced.
Q4) List and describe the use of the different types of gypsum products used in dentistry.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the result of the loss of monomer or inadequate pressure during processing?
A) A brittle material
B) Shrinkage of the material
C) Porosities in the material
D) Discoloration of the material
Q2) Which of the following is true of the chairside reline?
A) It utilizes an indirect technique in which an impression of the tissues is made inside the existing denture and a cast is made from this impression.
B) The reline material is applied to the primed denture base,and the denture is reseated in the patient's mouth for border molding.
C) An indexing instrument is used to establish the relationship between the cast and the denture.
D) The lining material is heat- and pressure-processed in the denture base.
Q3) What are record bases used for?
A) To obtain secondary impressions for creation of secondary or master casts
B) To establish the proper dimension between upper and lower arches
C) To obtain final crown and bridge impressions
D) To fabricate porcelain veneers
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Q1) Which of the following are advantages of composite provisional materials in contrast to acrylic provisional materials?
1)High shrinkage during curing
2)High heat release during curing
3)More wear
4)Biocompatibility
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 3,4
D) 4
Q2) If the surfaces of a provisional restoration are _____,the process of chewing will excessively force food directly into the gingiva.An _____ restoration may trap plaque by not allowing for any self-cleansing or gingival stimulation from the chewing process.
A) overcontoured;overcontoured
B) overcontoured;undercontoured
C) undercontoured;overcontoured
D) undercontoured;undercontoured
Q3) List and describe the four criteria for provisional coverage.
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Q1) How much potentially traumatic energy can a custom-fit mouth guard absorb?
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
Q2) A sleep disorder caused when the muscles that support the soft palate,uvula,and tongue relax and the airway narrows or closes
A)Mouth guard
B)Obstructive sleep apnea
C)Space maintainer
D)Orthodontic tooth aligners
Q3) In what situation would the dentist prescribe a night guard for a patient?
A) If the patient has sleep apnea
B) If there are signs of grinding
C) If there is an unexplained tooth fracture,wear,or chips
D) Only b and c are correct.
E) All are correct.
Q4) What instructions would be given to a patient who receives a soft sports or bruxism guard?
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