
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Preparatory Chemistry is designed to provide students with a foundational understanding of basic chemical concepts and principles necessary for success in college-level chemistry courses. Topics include atomic structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, solutions, basic thermochemistry, and an introduction to acids, bases, and chemical reactions. The course emphasizes problem-solving skills, laboratory techniques, and the application of concepts to real-world scenarios, ensuring students develop the confidence and competence required for further studies in chemistry and related scientific fields.
Recommended Textbook
Introductory Chemistry 4th Edition by Steve Russo
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1785 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only way one can change an element to another is via ________.
A)a chemical reaction
B)a physical reaction
C)a nuclear reaction
D)applying heat
Answer: C
Q2) An atom is the smallest possible single piece of an element that still retains all the properties of that element.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following can be classified as matter?
A)ice
B)sugar
C)graphite
D)All of the above are matter.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many significant figures are there in 0.00123, 7000, and 1.519 × 10<sup>-2</sup>?
A)6, 4, 4
B)4, 1, 1
C)7, 1, 4
D)3, 1, 4
Answer: D
Q2) Temperature changes that may be used for energy difference calculations are measured through a bomb calorimeter.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) There are 4 pints in a gallon.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) What is the symbol and name borrowed from Greek which signifies one thousand? Answer: k, for kilo
Q5) How many significant digits are there in the number 740.2? Answer: 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which element, isotope, or ion listed below contains 16 protons, 17 neutrons, and 18 electrons?
A)(<sup>33</sup>Ar<sup>2-</sup>)
B)(<sup>33</sup>S<sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>)
C)(<sup>33</sup>Cl)
D)(<sup>34</sup>S<sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>)
Answer: B
Q2) The periodic table contains more elements that are classified as non-metals than elements of any other type.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which species has 18 electrons?
A)(<sub>Ca</sub>+)
B)(Cl<sup>2-</sup>)
C)(<sub>Ar</sub>-)
D)(P<sup>3</sup><sup>-</sup>)
Answer: D
Q4) strontium-90
Answer: atomic number 38, mass number 90, symbol Sr
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Q1) The elements of Group VIIIA are almost entirely non-reactive with any of the other chemical elements. Which of the following statements best explains this observed behavior?
A)Group VIIIA elements comply with the octet rule.
B)Group VIIIA elements are so rare that no one has ever studied their reactive properties in any detail.
C)Group VIIIA elements are all gases, and gases are generally non-reactive.
D)No explanation given here can explain why Group VIIIA elements do not react with any of the other chemical elements.
Q2) The wavelengths in infrared radiation are larger than those of the ultraviolet region. A)True
B)False
Q3) The speed of light is about 186,000 miles per minute. A)True
B)False
Q4) List the sublevels of the n = 3 principal energy level, and state the maximum number of electrons contained within each of these sublevels.
Q5) Which element is the more reactive, sodium (Na)or potassium (K)?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Every single COVALENT bond represents ________ electrons.
A)one
B)two
C)four
D)One cannot say unless the atoms that make up the bond are known.
Q2) When vaporized into steam water molecules decompose into hydrogen and oxygen molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following may not be classified as a polyanion?
A)perchlorate
B)chlorate
C)chlorite
D)chloride
Q4) Which of the following polyatomic ions has a -2 charge?
A)ammonium
B)carbonate
C)dihydrogen phosphate
D)acetate
Q5) SO<sub>2</sub>
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the molecular shape of CH<sub>2</sub>O?
A)tetrahedral
B)bent
C)trigonal planar
D)pyramidal
Q2) When determining the shape of a molecule, count all electron groups around the central atom.
A)True
B)False
Q3) CBr<sub>4</sub>
Q4) Which of the following compounds contains bonds that are the most polar (greatest electronegativity difference between hydrogen and the central atom)?
A)H<sub>2</sub>O
B)H<sub>2</sub>S
C)H<sub>2</sub>Se
D)H<sub>2</sub>Te
Q5) CS<sub>2</sub>
Q6) CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>
Q7) SO<sub>3</sub>

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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason why quartz has a high melting point is hydrogen bonding.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following sublimes?
A)sugar
B)iron
C)mothballs
D)margarine
Q3) Vancomycin is the first line of defense against bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) London forces become significant for large molecules with many atoms and many electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) chromium, Cr
Q6) The acetone molecule has a large dipole because of the electronegativity difference between carbon and oxygen.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the sum of all coefficients after the following equation is balanced C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> CO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O?
A)4
B)18
C)32
D)61
Q2) Which chloride is water soluble?
A)lead (II)chloride
B)calcium chloride
C)mercury (I)chloride
D)silver (I)chloride
Q3) The net ionic equation for the reaction H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> + KOH
K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O is ________.
A)K<sup>+</sup> (aq)+ SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup> (aq)
K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
B)H<sup>+</sup> (aq)+ OH<sup>-</sup> (aq) H<sub>2</sub>O
C)K<sup>+</sup> (aq)+ OH<sup>-</sup>(aq) KOH
D)H<sup>+</sup> (aq)+ SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup> (aq)
H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the theoretical mass of water produced from ten moles of NaHCO<sub>3</sub>?
A)180 g
B)90 g
C)45 g
D)18 g
Q2) The % yield of an experiment in which two moles NaN<sub>3</sub> was used and 21 g nitrogen was isolated is ________.
A)100%
B)50%
C)37.5%
D)25%
Q3) The theoretical number of moles of nitrogen produced from 6 moles NaN<sub>3</sub> is ________.
A)2
B)6
C)9
D)18
Q4) Determine the molecular formula for a compound that weighs 44.1 g/mol and is 81.7% C and 18.3% H by mass.
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Q1) Identify the oxidizing agent in the following chemical process: Fe + Cu(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> Fe(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> + Cu
A)Fe
B)Cu<sup>+2</sup>
C)NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
D)Cu
Q2) The only element that is more electronegative than oxygen is ________.
A)chlorine
B)fluorine
C)nitrogen
D)sulfur
Q3) Which of the following elements may have an oxidation number of +1 or -1?
A)hydrogen
B)sodium
C)potassium
D)lithium
Q4) The oxidation state of non-metals is almost always a negative number.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the reactions above are examples of electron transfer reactions?
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Sample Questions
Q1) 30.19 inches of Hg is equal to 1.009 atm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As temperature increases the volume of a gas increases, even if the pressure is not kept constant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The volume of 2.3 g nitrogen gas at STP is ________.
A)1.8 L
B)11.2 L
C)22.4 L
D)44.8 L
Q4) Assuming that the pressure and quantity of a gas sample remain constant, what will be the final volume of a 4.86 L sample of a gas originally at 281 °C when heated to 300 °C?
A)5.03 L
B)3.89 L
C)2.92 L
D)2.78 L


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Sample Questions
Q1) 25 mL of 0.2 M NaOH will neutralize 10 mL 0.5 M HCl solution.
A)True
B)False
Q2) C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub><sub> </sub>will dissolve in CCl<sub>4</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sterling silver is a solution (ALLOY)of ________.
A)silver and zinc
B)silver and gold
C)silver and copper
D)silver and iron
Q4) 200. mL 0.100 M NaCl contains ________ g NaCl.
A)1.17
B)11.7
C)117
D)5.85
Q5) How does the phrase "like dissolves like" help to explain why a solute like sodium chloride (NaCl)and a solvent like water should form a solution?
Q6) What are the three ways a given solution's "percent composition" can be described?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fraction of collisions with the proper orientation depends on ________.
A)the strength of the bonds that are to be broken
B)the molecular shape of the molecule
C)the concentration
D)both A and B
Q2) Which statement is true about the reaction energy profile?
A)plots the relative energies of both the reactants and products
B)plots energy on the y-axis
C)traces the progress of the reaction on the x-axis
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) A high energy of activation leads to more products favored in the reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Based on the collision theory, decreasing temperature for a reaction increases the reaction rate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A catalyst can be recovered at the end of the reaction.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) The double arrow in a chemical reaction indicates that the equilibrium is established because the rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Refer to the equilibrium shown above. Adding KSCN will ________.
A)turn the solution red.
B)turn the solution less red.
C)turn the solution clear.
D)have no effect on the color.
Q3) Consider the equation 2SO<sub>2</sub> (g)+ O<sub>2</sub> (g) 2SO<sub>3</sub> (g). Removing product will ________.
A)shift the reaction to the right
B)shift the reaction to the left
C)have no effect
D)cannot be determined, since the temperature is unknown
Q4) SO<sub>2</sub> (g)+ NO<sub>2</sub> (g) SO<sub>3</sub> (g)+ NO (g)
Q5) Changing the temperature of a reaction will not change the equilibrium value. A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The carbonate (CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>)/bicarbonate (HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>)pair represents a base and its conjugate acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Approximately one out of every 555 million water molecules autoionize. A)True
B)False
Q3) The conjugate base of HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> is ________.
A)H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
B)CO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup>
C)CO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup>
D)H<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>3</sub><sup>+</sup>
Q4) Milk's pH is slightly basic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pH of natural rainwater is close to ________.
A)5.6
B)6.3
C)7.0
D)8.2

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Sample Questions
Q1) The mercury-197 to gold-197 conversion is accompanied by ________.
A)an electron capture
B)an electron release
C)an alpha emission
D)a neutron capture
Q2) Binding energy is ________.
A)the amount of mass that is converted to energy during a nuclear reaction
B)the amount of mass produced during a nuclear reaction
C)the amount of energy released when an atom forms from its subatomic particles
D)the amount of energy absorbed when an atom forms from its subatomic particles
Q3) <sup>1</sup><sup>35</sup>Nd <sup>24</sup>Mg + ______
Q4) The main problem nuclear reactors have when uranium-235 serves as the fuel is
A)the production of more neutrons that the reaction consumes
B)the production of gamma rays
C)the consumption of more alpha particles than the available alpha particles
D)the immense amount of energy produced
Q5) <sup>35</sup>Cl and <sup>37</sup>Cl are isotopes.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following formulas may be attributed to an alkyne?
A)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O
B)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O
C)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
D)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
Q2) The number of possible isomers of molecular C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub> is
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Q3) The IUPAC name of C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>4</sub> is ________.
A)propane
B)butene
C)propyne
D)propene
Q4) The formula C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O may be applicable to an aldehyde or a ketone.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) Teflon's monomer is ________.
A)tetrafluoroethane
B)tetrafluoroethene
C)tetrafluorooctane
D)tetrafluorobenzene
Q2) Lysine is considered an essential amino acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) DNA molecules contain "codes," from which proteins and other materials can eventually be synthesized.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DNA molecules, as found in human cells, are best described as:
A)a large, single-stranded molecule made of proteins.
B)a large, single-stranded molecule that contains phosphate groups, carbohydrate units, and bases from amino acids.
C)a polysaccharide.
D)a large, double-stranded molecule made of amino acids.
Q5) Construct the complementary strand of this piece of a DNA molecule: G T A C C T T G G T A A T T G
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