Prenatal Development Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Prenatal Development is a comprehensive course that explores the biological, physical, and psychological processes occurring from conception through birth. Students will examine the stages of embryonic and fetal development, the influence of genetics and environmental factors, and the impact of maternal health on pregnancy outcomes. The course also covers critical periods of development, common prenatal complications, methods of prenatal assessment, and contemporary issues in prenatal care. By integrating current research and case studies, students gain a deeper understanding of how prenatal experiences shape growth and development, laying the foundation for lifelong health and well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Larsens Human Embryology 4th Edition by Gary C. Schoenwolf
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19 Chapters
247 Verified Questions
247 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which developmental signaling pathway is frequently mutated in patients with colon cancer?
A) FGF
B) WNT
C) SHH
D) BMP
E) PDGF
Answer: B
Q2) Which phase of embryogenesis is characterized by extensive cell rearrangements that result in formation of a multilayered embryo?
A) Organogenesis
B) Cleavage
C) Oogenesis
D) Spermatogenesis
E) Fertilization
F) Gastrulation
Answer: F
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Gametogenesis, Fertilization, and First Week
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Q1) The birth control pill acts by blocking which process?
A) Fertilization
B) Ovulation
C) Cleavage
D) Capacitation
E) Implantation
Answer: B
Q2) Formation of haploid spermatozoa occurs during which developmental event?
A) Spermiation
B) Capacitation
C) Spermatogenesis
D) Spermiogenesis
E) Fertilization
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Second Week: Becoming Bilaminar and Fully Implanting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old woman who tests positive on a home pregnancy test is later diagnosed with a complete hydatidiform mole.What is unusual about the chromosomes of complete moles?
A) All chromosomes are derived from the mother.
B) All chromosomes are derived from the father.
C) Roughly two-thirds of the chromosomes are derived from the mother.
D) 23 chromosomes are present.
E) 69 chromosomes are present.
Answer: B
Q2) A researcher inactivates the Sox17 gene in an animal model.As a result of this,one of the primary germ layers fails to form.What germ layer is most likely to be affected?
A) Ectoderm
B) Somatic mesoderm
C) Splanchnic mesoderm
D) Extraembryonic mesoderm
E) Endoderm
Answer: E
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5
Chapter 4: Third Week: Becoming Trilaminar and Establishing Body Axes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A boy is admitted to the hospital for an emergency appendectomy.During surgery it is noted that the inflamed appendix is located on the left side,rather than the right side,and that the patient has situs inversus viscerum totalis.Mutations in which gene are known to cause this condition in animal models?
A) Pitx2
B) Bmp4
C) Hoxd13
D) Chordin
E) Tbx3
Q2) A researcher inactivates Lefty1,a gene expressed in the anterior visceral endoderm of the mouse.What effect would inactivation of this gene have on the gastrula-stage embryo?
A) The epiblast becomes abnormally thickened throughout its cranial-caudal extent.
B) The primitive streak fails to form.
C) The endoderm fails to form.
D) The neural plate fails to form.
E) Extra primitive streaks form.
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Chapter 5: Fourth Week: Forming the Embryo
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Q1) A researcher knocks out a gene that is expressed in the mouse embryo during neurulation stages,but this gene is never expressed in the neuroepithelium (neural plate or neural tube).Hence,she is surprised when the resulting embryos form neural tube defects.What is the explanation for this?
A) All forces for neurulation are generated within the neural plate.
B) All forces for neurulation are generated in non-neural plate tissues.
C) Forces for neurulation are generated in both the neural plate and in surrounding tissues.
D) Neural tube defects are secondary to abnormal body folding, and the gene is likely expressed in the body folds.
E) Neural tube defects are not the result of gene activity, as they occur randomly regardless of where the knocked out gene is expressed
Q2) Omphalocele and gastroschisis are examples of which type of birth defect?
A) Anterior body wall defect
B) Neural tube defect
C) Urorectal septum defect
D) Buccopharyngeal membrane defect
E) Cloacal membrane defect
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Principles and Mechanisms of Morphogenesis and Dysmorphogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 4-year-old girl develops T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia.Which developmental signaling pathway is involved?
A) SHH
B) FGF
C) WNT
D) TGFBETA
E) NOTCH-DELTA
Q2) A child with craniosynostosis is diagnosed with Apert syndrome.The resident on call looks up Apert syndrome on the web and learns that it is caused by a specific growth factor receptor mutation.Which developmental signaling pathway uses this receptor?
A) SHH
B) FGF
C) WNT
D) TGFBETA
E) NOTCH-DELTA
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Chapter 7: Fetal Development and the Fetus As Patient
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Q1) A developing fetus is diagnosed with congenital adrenal hyperplasia.What treatment would be appropriate for this condition?
A) Administer folic acid to the mother.
B) Administer propranolol to the mother.
C) Administer cyanocobalamin to the mother.
D) Do a fetal blood transfusion.
E) Administer dexamethasone to the mother.
Q2) A 40-year-old pregnant woman undergoes quadruple maternal serum screening to determine the likelihood that her unborn child has certain birth defects.How does the quadruple test differ from the triple test?
A) The quadruple test also measures hCG.
B) The quadruple test also measures Inhibin-A.
C) The quadruple test also measures estriol.
D) The quadruple test also measures testosterone.
E) The quadruple test also measures AFP.
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Chapter 8: Development of the Skin and Its Derivatives
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phase of hair cell growth is the resting phase?
A) Anagen
B) Catagen
C) Exogen
D) Telogen
Q2) The skin consists of several definitive layers that are characterized by the differential expression of different types of keratin involved in the maturation and differentiation of the skin.In which layer are the keratins K5 and K14 found?
A) Stratum granulosum
B) Stratum corneum
C) Stratum germinativum
D) Stratum spinosum
E) Periderm
Q3) Shh signaling is important for the development of the skin and many of its appendages.What is the main cellular mechanism by which Shh controls development of the ectodermal appendages?
A) Cell survival
B) Cell proliferation
C) Cell adhesion
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Chapter 9: Development of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the limb myogenic precursors migrate into the limb,they are bipotential; that is,they are not yet committed to the myogenic lineage and can give rise to another cell lineage.What is this other cell lineage?
A) Schwann cells
B) Smooth muscle cells
C) Chondrocytes
D) Osteoblasts
E) Osteoclasts
F) Endothelial cells
Q2) The vertebrae are patterned by the Hox complex of transcription factors,which are expressed in nested domains along the cranial-caudal axis.How would gain of Hox function be expected to affect the developing vertebrae?
A) Cranialize them.
B) Caudalize them.
Q3) Butterfly vertebrae are characteristic of which syndrome?
A) Alagille syndrome
B) Spondylocostal dysostosis
C) Klippel-Feil anomaly
D) VATER/VACTERL
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Development of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old woman suffers a stroke after a drug overdose that causes localized damage to the brain stem special somatic afferent column on one side.Sensation from which structure(s) will be compromised?
A) Skin
B) Taste buds
C) Nonstriated muscle
D) Inner ear
E) Somatic striated muscle
Q2) A 3-year-old boy with spina bifida develops hydrocephalus.What is the likely cause of this?
A) Blockage of the subarachnoid space
B) Enlargement of the choroid plexus
C) Constriction of the foramen magnum
D) Blockage of the median or lateral apertures
E) Degeneration of the choroid plexus
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12
Chapter 11: Development of the Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) A child is diagnosed with congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis.The receptor for which growth factor is mutated in this condition?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) Transforming growth factor beta
C) Scatter factor
D) Fibroblast growth factor
E) Nerve growth factor
Q2) Hereditary peripheral neuropathies,such as Charcot-Marie-Tooth hereditary neuropathy,involve nerve demyelination.What cell type myelinates peripheral nerves during development?
A) Schwann cells
B) Oligodendrocytes
C) Astrocytes
D) Chromaffin cells
E) Endothelial cells
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13
Chapter 12: Development of the Respiratory System and Body Cavities
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Q1) A medical student is confused when learning that the muscle of the diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerves,based on the level of origin of these nerves from the CNS.What is the explanation of how this innervation occurs during embryogenesis?
A) The phrenic nerves arise in the cervical region in association with the septum transversum and cervical myotomes, and as the myotomes migrate more caudally, they carry their innervation with them.
B) The muscle of the diaphragm arise late in development and cannot grow back to the thoracic spinal cord because the spinal nerves have already formed at this level, so they grow more cranially to the cervical region.
C) The thoracic nerves initially supplying the diaphragm die during development and are replaced by new nerves that grow from the cervical region.
D) The muscle of the diaphragm arises from the thoracic myotomes but secretes a chemoattractant that specifically attracts cervical spinal nerves.
E) The muscle of the diaphragm arises from the thoracic myotomes but secretes a chemorepellent that specifically repels thoracic spinal nerves.
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Chapter 13: Development of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heart chamber specification is dependent on the loss,gain,or limited expression of several transcription factors.What pattern of expression supports specification and formation of the right ventricle?
A) Loss of expression of Tbx5 within the primary heart field
B) Loss of expression of Irx4 within the cranial portion of the primary heart field
C) Restricted expression of RALDH-2 to the cranial portion of primary heart field
D) Continued expression of Isl1 and Tbx1 within the secondary heart field
Q2) Why is the cardiogenic area limited to the lateral plate mesoderm?
A) Because Bmp released from the overlying ectoderm restricts Gata4 expression to lateral plate mesoderm.
B) Because Chordin released from the notochord limits Bmp signaling to the more lateral mesoderm.
C) Because Nkx2.5 expression is restricted to paraxial mesoderm.
D) Because Wnt signaling stimulates Bmp release from the overlying ectoderm.
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Chapter 14: Development of the Vasculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient needs a pacemaker,and the cardiologist plans to run the pacemaker electrode into the right atrium via the left subclavian vein.As the cardiologist monitors the placement of the catheter using angiography,he discovers that the catheter will not enter the superior vena cava.Rather,it enters the coronary sinus and then the right atrium.How is this possible?
A) Right supracardinal venous system did not regress during development.
B) Patient has a left superior vena cava.
C) Patient has a patent foramen ovale.
D) Ligamentum venosum failed to close.
E) Patient has a patent ductus arteriosus.
Q2) What embryonic structure(s) form the right subclavian artery?
A) Aortic arch 3 and dorsal aorta
B) Only the seventh intersegmental artery
C) Aortic arch 6 and dorsal aorta
D) Aortic arch 4, dorsal aorta, and seventh intersegmental artery
E) Aortic arch 3 and the seventh intersegmental artery
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Chapter 15: Development of the Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endodermal contact with the notochord during early GI development is essential for the development of what organ?
A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Anorectal sphincter
D) Gallbladder
Q2) A 2-year-old male infant is crying because of abdominal pain.Recently,he also began producing bloody stools.Barium enema and x-ray imaging show a bowel obstruction and intestinal ulceration in the ileum about 2 feet proximal to the ileocecal junction.What is the likely diagnosis?
A) Meckel's diverticulum
B) Hirschsprung's disease
C) Omphalocele
D) Umbilical hernia
Q3) What structure gives rise to the greater omentum?
A) Ventral mesogastrium
B) Dorsal mesogastrium
C) Transverse mesocolon
D) Septum transversum
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Chapter 16: Development of the Urogenital System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What renal structure arises via a mesenchymal-to-epithelial transition?
A) The nephron
B) Glomerular capillaries
C) The collecting tubules
D) The major and minor calyxes
Q2) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 F.-REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
Q3) What gene is thought to be a direct downstream target of SRY expression?
A) SOX9
B) WF1
C) AMH
D) DESERT HEDGEHOG
E) WNT4
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Development of the Pharyngeal Apparatus and Face
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by which nerve?
A) Trigeminal
B) Vagus
C) Facial
D) Glossopharyngeal
E) Oculomotor
Q2) A child is diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome due to a 22q11.2.1 deletion encompassing approximately 30 to 40 genes.Researchers have genetically inactivated these genes in mice to identify which are essential for pharyngeal arch development.Which two genes in the deleted area are now thought to be the key players in DiGeorge syndrome?
A) PAX9 and PAX1
B) TBX1 and CRKl
C) ENDOTHELIN 1 and FGF10
D) DLX5 and -6
Q3) The third pharyngeal pouches lie between which pharyngeal arches?
A) First and second
B) Second and third
C) Third and fourth
D) Fourth and sixth
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Development of the Ears and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cristae detect which modality?
A) Sound vibrations
B) Gravity
C) Linear acceleration
D) Angular acceleration
Q2) Microtia/anotia can be associated with other birth defects as a component of a syndrome.What percentage of children with microtia/anotia would be expected to have additional congenital abnormalities?
A) 5%-10%
B) 10%-20%
C) 20%-40%
D) 50%-80%
E) Essentially 100%
Q3) The prosensory region in the saccule forms which structure(s)?
A) Cristae
B) Organ of Corti
C) Maculae
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20
Chapter 19: Development of the Limbs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations in the transcription factor p63 (also known as TP73L) in humans can affect the development of the limbs.What is the phenotype of the limbs when this gene is mutated?
A) Amelia
B) Meromelia
C) Syndactyly
D) Polydactyly
E) Split hand/foot
Q2) The term arachnodactyly specifically refers to which defect?
A) Absence of the entire limb
B) Absence of part of the stylopod
C) Presence of extra digits
D) Fusion of digits
E) Absence of one or more digits
F) Elongation of the digits
Q3) Which region of the developing limb specifies the cranial-caudal axis of the developing limb bud?
A) AER
B) ZPA
C) Dorsal ectoderm
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