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Preparatory Chemistry is an introductory course designed to equip students with a foundational understanding of basic chemical principles and concepts. It covers essential topics such as atomic structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, and the properties of solutions. The course emphasizes problem-solving skills and laboratory techniques, providing students with the theoretical background and practical experience needed to succeed in subsequent college-level chemistry courses. This course is ideal for those who either have limited prior chemistry knowledge or wish to strengthen their skills before advancing to more complex studies in the discipline.
Recommended Textbook
Introductory Chemistry 6th Edition by Nivaldo J. Tro
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemists study the properties of substances and the particles that compose those substances.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is the definition of a scientific theory?
A)a brief statement that summarizes past observations and predicts future ones
B)a model that explains the underlying reasons for observations and laws
C)the equivalent of a scientific opinion which others may disagree with D)a method of learning that emphasizes reason as the way to understand the world
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) The phlogiston theory of combustion is still considered correct today.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The atomic theory explains why the law of conservation of mass is true.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) How many cm<sup>3</sup> are there in 2.5 m<sup>3</sup>?
A)2.5 × 10<sup>6</sup>
B)2.5 × 10<sup>-2</sup>
C)2.5 × 10<sup>2</sup>
D)2.5 × 10<sup>-6</sup>
E)none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) When the number 65.59 is rounded to contain 2 significant figures,it becomes 66.0.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The correct number of significant figures in the number 1.250100 is:
A)5
B)7
C)4
D)ambiguous
E)none of the above
Answer: B
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Q1) Skim milk is a heterogeneous mixture.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q2) How many joules are in 55.2 calories?
A)13,200
B)55,200
C)13.2
D)231
E)none of the above Answer: D
Q3) A compound is a substance that cannot be broken down into a simpler substance.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q4) A kelvin degree is the same size as a Celsius degree.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Q1) Identify the element that is a nonmetal,a gas,and has an elemental symbol that starts with the letter "A."
A)Ac
B)Ar
C)Au
D)Al
E)none of the above
Q2) The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom:
A)is called the atomic number.
B)is given the symbol "Z."
C)identifies the atom as a particular element.
D)is the same for all isotopes of an element.
E)all of the above
Q3) All elemental symbols are comprised of a two-letter abbreviation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) J.J.Thomson discovered the existence of protons.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Carbon is considered which of the following?
A)atomic element
B)molecular element
C)molecular compound
D)ionic compound
E)none of the above
Q2) The formula of a compound comprised of two nitrogen atoms and one oxygen atom should be written properly as ON<sub>2</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The properties of a compound are an average of the properties of the individual elements.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the formula mass of magnesium nitride?
A)38.32
B)90.65
C)100.95
D)116.33
E)none of the above
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Q1) One mole of chlorine gas has a mass of 35.45 grams.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One mole of oxygen gas has a mass of ________ g.
A)16.0
B)32.0
C)6.022 × 10<sup>23</sup>
D)8
E)none of the above
Q3) A 7.96 gram sample of silver reacts with oxygen to form 8.55 gram of the metal oxide.What is the formula of the oxide?
A)AgO
B)AgO<sub>2</sub>
C)Ag<sub>2</sub>O
D)Ag<sub>3</sub>O
E)none of the above
Q4) One mole of zinc contains 65.39 zinc atoms.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Evidence of a redox reaction is when one substance transfers protons to another substance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When a solution of MgCl<sub>2</sub> and one of AgNO<sub>3</sub> are mixed,the net ionic equation is:
A)Mg<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2Cl<sup>-</sup>(aq)+ 2Ag<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ 2NO<sub>3</sub><sup>- </sup>(aq) Mg<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>aq)+ 2AgCl(s)
B)Mg<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2Cl<sup>-</sup>(aq)+ 2Ag<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ 2NO<sub>3</sub><sup>- </sup>(aq) Mg(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> (aq)+ 2 AgCl(s)
C)Mg<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq) Mg(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(aq)
D)Cl<sup>-</sup>(aq)+ Ag<sup>+</sup>(aq) AgCl(s)
E)none of the above
Q3) Li<sup>+</sup>,Na<sup>+</sup>,K<sup>+</sup> and NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> compounds are soluble.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A 24.0 g sample of nitrogen gas reacts with an excess of hydrogen gas to give an actual yield of 3.85 g NH<sub>3</sub>.What is the percent yield for this reaction?
Reaction: N<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 3 H<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 NH<sub>3</sub>(g)
A)86.8%
B)73.6%
C)26.4%
D)13.2%
E)none of the above
Q2) How many grams of NO<sub>2</sub> are theoretically produced if we start with 1.20 moles of S and 9.90 moles of HNO<sub>3</sub>?
Reaction: S<sub> </sub>+ 6HNO<sub>3 </sub> H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> + 6NO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O
A)7.20
B)331
C)455
D)786
E)not enough information
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Q1) Which color of visible light has a wavelength in between that of blue and violet light?
A)green
B)yellow
C)red
D)indigo
E)none of the above
Q2) An accepted abbreviation format is to write an electron configuration that includes a noble gas symbol in brackets.If you were writing an electron configuration for a bromine atom,which elemental symbol would you place in the bracket?
A)He
B)Ne
C)Ar
D)Kr
E)Xe
Q3) Photons of ultraviolet radiation contain more energy than do photons of violet visible light.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following has a tetrahedral electron geometry and a trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry?
A)Br<sub>2</sub>O
B)GeH<sub>4</sub>
C)SO<sub>2</sub>
D)PF<sub>3</sub>
E)none of the above
Q2) The Lewis structure of oxygen should have 8 valence electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about Lewis structures is FALSE?
A)An octet is when an atom has 8 valence electrons.
B)A duet is a stable electron configuration for helium.
C)An ionic bond occurs when electrons are transferred.
D)A covalent bond occurs when electrons are shared.
E)All of the above statements are true.
Q4) Bonding theories are used to predict how atoms bond together to form molecules.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Suppose a chemical reaction generated a 50% nitrogen/50% oxygen (by volume)mixture of gas that had a total volume of 22.4 liters at STP.This gas sample is composed of:
A)1 mole of nitrogen and 1 mole of oxygen.
B)0.5 mole of nitrogen and 0.5 mole of oxygen.
C)50 mole of nitrogen and 50 mole of oxygen.
D)28 mole of nitrogen and 32 mole of oxygen.
E)none of the above
Q2) What is the final volume of a balloon that was initially 500.0 mL at 25°C and was then heated to 50°C?
A)461 mL
B)193 mL
C)1.00 L
D)542 mL
E)none of the above
Q3) As you increase temperature,you increase the average energy of the gas particles.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The heat of fusion for water is significantly more than the heat of vaporization for water because fusion requires complete separation of one molecule from another.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Solids usually have much greater densities than gases because molecules of a solid are much farther apart.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement below is false?
A)A hydrogen bond is the strongest of the intermolecular forces.
B)A hydrogen atom must be bonded directly to fluorine,oxygen,or nitrogen to exhibit hydrogen bonding.
C)The large electronegativity difference between hydrogen and an F,O,or N atom is essential for the formation of a hydrogen bond.
D)A hydrogen bond is only 2-5% the strength of a typical covalent bond.
E)none of the above
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Q1) What is the mass percent of a solution prepared by dissolving 18.9 grams of solid into 39.5 grams of water?
A)47.8%
B)58.4%
C)32.4%
D)The identity of the compound must be known.
E)none of the above
Q2) When preparing sodium hydroxide solution,it is best to use water that does not contain any dissolved carbon dioxide as it reacts with the sodium hydroxide.Removing the carbon dioxide can be accomplished by:
A)vigorously stirring the solution.
B)using water fresh out of the purification system.
C)boiling the water.
D)Nothing can be done to remove dissolved gases.
E)none of the above
Q3) The minor component in a solution is called the solvent.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A simple buffer can be prepared by mixing significant amounts of a weak acid and its conjugate base.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The salt that forms due to neutralization of phosphoric acid by calcium hydroxide has the formula Ca<sub>3</sub>P<sub>2</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A solution that has a pH of 8.5 is considered a weak base.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In which solution is the [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] less than 0.250 M?
A)0.250 M HC<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub> (aq)
B)0.250 M HF (aq)
C)0.250 M HCO<sub>2</sub> (aq)
D)all of these
E)none of these
Q5) The main component of vinegar is acetic acid.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens to the equilibrium position of an endothermic reaction when you remove heat?
A)shifts to the left
B)shifts to the right
C)does nothing
D)doubles
E)halves
Q2) For the reaction 2 A B,the equilibrium concentrations are as follows: [A] = 0.056 M and [B] = 0.12 M.Calculate the equilibrium constant (K<sub>eq</sub>)for the reaction.
A)2.6 × 10<sup>-2</sup>
B)0.26
C)2.1
D)38
E)none of the above
Q3) Adding heat to an exothermic reaction will cause the reaction to remain unchanged.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The oxidation number of Cr in Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub> <sup>2- </sup>is:
A)+2.
B)-2.
C)+7.
D)+6.
E)none of the above
Q2) The half-reaction 2 Br <sup>1-</sup> Br<sub>2</sub> + 2 e<sup>-</sup> is balanced with respect to mass but it is not balanced with respect to charge.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Alkaline batteries are used in automobiles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Electrons flowing through a wire is an example of electrical current.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The rusting of iron is an example of the process known as corrosion.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Distinguish between a galvanic (voltaic)cell and an electrolytic cell.
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Q1) Nuclear fusion:
A)requires intense temperatures that make it impossible to harness as an energy source with our current technology.
B)is the basis of the hydrogen bomb.
C)can be done but requires the detonation of a traditional fission bomb.
D)is a possible energy source of the future.
E)all of the above
Q2) Alpha particles have lower penetrating power than the other types of radioactive emissions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What happens to the mass number of a nucleus that emits a positron?
A)It remains the same.
B)It increases by one.
C)It decreases by one.
D)It increases by two.
E)It decreases by two.
Q4) Madam Curie discovered two new elements.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Combustion reactions always produce water and carbon monoxide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Alkanes contain double and single bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Even though the aromatic ring of the compound benzene can be drawn with alternating single and double bonds,all the carbon to carbon bonds are the same.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ethyl propanoate is a(n):
A)ether.
B)carboxylic acid.
C)ester.
D)ketone.
E)none of the above
Q5) Alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Biochemistry is the study of chemical substances and processes that occur in plants,animals and microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE about polysaccharides?
A)They are long chain structures containing large number of repeating monosaccharide units.
B)Starch,cellulose,and glycogen are polysaccharides.
C)Table sugar is a polysaccharide.
D)They break down to produce monosaccharides during digestion.
E)none of the above
Q3) Summarize the main features of the four categories of protein structure.
Q4) A section of DNA contains the bases ACGTC,so the correct sequence in the complementary strand is:
A)CATGA
B)UGCAG
C)TGCAG
D)GTACT
E)none of the above
Q5) What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?
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