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Preparatory Chemistry is designed to introduce students to the foundational concepts of chemistry, providing essential skills and knowledge required for success in subsequent college-level chemistry courses. Topics covered include atomic structure, periodic trends, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, solutions, and basic thermochemistry. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and problem-solving exercises, students will develop an understanding of chemical principles and improve their scientific reasoning and quantitative analysis abilities. This course is ideal for students who need to strengthen their background in chemistry before advancing to more rigorous, college-level science classes.
Recommended Textbook
Introductory Chemistry 4th Edition by Steve Russo
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name given to the element with the symbol "As"?
A)silver
B)argon
C)antimony
D)arsenic
E)astatine
Answer: D
Q2) By what chemical symbol do we know the element chromium?
A)Cr
B)Co
C)C
D)Cs
Answer: A
Q3) What is the correct statement about an atom?
A)It is always pure.
B)It is the smallest particle of an element.
C)It is the smallest particle of a molecule.
D)It can be isolated.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many significant digits are there in the number 0.02560?
A)3
B)4
C)5
D)6
Answer: B
Q2) The correct scientific notation for 147.8 × 10<sup>-3</sup> is ________.
A)1.478
B)1478 × 10<sup>-4</sup>
C)1.478 × 10<sup>-1</sup>
D)1.478 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
Answer: C
Q3) What is the density, in g/mL, of a piece of metal that weighs 0.408 kg and displaces 0.0297 L of water?
Answer: d = 13.7 g/mL
Q4) 40 °C is equivalent to 40 °F.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) A compound is produced when 6.08 g of nitrogen combine with 13.92 g oxygen. What is this compound?
A)NO
B)NO<sub>2</sub>
C)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
D)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>
Answer: B
Q2) What name is commonly given to the elements of Group IIA of the periodic table?
A)Alkaline earth metals
B)Transition metals
C)Platinum metals
D)Alkali metals
Answer: A
Q3) Which element would have a similar chemical reactivity in water as K?
A)Ca
B)Ar
C)Rb
D)H
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once an atom gets excited, it may remain in that excited state indefinitely.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many valence electrons are in silicon?
A)2
B)4
C)5
D)7
Q3) In a single atom, what is the maximum number of electrons that can have quantum number n=4?
A)10
B)14
C)18
D)32
Q4) Halogens have large electron affinity values.
A)True
B)False
Q5) +1 is the only charge sodium ions normally have.
A)True
B)False

Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ion P<sup>-</sup><sup>3</sup> is named phosphate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many valence electrons are required when constructing a complete Lewis dot structure of the compound CF<sub>2</sub>C1<sub>2</sub>?
Q3) Which of the following formulas includes a parenthesis?
A)sodium dichromate
B)magnesium carbonate
C)aluminum nitrate
D)magnesium hydrogen phosphate
Q4) Metals are always going to be the more electropositive elements in a bond as long as they are attached to a non-metal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The formula for sodium sulfite is ________.
A)Na<sub>2</sub>S
B)Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub>
C)Na<sub>2</sub>S<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
D)Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
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Sample Questions
Q1) CN<sup>-</sup>
Q2) What is the molecular shape of CH<sub>2</sub>O?
A)tetrahedral
B)bent
C)trigonal planar
D)pyramidal
Q3) The bond angle in carbon tetrachloride is 109°.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is correct about the bent structure?
A)has three bonding electrons pairs with at least one lone pair around the central atom
B)is the shape of the ammonia molecule
C)has its angles around the central atom very close to the 105°
D)All above statements are correct.
Q5) One can say with certainty that the pyramidal structure is the tetrahedral arrangement minus a bond but with a lone pair.
A)True
B)False
Q6) NO<sup>+</sup>

8
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following experiences the strongest London forces?
A)carbon tetrachloride
B)water
C)hydrogen
D)helium
Q2) The reason why quartz has a high melting point is hydrogen bonding.
A)True
B)False
Q3) glucose, C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
Q4) To form hydrogen bonds, molecules must contain ________.
A)an N-H bond
B)an O-H bond
C)an H-F bond
D)at least one of the above mentioned bonds
Q5) The force(s)responsible for holding the DNA molecule in a very long twisted zipper is
A)hydrogen bonding
B)London forces
C)dipolar forces
D)interionic forces
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Q1) Ammonium phosphate is water soluble but ammonium carbonate is water insoluble.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which hydroxide is water insoluble?
A)sodium hydroxide
B)barium hydroxide
C)aluminum hydroxide
D)calcium hydroxide
Q3) Which chloride is water soluble?
A)lead (II)chloride
B)calcium chloride
C)mercury (I)chloride
D)silver (I)chloride
Q4) Which sulfate is water soluble?
A)calcium sulfate
B)barium sulfate
C)lithium sulfate
D)lead (II)sulfate
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Sample Questions
Q1) One mole of carbon monoxide has the same mass as one mole of nitrogen gas.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The balanced equation involves the corresponding coefficients ________.
A)1: 9: 6: 7
B)1: 10: 6: 7
C)2: 19: 6: 7
D)2: 21: 6: 7
Q3) An iron oxide is 70.0% in iron. Its empirical formula is ________.
A)FeO
B)Fe<sub>2</sub>O
C)Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
D)Fe<sub>3</sub>O<sub>4</sub>
Q4) The theoretical mass of sulfur dioxide produced from two moles of sulfuric acid is
A)8.0 g
B)16.0 g
C)32.0 g
D)64.0 g
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cathode is the electrode where oxidation occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true for reaction Zn + CuCl<sub>2</sub> ZnCl<sub>2</sub> + Cu ?
A)The solution will turn blue.
B)The solution will turn from blue to light blue.
C)The gray zinc powder will disappear.
D)Both B and C are correct.
Q3) Which of the following has 18 electrons?
A)Ca<sup>2</sup><sup>+</sup>
B)Cl<sup>+</sup>
C)S<sup>2</sup><sup>+</sup>
D)Fe<sup>3</sup><sup>+</sup>
Q4) The overall charge of calcium sulfate is -2.
A)True
B)False
Q5) For each reaction above that can be classified as an electron transfer reaction, state which element(s)gain, and which element(s)lose, electrons.
Page 12
Q6) Which of the reactions above are examples of electron transfer reactions?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pressure of 2.00 atm is equal to 152 cm Hg.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The boiling point of water is 373 K.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A gas occupies a volume of 480 mL at 127 °C and 140 mm Hg. What mathematical expression will yield the correct volume at 177 °C and 400 mm Hg?
A)480 × (140/400)× (450/400)
B)480 × (400/140)× (450/400)
C)480 × (140/400)× (400/450)
D)480 × (400/140)× (400/450)
Q4) Assuming that the pressure and quantity of a gas sample remain constant, what will be the final volume of a 4.86 L sample of a gas originally at 281 °C when cooled to 225 °C?
A)5.19 L
B)4.37 L
C)2.92 L
D)2.78 L

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Q1) What are the three ways a given solution's "percent composition" can be described?
Q2) There is no difference between the "molarity" and the "percent composition" of a given solution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How are the solubilities of gases (solutes)in liquids (solvents)affected by changing pressure?
A)Gases are more soluble in liquids when pressure is decreased.
B)Pressure has no effect on how soluble a gas is in a liquid.
C)Gases are less soluble in liquids when pressure is increased.
D)Gases are more soluble when the pressure is increased.
Q4) What is the freezing point of a sugar solution prepared by dissolving 375.00 g of sucrose (342.3 g/mol)in 1500.0 g of water (K<sub>f</sub> of water = 1.86 °C)?
A)1.36 °C
B)-1.36 °C
C)-1.86 °C
D)-0.465 °C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be done to increase the likelihood that a chemical reaction will take place?
A)decrease the average speed of the reacting molecules
B)induce more collisions between reacting molecules
C)remove all the water from the reaction mixture
D)break the reaction up into a series of steps
Q2) The units for the rate of a reaction are ________.
A)concentration per unit of time
B)concentration multiplied by the unit of time
C)unit of time per unit of concentration
D)One cannot say with certainty since rate laws vary from reaction to reaction.
Q3) A catalyst lowers the activation energy for a chemical reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An exothermic reaction usually leads to a release in energy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Calculate a value for E<sub>rxn</sub> for a chemical reaction, if the reactants have an energy of +300 kJ/mol and the products have an energy of +100 kJ/mol. Is this reaction exothermic or endothermic?
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the reaction Ni (s)+ 4CO (g) Ni(CO)<sub>4</sub> (g), adding extra nickel will shift the equilibrium to the right.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If the value of the equilibrium constant for the forward reaction is 2.5 × 10<sup>30</sup>, the value of the equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is 4.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>30</sup>.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At equilibrium, the "amount of product" present is always greater than the "amount of reactant" present.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Consider the equation 2NH<sub>3</sub> (g) N<sub>2</sub> (g)+ 3H<sub>2</sub> (g). Decreasing the concentration of ammonia gas will ________.
A)shift the reaction to the right
B)shift the reaction to the left
C)have no effect
D)cannot be determined, since the temperature is unknown
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hydrogen-ion concentration of a solution of pOH 10.5 is 3.16 × 10<sup>-4</sup> mol/L (remember that pH + pOH = 14 for aqueous systems).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a weak base?
A)sodium hydroxide
B)ammonium hydroxide
C)lithium hydroxide
D)potassium hydroxide
Q3) Which of the following is a strong acid?
A)acetic acid
B)hydrofluoric acid
C)phosphoric acid
D)hydrochloric acid
Q4) Which of the following is a triprotic acid when dissolved in water?
A)hydrobromic
B)sulfuric
C)hypochlorous
D)phosphoric
Q5) What is the OH<sup>-</sup> concentration of a solution of pH 8.36?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heavy water is ________.
A)water that contains cations such as magnesium, ferric and calcium
B)water whose hydrogens are deuterium
C)water whose hydrogens carry one neutron
D)both B and C
Q2) Nuclear fission is sometimes referred to as the "holy grail" for energy production.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following does not carry neutrons?
A)(<sup>1</sup>n)
B)alpha rays
C)(<sup>1</sup>H)
D)deuterium
Q4) The daughter isotope of <sup>196</sup>Po when it undergoes beta-emission is <sup>196</sup>At.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The half-life of chlorine-34 is 1.52 seconds. How much time will pass before a given sample of chlorine-34 decays by 60%?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a hydrocarbon?
A)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O
B)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O
C)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
D)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
Q2) Which compounds typically have an unpleasant smell?
A)amines
B)esters
C)alcohols
D)ethers
Q3) Organic amines are acidic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) People put lemon juice (which contains citric acid)on fish to quench the "fishy" smell, even on perfectly good fish fillets. What type of chemical reaction is occurring when people are quenching the fishy smell by adding lemon juice?
A)an oxidation-reduction reaction
B)a double displacement reaction
C)an acid-base reaction
D)a single displacement reaction

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an amine base present in DNA?
A)thymine
B)alanine
C)cytosine
D)guanine
Q2) Cellulose and starch are both polysaccharides of glucose. Explain why humans can consume and digest starch but not cellulose.
Q3) Amino acids are the smallest building blocks for proteins .
A)True
B)False
Q4) All amino acids are made of only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following may be classified as a natural biopolymer?
A)carbohydrate
B)protein
C)DNA
D)all of the above
Q6) Construct the complementary strand of this piece of a DNA molecule:
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