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Preparatory Chemistry is designed to provide students with a foundational understanding of basic chemical principles, preparing them for success in higher-level chemistry courses. Topics include the structure of atoms and molecules, chemical nomenclature, stoichiometry, chemical reactions, and an introduction to the properties of gases, liquids, and solids. The course emphasizes problem-solving techniques, laboratory safety, and hands-on experience through experiments, fostering critical thinking and the application of scientific methods. This course is ideal for students seeking to strengthen their background before undertaking general or introductory chemistry in a college setting.
Recommended Textbook
Introductory Chemistry 5th Edition by Nivaldo J. Tro
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Q1) Theories can be tested and validated through experimentation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is chemistry?
Answer: Chemistry is branch of science that explains the properties and behavior of different forms of matter,in the broadest sense,by helping us understand the atoms and molecules that compose them.
Q3) The definition of a scientific law is:
A)the same as a hypothesis.
B)a way of learning that emphasizes observation and experimentation.
C)the underlying reason for a scientific theory.
D)a number of similar observations generalized into a brief statement summarizing past observations and predicting new ones.
E)none of the above
Answer: D
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Q1) Determine the answer to the following equation with correct number of significant figures:
(17.103 + 2.03)× 1.02521 = ________
A)19.6153
B)19.62
C)19.6
D)20
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) How many significant digits should be reported in the answer to the following calculation?
(4.3 - 3.7)× 12.3 = A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)none of the above
Answer: A
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Q1) How many calories are there in a 255 Calorie snack bar?
A)2.55 × 10<sup>5</sup>
B)1.07 × 10<sup>3</sup>
C)60.9
D)1 × 10<sup>3</sup>
E)none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Physical properties are:
A)those that a substance displays only through changing its composition.
B)those that cause atoms and molecules to change.
C)those that a substance displays without changing its composition.
D)identical for all solid matter.
E)none of the above
Answer: C
Q3) In a chemical reaction,the substances present after the chemical change are called reactants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) An atom containing 8 protons,9 neutrons,and 8 electrons would be considered charge-neutral.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When an atom loses an electron,the resulting particle is called:
A)a proton.
B)an anion.
C)a cation.
D)an isotope.
E)none of the above
Q3) Examine the elements listed below and identify the one element that is from a different periodic table group than the others.
A)Si
B)Sn
C)Ti
D)Ge
E)All of these are from the same group.
Q4) Protons and neutrons have similar masses and similar electrical charges.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The formula of a compound comprised of two nitrogen atoms and one oxygen atom should be written properly as ON<sub>2</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The basic unit of an ionic compound is called the formula unit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oxyacids contains at least one H<sup>+</sup> and an oxyanion.The " nitrous " oxyacid contains the oxyanion ________.
A)nitrite
B)nitrate
C)nitride
D)nitric
E)none of the above
Q4) What is the name of the molecular compound SF<sub>5</sub>?
A)sulfur hexafluoride
B)sulfur heptafluoride
C)monosulfur tetrafluoride
D)sulfur pentafluoride
E)none of the above
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Q1) How many moles of Cu are in 1.48 × 10<sup>25</sup> Cu atoms?
A)0.0408
B)24.6
C)1.54 × 10<sup>25</sup>
D)6.022 × 10<sup>23</sup>
E)none of the above
Q2) The molar mass of a compound in grams per mole is numerically equal to the formula mass of the compound in atomic mass units.
A)True
B)False
Q3) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>4</sub> could be an empirical formula. A)True
B)False
Q4) An empirical formula gives the specific number of each type of atom in a molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Water is 11.2% hydrogen by mass.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Mixing HNO<sub>3</sub> (aq)and NaHCO<sub>3</sub> (aq)will produce carbon dioxide gas as a product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the coefficients for the following reaction when it is properly balanced? ___nitrogen monoxide + ___carbon monoxide ___nitrogen +___carbon dioxide
A)2,1,1,2
B)2,2,1,2
C)2,2,2,1
D)1,1,2,2
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following compounds is SOLUBLE?
A)aluminum hydroxide
B)aluminum sulfide
C)aluminum carbonate
D)aluminum sulfate
E)none of the above
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Q1) Suppose a computer manufacturer can build circuit boards according to the following process:
12 resistors + 20 insulators + 8 memory chips 4 circuit boards. How many circuit boards could you make using 30 insulators,assuming you have enough of all the other parts?
A)20
B)4
C)10
D)6
E)none of the above
Q2) Consider the reaction: 2 Al + 3Br<sub>2</sub> 2 AlBr<sub>3</sub>
Suppose a reaction vessel initially contains 5.0 mole Al and 6.0 mole Br<sub>2</sub>.What is in the reaction vessel once the reaction has occurred to the fullest extent possible?
A)1.0 mole Al;0 mole Br<sub>2</sub>;4.0 mole AlBr<sub>3</sub>
B)0 mole Al;0 mole Br<sub>2</sub>;11.0 mole AlBr<sub>3</sub>
C)2.0 mole Al;3.0 mole Br<sub>2</sub>;2.0 mole AlBr<sub>3</sub>
D)0 mole Al;1.0 mole Br<sub>2</sub>;4.0 mole AlBr<sub>3</sub>
E)none of the above
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Q1) The shorter the wavelength of light,the more energy it has.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bromine has 17 valence electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which subshell letter corresponds to a spherical orbital?
A)s
B)p
C)d
D)f
E)not enough information
Q4) Which element is represented by the electron configuration 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>2</sup>?
A)C
B)He
C)Be
D)O
E)none of the above
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Q1) What is the angle between electron groups in the linear electron geometry?
A)90°
B)109.5°
C)120°
D)180°
E)not enough information
Q2) Which of the following statements about Lewis structures is FALSE?
A)An octet is when an atom has 8 valence electrons.
B)A duet is a stable electron configuration for helium.
C)An ionic bond occurs when electrons are transferred.
D)A covalent bond occurs when electrons are shared.
E)All of the above statements are true.
Q3) Which compound listed below will dissolve in NH<sub>3</sub>?
A)H<sub>2</sub>S
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)O<sub>2</sub>
D)all of the compounds
E)none of the compounds
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Q1) What is the final volume of a balloon that was initially 500.0 mL at 25°C and was then heated to 50°C?
A)461 mL
B)193 mL
C)1.00 L
D)542 mL
E)none of the above
Q2) What is the equivalent pressure of 760 torr in units of mm Hg?
A)760
B)1
C)14.7
D)29.92
E)none of the above
Q3) A sample of 0.255 mole of gas has a volume of 748 mL at 28°C.Calculate the pressure of this gas.(R= 0.0821 L atm / mol K)
A)8.42 atm
B)0.784 atm
C)0.00842 atm
D)7.84 × 10<sup>-4 </sup>atm
E)none of the above
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Q1) Water has a heat of vaporization of 44.0 kJ/mol while the chemical diethyl ether has a heat of vaporization of 27.1 kJ/mol.This shows that one mole of water would vaporize more easily than would one mole of diethyl ether.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which state of matter has a low density and an indefinite volume?
A)solids
B)liquids
C)gases
D)both solids and liquids
E)none of the above
Q3) Which substance below has dipole-dipole forces?
A)CH<sub>4</sub>
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)F<sub>2</sub>
D)H<sub>2</sub>S
E)none of the above
Q4) Heat is released when a liquid freezes into a solid.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The minor component in a solution is called the solvent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about colligative properties is FALSE?
A)The boiling point of a solution is increased by the addition of salt.
B)The freezing point of a solution is lowered by the addition of salt.
C)The change in temperature is proportional to the molality.
D)The identity of the solute is not a factor.
E)All of the above statements are true.
Q3) Solution A has a concentration of 0.10 M sugar and Solution B has a concentration of 0.20 M sugar.If the two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane,which of the following occurs during osmosis?
A)Solvent molecules move from B into A.
B)Sugar molecules move from B into A.
C)The molarity of A increases.
D)The molarity of B increases.
E)none of the above
Q4) Air is an example of a gaseous solution.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) In which solution is the [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] less than 0.250 M?
A)0.250 M HC<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub> (aq)
B)0.250 M HF (aq)
C)0.250 M HCO<sub>2</sub> (aq)
D)all of these
E)none of these
Q2) The Bronsted-Lowry definition of a base is:
A)a proton donor.
B)a proton acceptor.
C)produces H in solution.
D)produces OH in solution.
E)none of the above
Q3) Acids produce H ions in solution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pH of a 0.0001 M NaOH solution is 4.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Le Chatelier's Principle states that:
A)a disturbing force must be applied to a system in order for it to reach equilibrium.
B)when a system at equilibrium is disturbed,a new equilibrium constant is established.
C)when a chemical system at equilibrium is disturbed,the system shifts in order to minimize the effect.
D)when a chemical system is at equilibrium it is no longer possible to alter the system.
E)none of the above
Q2) A system is said to be in dynamic equilibrium when:
A)there is no longer any net change in the concentrations of products or reactants.
B)the forward and reverse reactions come to a halt.
C)the sum of the concentrations of the reactants is equal to the sum of the concentrations of the products.
D)you have let the reaction proceed for approximately 30 minutes and can assume there will be no more changes.
E)none of the above
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Q1) The reducing agent is reduced during the reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In electrolysis:
A)a spontaneous redox reaction produces electricity.
B)a nonspontaneous redox reaction is forced to occur by applying an electric current.
C)only pure,drinkable water is produced.
D)you have a cell which reverses the flow of ions.
E)none of the above
Q3) Corrosion of metals may be prevented by keeping them dry at all times.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In which compound does manganese have the highest oxidation state?
A)Mn
B)Mn<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
C)KMnO<sub>4</sub>
D)MnO<sub>2</sub>
E)none of the above
Q5) Distinguish between a galvanic (voltaic)cell and an electrolytic cell.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the creation of the nuclear bomb is FALSE?
A)Einstein lobbied President Roosevelt to pursue creation of the bomb.
B)American war intelligence feared the Germans were ahead of the Allies in developing nuclear weapons in WWII.
C)J.R.Oppenheimer headed the Manhattan Project.
D)The Germans were defeated by the time the bomb had been developed.
E)All of the above are true.
Q2) Uranium-235 is capable of undergoing a fission chain reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During the first half-life you lose half of the radioactive material,during the second half life you lose the remaining half.
A)True
B)False
Q4) C-14 dating has been verified using old iron ore samples of known age.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
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Q1) An ethyl group can be symbolized as -CH<sub>3</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Aldehydes and ketones both contain a carbonyl group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Production of the synthetic polymer "polyethylene" uses an alkene as a starting monomer unit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How many carbon atoms would be in the compound named chlorobenzene?
A)1
B)5
C)6
D)7
E)none of the above
Q5) Esters are best known for their awful odors such as that associated with the smell of rotten fish.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) DNA contained within the nucleus of most cells contains a complete set of instructions to make all of the proteins in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The complementary strand of DNA to the pattern GAATC is TCCGA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A lipid is a chemical component of the cell that is:
A)insoluble in water but soluble in methanol.
B)soluble in nonpolar solvents and insoluble in water.
C)soluble in water and insoluble in nonpolar solvents.
D)soluble in both water and nonpolar solvents.
E)none of the above
Q4) A codon is:
A)a series of three bases that specifies one of the twenty amino acids.
B)a series of three phosphates that specifies one of the twenty amino acids.
C)a series of three sugars that specifies one of the twenty amino acids.
D)a series of three proteins that specify one of the twenty amino acids.
E)none of the above
Q5) What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?
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