Preventive Dentistry
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Preventive Dentistry focuses on the principles and practices aimed at preventing the onset and progression of oral diseases. This course covers the etiology and epidemiology of dental caries, periodontal diseases, and other oral health issues, alongside strategies for promoting oral hygiene, fluoride usage, pit and fissure sealants, dietary counseling, and patient education. Emphasis is placed on risk assessment, community-based prevention programs, and the role of behavioral sciences in instilling positive oral health habits. Students will gain the knowledge and skills necessary to implement preventive measures at both individual and community levels, contributing to overall oral and general health.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 11th Edition by Doni L. Bird
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Chapter 1: History of Dentistry
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Q1) Which of the following is credited with beginning the science of forensic dentistry?
A)Paul Revere
B)Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen
C)G.V. Black
D)Pierre Fauchard
Answer: A
Q2) Horace H.Hayden and Chapin A.Harris contributed to the advancement of dentistry by:
A)being the first African American dental students.
B)discovering x-rays.
C)establishing the first dental school.
D)setting the standard for dental assisting textbooks.
Answer: C
Q3) Which dentist is credited with the discovery of inhalation anesthesia?
A)Horace Hayden
B)Frederick McKay
C)Horace Wells
D)G.V. Black
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Professional Dental Assistant
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Q1) Maintaining a positive attitude is probably the single most important factor in helping to relieve the stress in a dental office.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following is not true of certification by the Dental Assisting National Board (DANB)?
A)It is required in all states to perform expanded functions.
B)It is achieved by passing the DANB examination.
C)It verifies that you have obtained a certain level of knowledge.
D)It is a voluntary credential.
Answer: A
Q3) The essential aspects of professional appearance include:
A)appropriate perfume or cologne.
B)good health, good grooming, and appropriate dress.
C)using mouthwash if you smoke cigarettes.
D)scrubs, white shoes, and safety glasses.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: The Dental Healthcare Team
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Q1) Which member of the dental healthcare team is primarily responsible for removing deposits on teeth,exposing radiographs,placing topical fluoride and sealants,and providing patients with home care instructions?
A)The dentist
B)The dental hygienist
C)The dental assistant
D)The business assistant
Answer: B
Q2) Pediatric dentistry treats children from birth up to:
A)elementary school age.
B)when they become teenagers.
C)adolescence.
D)when they are able to bear children.
Answer: C
Q3) Dental public health dentists are involved with:
A)treating diseases and injuries of the tooth pulp.
B)dental screening within a community.
C)using sophisticated imaging techniques to locate tumors.
D)performing biopsies.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Dental Ethics
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Q1) Ethics deals with:
A)moral conduct.
B)mostly absolutes of right and wrong with few gray areas.
C)legal issues.
D)issues of little importance to dental healthcare, because ethical principles are well defined by the courts.
Q2) An ethical dilemma occurs when:
A)a patient can be hurt by the decision.
B)two ethical principles are in conflict.
C)a patient files a lawsuit.
D)an employee performs an illegal act.
Q3) Which of the following is true concerning continuing education (CE)for dental assistants?
A)CE is a legal requirement in every state.
B)It is the ethical obligation of dental assistants to update their knowledge and skills.
C)CE requirements are established by the federal government.
D)CE is not important.
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Chapter 5: Dentistry and the Law
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Q1) Informed consent forms :
A)are an alternative to face-to-face discussion between the dentist and the patient.
B)work to reduce the amount of time required to answer all of the patient's questions and concerns.
C)must be chosen from commercial sources; development of a personal form is prohibited.
D)greatly increase the dentist's chance of defense against allegations from a patient that he or she was not fully informed about a procedure.
Q2) Removal of the wrong tooth is an example of a tort of omission because the correct tooth was not removed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) State dental practice act regulations are interpreted by the:
A)individual dentist, hygienist, or assistant.
B)state board of dentistry.
C)dental association of each state.
D)dental school in each state.
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Chapter 6: General Anatomy
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Q1) Organs are formed when several types of _________ group together to perform a single function.
A)cells
B)tissue
C)body systems
D)body cavities
Q2) The axial division of the body consists of the:
A)arms and legs.
B)head, neck, and trunk.
C)heart, lungs, esophagus, and trachea.
D)stomach.
Q3) The brain is located in which of the following cavities?
A)Ventral
B)Cranial
C)Parietal
D)Thoracic
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Chapter 7: General Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following types of cells is associated with bone formation?
A)Osteoclasts
B)Osteocytes
C)Osteoblasts
D)Fibroblasts
Q2) Cervical lymph nodes are located in the _____.
A)lower abdomen
B)neck
C)under the arms
D)nose and throat
Q3) Periosteum:
A)does not contain nerves and blood vessels.
B)is found adjacent to spongy, trabecular, cancellous bone.
C)contains an inner layer of dense fibrous connective tissue, containing osteoclasts associated with bone formation.
D)is the first (most superficial) layer of bone.
Q4) The attachment of the muscle that is more movable is the muscle:
A)origin.
B)insertion.
C)contraction.
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Chapter 8: Oral Embryology and Histology
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Q1) The development of a supernumerary (extra)tooth is considered to be due to which of the following causes?
A)Teratogen
B)Hereditary
C)Displacement
D)Toxin
Q2) Pulp is made up of blood vessels and nerves that enter the pulp chamber through the:
A)coronal pulp.
B)apical foramen.
C)pulp horns.
D)root pulp.
Q3) Histology is the study of the _______ of the body.
A)microscopic structure and function
B)structure
C)prenatal development
D)function
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Head and Neck Anatomy
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Q1) Which of the following veins courses from the pterygoid plexus to the facial vein?
A)Internal jugular vein
B)External jugular vein
C)Common facial vein
D)Deep facial vein
Q2) Patients with TMD may have _______ of the muscles of mastication that can become part of a cycle that results in tissue damage,increased pain,and muscle tenderness.
A)hyperplasia
B)spasms
C)cysts
D)atrophy
Q3) If a patient has permanent paralysis of the tongue and lip after an extraction of a mandibular third molar,which cranial nerve was damaged?
A)IV-Trochlear
B)V-Trigeminal
C)VI-Abducens
D)VII-Facial
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11
Chapter 10: Landmarks of the Face and Oral Cavity
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Q1) Which of the following types of gingiva is stippled,dense tissue that is firmly bound to the tissue below?
A)Attached gingiva
B)Gingival groove
C)Marginal gingiva
D)Unattached gingiva
Q2) Unattached gingiva consists of the tissues from the base of the gingival sulcus to the:
A)crest of alveolar bone.
B)top of the gingival margin.
C)mucogingival junction.
D)interdental gingiva.
Q3) The ________ is the space on the tongue side within the upper and lower dental arches.
A)vestibule
B)philtrum
C)labia
D)oral cavity proper
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Chapter 11: Overview of the Dentitions
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Q1) Permanent _____ are nonsuccedaneous teeth.
A)incisors
B)cuspids
C)premolars
D)molars
Q2) The initiation of the mixed dentition period is marked by which of the following events?
A)Eruption of the adult mandibular first molar
B)Eruption of the adult mandibular central incisor
C)Loss of the primary mandibular central incisor
D)Loss of the primary first molar
Q3) The _____ surface is the chewing surface on anterior teeth.
A)incisal
B)occlusal
C)masticatory
D)lingual
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Chapter 12: Tooth Morphology
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Q1) A common anomaly of the maxillary lateral incisors that is characterized by unusually large open contacts is called:
A)pegged laterals.
B)diastemas.
C)fused laterals.
D)dens in dente.
Q2) What is the canine eminence?
A)A cusp
B)A canus
C)An imbrication line
D)A bony ridge
Q3) The ________ play an important role in a person's appearance.
A)molars
B)posterior teeth
C)premolars
D)anterior teeth
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Chapter 13: Dental Caries
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Q1) The study of cariology includes the causes of dental caries,process of caries development,and:
A)fabrication of dentures and removable partial dentures.
B)restoration of dental caries with direct materials such as silver amalgam or composite resin.
C)restoration of dental caries with indirect materials such as porcelain or gold.
D)science and practice of caries management and prevention.
Q2) Which of the following is not true regarding the demineralization of the tooth structure?
A)Demineralization is caused by the bacterial acid released after eating a fermentable carbohydrate.
B)Demineralization is increased as fermentable carbohydrates are eaten more frequently.
C)Demineralization is repaired by cooked starch, such as bread, potatoes, rice, and pasta.
D)Demineralization is increased as the teeth are exposed to fermentable carbohydrates more frequently.
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15
Chapter 14: Periodontal Disease
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Q1) Loss of connective tissue attachment is associated with periodontitis and not gingivitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following must be removed by the dentist or the dental hygienist with scaling instruments?
A)Food debris
B)Plaque
C)Calculus
D)Erythrosine stain
Q3) Which of the following systemic conditions is not associated with sex hormone gingival disease?
A)Puberty
B)Pregnancy
C)Menstrual cycle
D)Leukemia
Q4) A patient complaining of discomfort is one of the first signs of gingivitis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Preventive Dentistry
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Q1) The first step in patient education is to:
A)instruct the patient on how to remove plaque.
B)select home care aids.
C)listen carefully and make the patient an active and responsible partner rather than a passive object.
D)reinforce home care.
Q2) As a dental assistant,your first step as a partner in prevention with your patients is to help patients:
A)change their behaviors.
B)become partners in recognizing and preventing dental disease in themselves.
C)become partners in recognizing and preventing dental disease in their families.
D)understand what causes dental disease and how to prevent it.
Q3) Why is it advantageous for pregnant women to chew gum or eat mints that contain xylitol?
A)Xylitol can reduce oral bacteria in a new mother's mouth.
B)Xylitol will increase oral bacteria in a new mother's mouth.
C)Xylitol prevents oral bacteria from being transferred to the infant.
D)New mothers should avoid using foods that contain xylitol because it stimulates dental caries.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following vitamins are associated with consumption of adequate fruits and vegetables?
A)A and C
B)B and C
C)B and D
D)D and K
Q2) Terms such as reduced fat on a jar of peanut butter do not mean anything,because there is no standard for what reduced is being compared with.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following choices will support life and normal growth if it the sole source of protein in the diet?
A)Complete protein
B)Partially complete protein
C)Incomplete protein
D)Vitamin
Q4) Nutrients are organic and inorganic chemicals in food that supply energy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Oral Pathology
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Q1) The type of cancer that affects the bone is:
A)leukemia.
B)cellulitis.
C)adenocarcinoma.
D)osteosarcoma.
Q2) _______ teeth are teeth in which the bone has fused to cementum and dentin.
A)Abraded
B)Impacted
C)Ankylosed
D)Ankyloglossia
Q3) Which of the following terms is used to describe a disorder that is present at birth?
A)Developmental
B)Inherited
C)Congenital
D)Genetic
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19
Chapter 18: Microbiology
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Q1) Bacteria that do require oxygen in order to grow are called:
A)anaerobes.
B)aerobes.
C)spores.
D)gram-negative.
Q2) Which of the following diseases is the leading cause of death worldwide?
A)Legionnaires' disease
B)HIV
C)Tetanus
D)Tuberculosis
Q3) Which of the following diseases can be prevented by immunization?
A)Hepatitis B
B)Hepatitis C
C)Hepatitis D
D)Hepatitis E
Q4) Which of the following diseases is commonly known as lockjaw?
A)Legionnaires' disease
B)Syphilis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Tetanus
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Chapter 19: Disease Transmission and Infection Prevention
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Q1) Which of the following is the correct sequence for handwashing and gloving?
A)Wash your hands before you put on gloves, but not after you remove gloves.
B)Wash your hands before you put on gloves and immediately after you remove gloves.
C)Wash your hands only after you remove gloves.
D)Do not need to wash your hands if you wear gloves.
Q2) Which of the following terms is used to describe disease-causing organisms?
A)Virulence
B)Bioburden
C)Pathogens
D)Infectious disease
Q3) A person who is unable to resist infection by a particular pathogen is known as _______ in the chain of infection.
A)virulence
B)a susceptible host
C)infectious pathogens
D)infectious disease
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21
Chapter 20: Principles and Techniques of Disinfection
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Q1) The high-level disinfectant that does not require activation or mixing and has little odor is:
A)chlorine dioxide.
B)glutaraldehyde.
C)ortho-phthalaldehyde (OPA).
D)sodium hypochlorite.
Q2) According to the EPA,synthetic phenol compounds are categorized as intermediate-level hospital disinfectants.Phenols can be used on: A)metal.
B)glass.
C)rubber or plastic.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following can be used as a surface disinfectant in the dentistry?
A)Iodophors
B)Ethyl alcohol
C)Isopropyl alcohol
D)Ammonia
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22
Chapter 21: Principles and Techniques of Instrument
Processing and Sterilization
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Q1) Biologic monitoring is also known as _____ testing.
A)bacterial
B)culture
C)spore
D)chemical
Q2) The best method to remove debris from the head of the handpiece is to:
A)wipe off with disinfectant.
B)flush the handpiece for 10 to 20 seconds.
C)place it in an ultrasonic cleaner.
D)run water through the handpiece.
Q3) Methods of preventing rust from forming on an instrument during the sterilization process include:
A)completely drying the instrument.
B)lubricating hinged the hinge.
C)allowing the instrument to air dry in the packaging.
D)both a and b
Q4) Microorganisms in a steam sterilizer are killed by:
A)heat.
B)pressure.
C)both heat and pressure.
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Chapter 22: Regulatory and Advisory Agencies
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Q1) All of the following are functions of the U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)except:
A)regulation of medical device manufacturing.
B)approval of sterilizers.
C)development of biologic and chemical indicators.
D)approval of dental chairs and dental unit lights.
Q2) The agency that approves medical and dental devices for marketing in the United States is the:
A)ADA.
B)CDC.
C)FDA.
D)EPA.
Q3) Infection-control procedures practiced in dentistry today are based on the Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings-2003 issued by the:
A)U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
B)American Dental Association (ADA).
C)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
D)National Institute of Dental and Craniofacial Research (NIDCR).
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24
Chapter 23: Chemical and Waste Management
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Q1) Topics in a chemical training program for employees must include:
A)the use of hazardous chemicals.
B)required PPE.
C)the safe handling and disposal methods of chemicals.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The symptom(s)of acute toxicity is (are):
A)headache.
B)dizziness.
C)unconsciousness.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Repeated contact with a chemical can cause a skin condition called: A)acne.
B)dermatitis.
C)erythema.
D)inflation.
Q4) The product that does not need to be listed on the chemical inventory is: A)dental film.
B)phosphoric acid etch.
C)amalgam.
D)composite.
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Chapter 24: Dental Unit Waterlines
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Q1) To reduce the microbial count temporarily and to help clean the handpiece waterlines,DUWLs should be flushed:
A)for 20 to 30 seconds between patients.
B)every morning for several minutes.
C)every evening for 20 minutes.
D)both a and b
Q2) The advantages of self-contained water reservoirs include:
A)they are less expensive to use.
B)dental personnel can select the quality of water used.
C)maintenance of the water system is under the control of the dental staff.
D)both b and c
Q3) The bacteria in the biofilm are more resistant to chemical germicides than planktonic bacteria by a factor of:
A)3.
B)5.
C)100.
D)1500.
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Chapter 25: Ergonomics
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Q1) To relieve stress on the back,neck,and shoulders a dental assistant can:
A)periodically get up and walk around.
B)perform a full back release and head rotations.
C)perform a shoulder shrug.
D)do both b and c
Q2) Body mechanics for the chairside dental assistant include:
A)tilting the head and leaning forward.
B)sitting with a straight back, supported by a backrest and placing thighs parallel to the floor.
C)placing elbows close to body.
D)both b and c
Q3) Frequent reaching,twisting,and working with the arms in awkward positions can cause all of the following except:
A)sprains.
B)strains.
C)stress.
D)both a and b
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Chapter 26: The Patient Record
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Q1) Examples of quality assurance,vital to the delivery of dental care,include:
A)completing treatment in one appointment.
B)timely recall of patients to address dental need and documentation of when radiographs were taken.
C)current, up-to-date emergency standards maintained by the dental team and current and up-to-date licenses, registrations, and training of dental team members.
D)both b and C
Q2) The written medical-dental health history form:
A)eliminates the need for a face-to-face conversation with the patient.
B)should be regarded as minimal information.
C)does not need to be signed and dated by the patient to certify that the information is correct.
D)is considered to be part of the treatment plan.
Q3) Progress notes should document the:
A)date, tooth number, and treatment.
B)different treatment alternatives.
C)payment method.
D)use of insurance benefits for the current calendar or contract year.
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28
Chapter 27: Vital Signs
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Q1) The equipment necessary for taking a patient's blood pressure includes:
A)a stethoscope.
B)a Korotkoff cuff.
C)a sphygmomanometer.
D)both a and C
Q2) The arteries used for taking a pulse are the:
A)carotid, brachial, and femoral.
B)brachial, radial, and femoral.
C)radial, brachial, and carotid.
D)racial, carotid, and femoral.
Q3) The most common anatomic site for taking a patient's pulse is the _____ artery.
A)brachial
B)carotid
C)radial
D)femoral
Q4) Which area of the body can be used to obtain a temperature?
A)Axillary area
B)Rectal area
C)Tympanic area
D)All of the above
29
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Chapter 28: Oral Diagnosis and Treatment Planning
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Q1) The term used to indicate grinding or clenching teeth is:
A)mouth breathing.
B)bruxism.
C)tongue-thrust swallowing.
D)none of the above.
Q2) An instrument used to evaluate pocket depth during examination and charting of the periodontium is a:
A)mouth mirror.
B)periodontal probe.
C)cotton pliers.
D)gauze square.
Q3) Responsibilities of the dental assistant in documenting the clinical examination include:
A)using the periodontal probe to determine pocket depths.
B)diagnosing caries.
C)charting the correct tooth and correct conditions.
D)determining tooth mobility.
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30
Chapter 29: The Special Needs and Medically
Compromised Patient
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Q1) Depression is:
A)a feeling that "all is not well."
B)a disturbance in thinking and perception.
C)hallucinations.
D)an emotional feeling of rejection and withdrawal.
Q2) All of the following are major factors in hypertension except:
A)stress.
B)exercise.
C)smoking.
D)heredity.
Q3) When an assistant is asked to work with a medically and physically compromised patient and family in developing and implementing a preventive program:
A)it should be tailored to the needs of the patient.
B)it should be the standard preventive program presented to all patients.
C)he or she should respond that this is not a delegable function for an assistant.
D)he or she should transfer the patient to the dental hygienist for instructions.
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Chapter 30: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) When not in use,prescription pads should be kept:
A)in a locked drawer.
B)by a telephone.
C)on a counter in an operatory in plain sight.
D)on the receptionist's desk.
Q2) Motrin and Aleve,over-the-counter drugs commonly recommended for pain following dental treatment,are classified as:
A)antibiotics.
B)analgesics.
C)antianxiety agents.
D)antiviral agents.
Q3) When a pharmacy calls the dental office regarding a prescription,the role of the dental assistant is to:
A)authorize prescriptions for narcotics for extreme pain over the phone.
B)notify the dentist immediately.
C)relay information between the pharmacist and dentist, and not interrupt either of them.
D)tell the pharmacist to call back again later if the dentist is busy with a patient.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in a Medical Emergency
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adult patient who does not respond to any type of sensory stimulation is:
A)sleeping.
B)conscious.
C)paralyzed.
D)unconscious.
Q2) The universal signal for choking is:
A)coughing.
B)laughing.
C)turning blue.
D)placing the hands to the throat.
Q3) The rate of compression for an adult,child,and infant is _____ compressions per minute.
A)80
B)70 to 90
C)100
D)80 to 100
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33
Chapter 32: The Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of morning and evening routines for clinical areas in a dental practice are:
A)performed with the goal of leaving the office as soon as patient treatment is completed for the day.
B)performed with the goal of leaving the office ready for patient care in the morning.
C)the responsibility of the dentist to perform, in most practices.
D)the responsibility of the business office staff members to perform, in most practices.
Q2) The recommended floor covering in the clinical and laboratory areas is:
A)hardwood.
B)linoleum.
C)carpet.
D)concrete.
Q3) A rheostat is used to control the _____________________.
A)dental chair
B)curing light
C)handpieces
D)All of the above
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Chapter 33: Delivering Dental Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viewing an object with a mirror is called _____ vision.
A)direct
B)reflective
C)indirect
D)inverted
Q2) Which zone is the area where the instruments and dental materials are exchanged between the dental assistant and the dentist?
A)Static zone
B)Assistant's zone
C)Transfer zone
D)Operator's zone
Q3) When turning on the dental light over a patient seated and positioned in the supine position,the dental light is directed:
A)at the patient's face.
B)over the operator's head.
C)in the patient's mouth.
D)on the patient's chest.
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Chapter 34: Dental Hand Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Instruments used to place,condense,and carve the dental material back to the normal anatomy of the tooth are classified as:
A)restorative.
B)hand cutting.
C)accessory.
D)examination.
Q2) Articulating paper can be used to check a patient's bite on:
A)a crown or bridge.
B)a denture.
C)a new restoration.
D)all of the above.
Q3) All the instruments listed below are types of chisels except a:
A)Wedelstaedt.
B)straight.
C)hatchet.
D)bin-angle.
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Chapter 35: Dental Handpieces and Accessories
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most varied category of rotary instruments is:
A)diamond rotary instruments.
B)laboratory burs.
C)carbide burs.
D)abrasive rotary instruments.
Q2) A high-speed handpiece can reach how many rotations per minute (rpm)?
A)250,000
B)100,000
C)450,000
D)300,000
Q3) Laboratory burs have a _____ shank and a _____ head than dental burs.
A)shorter; smaller
B)longer; smaller
C)shorter; larger
D)longer; larger
Q4) The most frequently used device in restorative dentistry is the: A)amalgamator.
B)dental handpiece.
C)prophy angle.
D)x-ray machine.
37
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Chapter 36: Moisture Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three most common methods used to isolate a specific area of the mouth include:
A)mouth prop, index and middle fingers, and gauze square.
B)cotton rolls, dry angles, and the dental dam.
C)cotton roll, dental dam, and index and middle fingers.
D)mouth prop, gauze squares, and cotton rolls.
Q2) The isolation of anterior teeth is usually:
A)only on the tooth being restored.
B)on the tooth being restored and one tooth on each side.
C)from canine to canine.
D)on the quadrant in which the tooth to be restored is located.
Q3) When the high-speed handpiece is positioned on the occlusal surface of tooth #14,where would the assistant position the HVE?
A)Buccal surface of #15
B)Buccal surface of #13
C)Lower left buccal vestibule
D)Lingual surface of #14
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Chapter 37: Anesthesia and Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) One advantage of nitrous oxide use in a dental setting is that:
A)special training is not required for the dentist and dental assistant.
B)the services of an anesthetist or other special personnel are not necessary.
C)the patient is rendered unconscious.
D)induction and recovery are slow, which is an advantage in long procedures.
Q2) Which of the following choices represents the lowest ratio,meaning greatest concentration,of vasoconstrictor in local anesthetic?
A)1:20,000
B)1:50,000
C)1:100,000
D)1:200,000
Q3) What can cause paresthesia?
A)Trauma to the nerve
B)Bleeding into or around the nerve
C)Contaminated anesthetic solution
D)All of the above
Q4) During the loading of an anesthetic syringe,the _____ is loaded first.
A)needle
B)anesthetic cartridge
C)Both a and b are correct.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Foundations of Radiography, Radiographic
Equipment, and Radiation Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the rules of radiation protection is never stand closer than _____ feet from the x-ray unit during an exposure unless you are behind a barrier.
A)2
B)6
C)10
D)15
Q2) The location where x-rays are produced in the x-ray tube is called the:
A)focal spot.
B)filament.
C)window.
D)PID.
Q3) Because the entire x-ray area is considered a radiation hazard area,a radiation hazard sign must be posted in:
A)sight of patients.
B)sight of personnel.
C)the doctor's private office.
D)both a and b
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Digital Imaging, Dental Film, and Processing
Radiographs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When developer solution in an automatic processor is warmer than 83° F,the processed film will appear:
A)dark or black.
B)gray.
C)clear.
D)light.
Q2) Clear spots on a processed film can be caused by:
A)static electricity.
B)solutions are too warm.
C)fixer contacts film prior to processing.
D)drops of developer on a fixed film.
Q3) Digital radiography requires less radiation than traditional radiography because the: A)exposure time is increased.
B)sensor is smaller.
C)sensor is more sensitive to x-ray energy.
D)sensor is attached to the computer.
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Chapter 40: Legal Issues, Quality Assurance, and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The safelight in the darkroom can be tested by:
A)using the coin test.
B)turning off all the lights in the darkroom and looking for any white light.
C)using a step wedge.
D)taking a reference image.
Q2) PSPs:
A)are a major source of cross-contamination.
B)should be wiped with a cotton ball after being removed from the patient's mouth.
C)should be heat sterilized.
D)should be immersed in disinfecting solution.
Q3) For a film to be properly processed,it should be left in a fixer solution,at full strength,for:
A)30 seconds.
B)1 minute.
C)2 minutes.
D)5 minutes.
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Chapter 41: Intraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) When taking a premolar bitewing image,the anterior edge of the film sensor should be placed:
A)in the middle of the first premolar.
B)on the distal half of the canine.
C)on the distal half of the lateral incisor.
D)on the mesial of the second premolar.
Q2) Factors that can affect the quality of dental radiographs include:
A)film sensor placement.
B)exposure.
C)processing.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Periapical radiographs are essential in which dental specialty?
A)Pediatric dentistry
B)Endodontics
C)Oral surgery
D)Both b and c
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43
Chapter 42: Extraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient's jaws are outside the focal trough,the resulting images are:
A)doubled.
B)ghost images.
C)distorted.
D)too light.
Q2) What new feature of the panoramic unit has allowed better resolution to show better details?
A)Cephalostat
B)Focal trough
C)Digital technology
D)Magnetic resonance
Q3) The quality of the panoramic view depends on:
A)how the patient's jaw is positioned within the focal trough.
B)the size of the patient's jaw.
C)how closely the patient's jaw conforms to the focal trough.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 43: Restorative and Esthetic Dental Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) The instrument used to smooth the amalgam surface is:
A)a condenser.
B)a burnisher.
C)a carver.
D)articulating paper.
Q2) _____ is added to dental amalgam alloy powder to suppress oxidation.
A)Silver
B)Tin
C)Copper
D)Zinc
Q3) All of the following are true statements about in-office tooth whitening except it:
A)can usually be done in one treatment.
B)requires a light-accelerated bleach.
C)requires multiple treatments.
D)involves isolation of soft tissue.
Q4) Retention holds a material in place and seals the structures together.
A)True
B)False
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45
Chapter 44: Dental Liners, Bases, and Bonding Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a varnish is used,it is always used before other materials.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients may feel sensitivity after the placement of a restoration:
A)immediately.
B)after a month.
C)for several months.
D)at any time.
Q3) ZOE mixed to a base consistency should not be:
A)thick and putty-like.
B)rolled into a one large ball.
C)placed to cover the entire pulpal floor.
D)tapped lightly into the preparation with a condenser.
Q4) An example of enamel bonding is the placement of a:
A)dental sealant.
B)dental varnish.
C)calcium hydroxide.
D)dental base.
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46
Chapter 45: Dental Cements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cement that gives off an exothermic reaction and must be speculated over a wide area on a cool,dry,thick glass slab?
A)Zinc oxide eugenol
B)Polycarboxylate
C)Zinc phosphate
D)Composite resin
Q2) How should the interior of a porcelain crown be treated before cementation?
A)Roughened using air abrasion
B)Cleaned with pumice
C)Moistened
D)Polished
Q3) When composite resin cement is used,how should the tooth surface be prepared?
A)Free of all plaque and debris
B)Etched or treated with a bonding system
C)Sprayed with water before cementation
D)Both a and b
Q4) The provisional restoration should be lined with luting cement when being placed for temporary coverage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Impression Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true regarding an automix system?
A)Elastomeric impression materials are automatically mixed and dispensed via an extruder.
B)The unit can be used with light-bodied material only.
C)It provides appropriate amount of material without waste.
D)Both b and C
Q2) Which listed criteria would not be acceptable on an alginate impression?
A)Free of voids, air bubbles, and tears
B)Anatomic areas clearly defined
C)Peripheral borders clearly defined
D)Void of frena and tuberosities
Q3) Which portion of the maxillary impression tray should be seated in the mouth first?
A)Anterior
B)Posterior
C)Right side
D)Left side
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Materials and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding infection control in the dental laboratory is accurate?
A)It is equally as important as when you are with a patient.
B)It is not as critical as when you are with a patient.
C)It is not a consideration because impressions are disinfected at chairside.
D)It depends on the patient's medical history.
Q2) After fabrication,when can a self-cured resin custom tray be used?
A)After the heat has dissipated
B)While it is giving off heat
C)Immediately after construction
D)After 24 hours
Q3) A model consists of the _____ portion,which represents the teeth and tissues of the mouth,and the _____ portion,which forms the base of the cast.
A)art; anatomical
B)anatomical; foundation
C)anatomical; art
D)oral cavity; foundation
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Chapter 48: General Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The class V restoration is defined as a pit and fissure restoration.
B)The class V lesion occurs on the incisal third of the facial and lingual surface of any tooth.
C)The class V lesion is prepared by having a smooth surface outline with angles.
D)The class V lesion location will determine the type of restorative material selected.
Q2) Class III restorations involve the interproximal surfaces of which teeth?
A)Incisors and canines
B)Canines and premolars
C)Premolars and molars
D)Incisors and premolars
Q3) The pulpal floor is also known by what name?
A)Enamel wall
B)Dentinal surface
C)External surface
D)Pulpal wall
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Chapter 49: Matrix Systems for Restorative Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the instrument of choice when positioning a wooden wedge?
A)Amalgam carrier
B)Mouth mirror
C)Howe pliers
D)Cowhorn explorer
Q2) Which matrix system used for class II posterior restorations is the most common?
A)Tofflemire retainer and universal band
B)Clear Mylar matrix
C)T-band matrix
D)AutoMatrix system
Q3) Once the AutoMatrix band is positioned on the tooth,how is the band tightened?
A)A wrench turns the coil counterclockwise to tighten the band.
B)Use fingers to turn the coil until it is snug.
C)A wrench turns the coil clockwise to tighten the band.
D)It is wedged to form the contour.
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Chapter 50: Fixed Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the opening into which a post is cemented?
A)Keyway slot
B)Chamfer
C)Shoulder
D)Post channel
Q2) What is the purpose of provisional coverage?
A)To maintain or restore tooth function, or both
B)To provide comfort for the patient while the permanent restoration is being fabricated
C)To protect the margins of the prepared tooth
D)All of the above
Q3) What is the material of choice for an inlay or onlay restoration?
A)Porcelain
B)Ceramics
C)Gold
D)Amalgam
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Chapter 51: Provisional Coverage
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be done if the margins of the provisional are not adequate?
A)Throw it away and start over.
B)Additional material is added at the inner aspect of the margin and then the provisional is reseated for setting.
C)Because it is a temporary crown, the margins are not critical.
D)Remove the material from the gingival embrasure space with a Hollenback instrument.
Q2) The provisional is trimmed to within ___ mm of the gingival shoulder of the prepared tooth.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q3) What is the set time for mixed acrylic before placing it into the mouth?
A)20 to 30 seconds
B)1 to 2 minutes
C)2 to 3 minutes
D)4 to 5 minutes
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Chapter 52: Removable Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one advantage of a lingual rest?
A)It minimizes trauma to the tooth by transmitting stress along the long axis of the tooth.
B)It is placed on the lingual surface of the tooth so that it is not visible from the front.
C)It is easier to reach when cleaning the partial denture.
D)It extends onto the occlusal surface of the tooth.
Q2) How long of an appointment is scheduled to deliver the partial denture?
A)5 to 10 minutes
B)10 to 20 minutes
C)20 to 30 minutes
D)1 hour
Q3) During fabrication of a complete denture,the dentist uses the baseplate wax-occlusal rim assembly in order to evaluate the _____,which includes centric,protrusive,retrusive,and lateral excursions.
A)vertical dimension
B)occlusal relationship
C)smile line
D)canine eminence
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Chapter 53: Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The blade or cylinder that is surgically embedded into the bone during the first surgery is which type of implant?
A)Endosteal
B)Titanium
C)Titanium abutment
D)Abutment post or cylinder
Q2) How long is the healing period for the first osseointegrated implant surgery?
A)1 to 2 weeks
B)2 to 3 weeks
C)1 to 3 days
D)1 to 2 months
Q3) The implant that is most commonly used to support a mandibular complete denture is the ____ implant.
A)endosteal
B)titanium
C)subperiosteal
D)transosteal
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Chapter 54: Endodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vitality test is the least useful?
A)Heat
B)Cold
C)Percussion
D)Electronic pulp
Q2) When the pulp displays symptoms of lingering pain and the clinical diagnostic findings show that the pulp is incapable of healing,what treatment is warranted?
A)Indirect pulp therapy
B)Root canal therapy
C)Extraction
D)Both b and c
Q3) Which style of hand file has its spiral edges arranged so that cutting occurs only on the pulling stroke,making the dentinal walls smooth and easier to fill?
A)Broach
B)K-type
C)Hedstrom
D)Reamer
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Chapter 55: Periodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is incorrect concerning occlusal adjustments?
A)Excessive biting pressure noted in a specific area is referred to as occlusal trauma.
B)Occlusal equilibration adjusts the patient's bite so that occlusal forces are equally distributed over all the teeth.
C)Occlusal trauma can cause periodontal pocket formation.
D)Tooth mobility can be caused by occlusal trauma.
Q2) What is the primary advantage of noneugenol periodontal surgical dressing over periodontal surgical dressing that does contain Eugenol?
A)Only the noneugenol dressing will protect newly forming tissues.
B)Some patients are allergic to the eugenol and could experience redness and burning pain in the area of the dressing.
C)The noneugenol material can be mixed and stored in advance while the eugenol material cannot be stored in advance.
D)The eugenol-containing dressing is supplied in two tubes-one for the base and the other for the accelerator.
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57
Chapter 56: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral surgery instruments are classified as _____ instruments and must be sterilized after each use.
A)critical
B)semi-critical
C)non-critical
D)both semi- and non-critical
Q2) Which instrument is used to cut into the soft tissue?
A)Rongeur
B)Retractor
C)Scalpel
D)Mallet
Q3) Which biopsy procedure involves removal of adjacent tissue in addition to removal of the entire lesion?
A)Incisional
B)Excisional
C)Exfoliative
D)Punch
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Chapter 57: Pediatric Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a pulpotomy of a primary tooth,what instrument will the dentist use to remove pulp tissue?
A)Handpiece with a #4 round bur
B)Handpiece with a #169 tapered bur
C)Explorer
D)Spoon excavator
Q2) What are the guidelines for establishing trust between the child and dentist?
A)Show, do, tell.
B)Show, tell, do.
C)Tell, show, do.
D)Tell, do, show.
Q3) Which level of mental retardation describes individuals with IQs ranging from 35 to 55?
A)Mild
B)Moderate
C)Severe
D)Profound
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Chapter 58: Coronal Polishing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some polishing agents come as powders to be mixed with water or mouthwash.What consistency works most effectively?
A)Emulsion
B)Slurry
C)Dry and crumbly
D)Wet and sloppy
Q2) The right-angle handpiece is held with which grasp?
A)Pen
B)Palm-thumb
C)Reverse palm-thumb
D)Any that is comfortable
Q3) For what are disclosing agents used?
A)To identify areas of plaque
B)To evaluates the effectiveness of polishing
C)To shows intrinsic stain
D)Both a and b
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Chapter 59: Dental Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Properly placed dental sealants are ___% effective in protecting against development of caries in sealed surfaces.
A)70
B)80
C)90
D)100
Q2) Which statement is correct when comparing filled sealant material with unfilled sealant material?
A)It requires occlusal adjustment.
B)It has a lower wear rate.
C)It may be visible on radiographs.
D)All of the above are correct statements.
Q3) Enamel that has been etched has what appearance when dry?
A)Shiny
B)Frosty
C)Wet
D)Slightly yellow
Q4) Dental sealants replace other preventive care.
A)True
B)False
Page 61
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Chapter 60: Orthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is incorrect about preparing a band for cementation?
A)Wipe attachments with wax or Chapstick.
B)Place the band occlusal surface down on masking tape.
C)Place the band gingival surface down on masking tape.
D)Fill the entire inner surface with cement.
Q2) _____ are attached to hooks or buttons that are secured on the band or brackets.
A)Springs
B)Tooth positioners
C)Elastic separators
D)Elastics
Q3) Why is glass ionomer cement the most commonly used cement for banding orthodontic bands?
A)It contains fluoride that aids in preventing decay under the bands.
B)It has adequate strength to aid in retention with enamel.
C)It is capable of being bonded to the tooth surface.
D)Both a and b are correct.
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Chapter 61: Communication in the Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is important for resolving conflict?
A)Involve the dentist or office manager so they will know what is going on.
B)Keep it personal; use "I" or "me" instead of "we."
C)Try to get other coworkers "on your side."
D)Know the difference between "conflict" and "harassment."
Q2) What is a characteristic of good listening skills?
A)One of the easiest skills to master
B)Letting your mind wander when talking to a patient
C)Should not be influenced by a person's appearance
D)Does not require you to look at the speaker
Q3) Which statement is incorrect?
A)Conflict is necessary for effective problem solving.
B)Conflict is necessary for effective interpersonal relationships.
C)Unresolved conflict can cause stress with colleagues.
D)You should involve yourself should a conflict arise between others.
Q4) Which of the following is required to be a good team member?
A)Stick with first impressions since they are usually the right ones.
B)Show appreciation to coworkers.
C)Stick to your ways.
D)Do only your job so that you do not overstep your responsibilities.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 63
Chapter 62: Business Operating Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15623
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the time that is reserved each day for scheduling emergency patients called?
A)Buffer period
B)Matrix
C)Emergency block
D)Bracket time
Q2) Where would you look to find expense records such as receipts and paid bills?
A)Patient dental records
B)Patient financial records
C)Practice business records
D)Accounts receivable records
Q3) Most dental practices use ___-minute time units,because they provide maximal flexibility in scheduling,allowing for more productivity.
A)10
B)15
C)30
D)60
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64
Chapter 63: Financial Management in the Dental Office
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15624
Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for Social Security?
A)FICA
B)Withholding
C)Retirement
D)Employee savings
Q2) What is the purpose of a walkout statement?
A)A receipt for services rendered
B)Reduces the number of statements that must be prepared
C)Shows only the charges for that day
D)Is the same thing as a charge slip
Q3) Of the parties involved in dental insurance,who is the carrier?
A)The person receiving treatment
B)A spouse or child of the subscriber
C)The union or employment organization that has negotiated the dental insurance as part of its benefits package
D)The party that pays the claims and collects the premiums
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65
Chapter 64: Marketing Your Skills
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15625
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an action that requires significant difficulty or expense when factors such as an employer's size,financial resources,and the nature and structure of the operation?
A)An act of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
B)Title 1 act
C)Illegal
D)Undue hardship
Q2) Which of the following describes Title 1 of the Americans with Disabilities Act?
A)It is legal for a dentist to terminate a staff member if he becomes disabled.
B)It requires that the dentist make reasonable accommodations for a staff member if he should become disabled while employed.
C)It applies only to dental practices with at least four people.
D)It was passed in 1995.
Q3) A compensation package includes:
A)salary only.
B)salary, health insurance, and paid vacation.
C)salary plus additional benefits that the dentist includes.
D)salary plus the number of hours that will be worked.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 66