

Prehospital Trauma Life Support Test
Bank
Course Introduction
Prehospital Trauma Life Support is a comprehensive course designed to equip healthcare professionals, first responders, and emergency medical personnel with the latest principles and practices for the rapid assessment, management, and transportation of trauma patients in prehospital settings. The course emphasizes systematic approaches to trauma care, prioritizing airway management, bleeding control, shock recognition, rapid intervention, and efficient communication within trauma teams. Students will gain hands-on experience through simulations and case studies, building competence in identifying life-threatening conditions and executing evidence-based protocols to optimize trauma patient outcomes before arriving at definitive care facilities.
Recommended Textbook
Prehospital Emergency Care 10th Edition by Joseph J. Mistovich
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
48 Chapters
2835 Verified Questions
2835 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2143

Page 2
Chapter 1: Emergency Medical Care Systems, Research, and Public Health
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42685
Sample Questions
Q1) You would recognize that the functions of a state EMS agency include:
A) determination of the number of EMRs, EMTs, AEMTs, and paramedics.
B) review of patient care reports (PCRs) to ensure proper care.
C) regulation of statewide Emergency Medical Services system.
D) encourage fair wages for the different levels of EMS providers.
Answer: C
Q2) Which statement made by an EMT indicates understanding of the underlying benefit of using evidence-based medicine?
A) Formulates emergency care guidelines that have been reviewed by the legal community
B) Improves patient care while simultaneously reducing the costs associated with EMS
C) Provides for legal representation in the quality improvement process
D) Allows the use of research and evidence in determining what care is effective
Answer: D
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3

Chapter 2: Workforce Safety and Wellness of the Emt
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42686
Sample Questions
Q1) You are accidentally stuck with a needle used to administer a medication to a patient with a known history of hepatitis B. You have already completed your hepatitis B vaccine series. In this case, which of the following statements is true?
A) You have complete protection from hepatitis B and no further action is needed.
B) You have two weeks from the time of exposure to start medical care for a potential infection.
C) You will have to get another series of three vaccines to give you protection in the future.
D) You need to report the needle stick to your supervisor as soon as possible.
Answer: D
Q2) After a particularly disturbing call the previous day, your partner is unusually angry and having a difficult time concentrating on his work. What type of stress reaction would you be suspicious of?
A) Acute stress reaction
B) Post-traumatic stress reaction
C) Physical stress reaction
D) Cumulative stress reaction
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42687
Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding an EMT's duty to act, the relationship between an EMT and patient starts:
A) once the EMT is dispatched to the call.
B) once the EMT makes physical contact with the patient.
C) once the patient consents to be treated.
D) once the EMT begins to provide physical care.
Answer: B
Q2) A young male patient has suffered a gunshot wound to the head. Realizing that there is little chance for survival, the EMT notes that the patient is a potential organ donor. The patient is unresponsive and breathing four times a minute on scene. You are providing positive pressure ventilation. En route to the hospital, the patient stops breathing and loses a pulse. Since the patient is a potential organ donor, the EMT should:
A) stop any and all resuscitation measures.
B) provide the same resuscitation as for a person who is not an organ donor.
C) ventilate the patient but not provide chest compressions.
D) perform CPR but not use the automated external defibrillator.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Documentation
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42688
Sample Questions
Q1) You have transported a confused 46-year-old male who overdosed on an unknown drug to a busy emergency department. After giving an oral report to the ED nurse, your partner informs you that he wants to hurry back to the station so that he can watch the end of the football game; therefore, he is going to complete the patient care report (PCR) at a later time. How should you respond?
A) "Make sure that you give the nurse the telephone number to the station so she can call if there are any questions about the patient or our care."
B) "If you do not complete and leave the PCR, the ED staff may not otherwise have access to information contained in the PCR."
C) "You really need to complete it before we leave. The hospital will not be able to get the patient's insurance information without the PCR."
D) "If you do not leave the PCR, the emergency department staff will not know how to treat the patient."
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Chapter 5: Communication
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42689
Sample Questions
Q1) You pull up to the scene of a one-car motor vehicle collision and find a physician treating the patient. Which one of the following is the best way to initially communicate with the doctor?
A) "Thank you, doctor, you can go now; we will take over."
B) "Hello, we are EMTs. How can we help you, doctor?"
C) "We will be in the ambulance if you need us."
D) "The law requires you to let us handle the situation."
Q2) As you drive lights and sirens to the hospital with a critical patient, the paramedic asks you to notify the receiving hospital since he is busy caring for the patient. He tells you to specifically let the emergency department know that the patient's blood sugar is 15 mg/dL (very low). There is no history of diabetes. Of the following reports, which is best?
A) " be advised that the blood sugar is 15 that is one-five mg/dL"
B) " the blood sugar is 15 be advised that the paramedic, not I, checked the blood sugar"
C) " the patient is not a diabetic but has a very low blood sugar"
D) " we have a blood sugar that is 15 I think that the patient is very critical"
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Chapter 6: Lifting and Moving Patients
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42690
Sample Questions
Q1) You are moving a critically injured patient to a helicopter for rapid transport to a trauma center. The rotors are spinning so that the aircraft can immediately take off. As team leader, what instruction would you provide?
A) "Let's get many people around the backboard so we can safely load him into the aircraft."
B) "I need someone to hold the IV bag in the air while we load so he continues to get IV fluids."
C) "Will someone please lay the O tank on the patient's legs so he continues to get oxygen as we load?"
D) "Will someone please securely cover the patient's eyes so that they are not struck with flying dirt?"
Q2) When you must push an object, it is important to:
A) push using muscles between your waist and shoulders.
B) push from an overhead position.
C) keep your elbows straight and locked.
D) push with your arms away from your body.
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Chapter 7: Anatomy, Physiology, and Medical Terminology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42691
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following should the EMT expect when administering epinephrine to a patient?
A) Slowing of the heart rate
B) Increased blood pressure
C) Labored breathing
D) Generalized weakness
Q2) A patient has suffered a burn to the skin. Based on the function of the skin, which condition is he more susceptible to?
A) Infection
B) Fluid overload
C) Heart problems
D) Endocrine disorders
Q3) After you apply and use the automated external defibrillator, a patient regains his pulse and has adequate respirations. The paramedic asks you to place the patient in a lateral recumbent position. How should you position this patient?
A) On his back
B) On his left side
C) On his stomach
D) Supine with head turned left
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Page 9

Chapter 8: Pathophysiology
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42692
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following would most likely cause a patient to have a simple episode of syncope (fainting)?
A) Increase in systemic vascular resistance
B) Parasympathetic stimulation
C) Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
D) Sudden release of norepinephrine
Q2) Which one of the following conditions would most likely account for an elevated carbon dioxide level in a patient's body?
A) Renal failure
B) Lung disease
C) Liver injury
D) Endocrine stem dysfunction
Q3) The EMT is administering oxygen at 95% through a nonrebreathing face mask. He would document this as a FiO of:
A) 0.21.
B) 0.50.
C) 0.95.
D) 1.00.
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Chapter 9: Life Span Development
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42693
Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing a sick 3-week-old baby, which finding would be most concerning?
A) Fontanelle level with the skull
B) Soft spot to the top of the head
C) Mucus occluding both nares
D) Rectal temperature of 99.4 F
Q2) You are enroute to a home for an 8-year-old with "noisy" breathing and a cough. As you respond, which of the following pieces of advice would you give your partner, a new EMT?
A) "We will need to be careful. Children of this age group tend to throw tantrums, and we could get hurt if we are not careful."
B) "The scene probably will be chaotic, so let's just get the patient out to the ambulance and assess him there."
C) "Although most children of this age are trusting of authority, let's approach slowly and make the scene work for us."
D) "Most children in this age group have a short attention span, so we need to assess him as quickly as possible."
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11

Chapter 10: Airway Management, Artificial Ventilation, and Oxygenation
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42694
Sample Questions
Q1) Your medical director is holding an in-service focusing on the prehospital management of adult patients with respiratory complaints. He asks the group to explain how they can determine if the patient is breathing adequately. Which one of the following responses is most appropriate?
A) "A patient is breathing adequately if the depth of breathing is shallow, but the rate is increased above normal."
B) "Checking the patient's breath sounds with a stethoscope is the best way to determine if a patient's breathing is adequate."
C) "For an adult patient to be breathing adequately, the rate should be within 8 to 24 breaths per minute with a full chest rise with each breath."
D) "The EMT can assume breathing is adequate if the patient has an open airway and a normal respiratory rate."
Q2) The EMT is correctly performing the jaw-thrust airway maneuver when she:
A) places her hands on the side of the patient's head and lifts the jaw upward. B) maintains the head in a neutral position and slightly tilts the head backward. C) opens the airway by slightly extending the head and thrusting the jaw upward. D) places one hand on the forehead and lifts the jaw upward with her other hand.
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Page 12

Chapter 11: Baseline Vital Signs, Monitoring Devices, and History Taking
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123 Verified Questions
123 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42695
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement made by your partner indicates that he understands assessment of a patient's breathing?
A) "As long as the patient is breathing over 20 times a minute, he is getting enough oxygen in his body."
B) "If the respiratory rate is normal, the patient is breathing adequately and getting enough oxygen."
C) "A rate less than 8 may allow adequate breathing, but requires further evaluation and assessment."
D) "To determine if a patient is adequately breathing, the EMT must get a full set of vital signs."
Q2) A blood pressure is reported as 116/68 mmHg. Which one of the following is true?
A) The systolic blood pressure is 116 mmHg.
B) The top number reflects the diastolic blood pressure.
C) The systolic pressure is determined by subtracting 68 from 116.
D) The diastolic blood pressure is 116 mmHg.
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Chapter 12: Scene Size-Up
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42696
Sample Questions
Q1) Dispatch has sent you to a residence for a female with a possible broken arm. On scene you find her seated in a chair holding her left arm. Her arm appears deformed and she has blood and bruises on her face. She tells you that an intruder, who she believes lives in her neighborhood, broke into her home and robbed her. Prior to fleeing, he beat her, leaving her as you find her. With this information, you would immediately:
A) leave the patient and scene and wait in the ambulance until the police arrive.
B) determine the identity of the intruder and contact and direct the police to his location.
C) assess the patient, provide basic care, and contact law enforcement.
D) recognize a crime scene and not touch the patient to avoid altering any evidence.
Q2) When would an EMT enter the scene of a crime to provide care to the patient?
A) When an additional crew arrives on scene
B) When all hazards have been addressed
C) When the police return their guns to their holsters
D) When the dispatcher informs the crew to enter
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Chapter 13: Patient Assessment
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42697
Sample Questions
Q1) You are assessing an 8-month-old whose mother states has been vomiting for two days and not eating or drinking. When assessing the pulse, you should check which site?
A) Temporal
B) Radial
C) Femoral
D) Brachial
Q2) An EMT is assessing a 9-month-old infant who is "not acting right" per his mother. Assessment reveals him to be extremely irritable, crying weakly, and shows he does not want to be touched by the EMT. Which one of the following best describes this infant's mental status?
A) Alert
B) Lethargic
C) Verbal
D) Crying
Q3) The "S" in SAMPLE stands for:
A) Significance
B) Severity
C) Sign
D) Seriousness
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Page 15

Chapter 14: Pharmacology Medication and Administration
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42698
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best indication for the administration of oral glucose to a diabetic patient?
A) Chest pain
B) Low blood sugar
C) Diabetic history
D) Headache
Q2) Which of the following is one of the five rights of medication administration?
A) Right dose
B) Right EMT
C) Right allergies
D) Right physician
Q3) A patient with difficulty breathing has a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which of the following medications is the MDI most likely to contain?
A) Albuterol
B) Steroids
C) Oxygen
D) Magnesium
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Chapter 15: Shock and Resuscitation
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42699
Sample Questions
Q1) Within two minutes of going into cardiac arrest, an AED is applied, the patient is shocked, and a pulse is restored. The EMT should recognize that the heart was in:
A) ventricular fibrillation and now is in cardiac arrest.
B) asystole and now is in an organized rhythm.
C) ventricular fibrillation and now is in an organized rhythm.
D) ventricular fibrillation and now is in asystole.
Q2) After you apply the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, it delivered a shock. Immediately after the shock, the EMT should do which one of the following?
A) Check the patient for a pulse and reanalyze the rhythm if no pulse is present.
B) Provide 2 minutes of CPR, and then check the patient for a pulse.
C) Check the patient for a pulse and start CPR if no pulse can be located.
D) Provide five cycles of single-rescuer CPR with a ratio of 15 compressions to two ventilations.
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17
Chapter 16: Respiratory Emergencies
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42700
Sample Questions
Q1) As you enter the living room of an adult patient who called 911 for shortness of breath, you observe the patient sitting upright in a chair with a panicked look on her face, struggling to breathe. Her breathing rate appears to be fast and tidal volume poor. You can hear rhonchi from her lungs without the aid of a stethoscope. Once at her side, you initial care should be to:
A) apply oxygen immediately.
B) auscultate lung sounds.
C) establish her rate of breathing.
D) assess her airway.
Q2) You are assisting a patient in taking her metered-dose inhaler for the first time. Which one of the following statements about the side effects of the medication would be most appropriate?
A) "You will probably not even remember taking the medication."
B) "You may feel anxious and your heart rate may increase."
C) "You may experience a runny nose and increase in saliva."
D) "The medication may cause you to become very tired and fatigued."
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18
Chapter 17: Cardiovascular Emergencies
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42701
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding cardiac compromise or acute coronary syndrome should the EMT recognize as true?
A) Cardiac compromise should be suspected for any patient with chest discomfort.
B) Patients suffering from acute coronary syndrome will have pain, not discomfort.
C) If the pain does not radiate to the arms, then the cause is not typically the heart.
D) The onset of acute coronary syndrome typically occurs with physical activity.
Q2) An alert and oriented patient presents with shortness of breath, crackles in both lungs, jugular venous distention, and edema to the feet and ankles. Her pulse is 132, respirations 26, blood pressure 160/86, and SpO at 88%. Based on this, the EMT should suspect:
A) left ventricular failure.
B) hypertensive emergency.
C) right ventricular failure.
D) congestive heart failure.
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19

Chapter 18: Altered Mental Status, Stroke, and Headache
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42702
Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is unresponsive. Which piece of information given to you by the patient's family is most important to the EMT in relation to a possible stroke?
A) "He forgot to take his blood thinner last night."
B) "We think that he had too much to drink last night."
C) "We noticed him acting oddly about 7 p.m."
D) "He took some ibuprofen last night for a fever and cough."
Q2) Which one of the following questions would the EMT ask when performing the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen?
A) "Do you take blood thinners?"
B) "Is your hand grip weak?"
C) "Do you smoke cigarettes?"
D) "Have you ever had a seizure?"
Q3) When performing a secondary assessment on an elderly male who is confused and combative, what assessment finding should be of most concern to the EMT?
A) Respirations of 20 per minute
B) Pulse of 164 beats per minute
C) Bruising to the back of the hand
D) Pulse oximeter reading of 94% on room air
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Chapter 19: Seizures and Syncope
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42703
Sample Questions
Q1) An 86-year-old male has had a sudden change in mental status and is repeatedly striking a fist against his leg. When you question him, he does not respond. This presentation is most consistent with what condition?
A) Seizure
B) Dementia
C) Stroke
D) Delirium
Q2) The initial part of a generalized seizure experienced by some patients is called the: A) syncopal stage.
B) aura.
C) clonic phase.
D) postictal state.
Q3) Status epilepticus is best differentiated from a generalized seizure by the: A) duration of the seizure.
B) length of the postictal period.
C) presence of an aura prior to seizing.
D) preexisting seizure history.
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21

Chapter 20: Acute Diabetic Emergencies
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64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42704
Sample Questions
Q1) Medical direction has ordered you to administer one dose of oral glucose to a diabetic patient with confusion. Which one of the following actions describes what you should do?
A) Repeat and question the order to medical direction.
B) Place half the contents of the tube of glucose in the patient's mouth.
C) Carefully administer the entire tube of glucose.
D) Have the patient swallow all of the glucose in the tube.
Q2) You determine a patient's blood glucose level to be 289 mg/dL. You document this result on the prehospital care report as:
A) normal.
B) hyperglycemic.
C) depressed.
D) hypoglycemic.
Q3) The most common complaint of a diabetic patient for which EMS is summoned is:
A) desire for sugary foods.
B) difficulty breathing.
C) altered mental status.
D) nausea and vomiting.
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22

Chapter 21: Anaphylactic Reactions
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42705
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient informs you that any time she is exposed to a particular soap, she experiences a mild allergic reaction. As a knowledgeable EMT, you should recognize that:
A) the soap contains an antigen.
B) the patient's airway will swell shut if she inhales the soap.
C) the soap contains antibodies that react in the patient's body.
D) she must have been exposed to the soap as an infant.
Q2) A patient has just taken her first dose of Zocor for her high cholesterol. Within minutes, she begins to develop hives, shortness of breath, and low blood pressure. In this case, the EMT would recognize a/an:
A) sensitized immune response.
B) anaphylaxis.
C) hypersensitivity reaction.
D) anaphylactoid reaction.
Q3) Within the body, the release of histamine would cause dilation of the:
A) blood vessels.
B) small airways.
C) upper airway.
D) salivary glands.
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23

Chapter 22: Toxicologic Emergencies
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42706
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called for a 41-year-old female who is confused. Her husband states that she is an alcoholic who has been in and out of rehab for the past five years. Assessment reveals her airway to be open and breathing adequate. Her pulse is regular and strong. Which of the following findings would cause the EMT to classify and treat this patient as a high priority?
A) Blood pressure 108/72 mmHg and complaint of nausea
B) Smell of alcohol on breath and complaint of headache
C) Complaint of nausea with a temperature of 101.6°F
D) Irritable and uncooperative with your effort to treat her
Q2) A 42-year-old female is lying in bed with anxiety after smoking some bath salts. As you enter the bedroom, which of the following poses the greatest danger to rescuers, given the nature of this medication?
A) Respiratory burns from vapors
B) Fumes from the drugs
C) Patient aggression
D) Potential explosion from materials
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Chapter 23: Abdominal, Hematologic, Gynecologic,
Genitourinary, and Renal Emergencies
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42707
Sample Questions
Q1) You are treating a woman with heavy vaginal bleeding. When estimating the blood loss, which of the following will be most useful to the EMT?
A) Length of time the patient has been bleeding
B) Total number of sanitary napkins used
C) If associated with abdominal pain the bleeding is considered heavy
D) Examination of the present color and rate of bleeding
Q2) You are responding to a patient with a complication related to her chronic ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Based on this description, the paramedic would anticipate which of the following?
A) Catheter placed in the neck
B) Dialysis port in the chest
C) Catheter placed in the abdomen
D) Dialysis graft in either arm
Q3) Which of the following assessment findings would increase the EMT's suspicion of a gastrointestinal bleed?
A) Sudden onset of constipation
B) Watery and foul-smelling diarrhea
C) Black semiformed stool
D) Sharp left lower quadrant pain
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Chapter 24: Environmental Emergencies
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42708
Sample Questions
Q1) Medical direction has ordered you to begin rewarming an unresponsive patient with a core temperature of 93°F. Which one of the following measures would best benefit this patient?
A) Give him warm fluids to drink to increase internal body temperature.
B) Gently massage the patient's arms and legs.
C) Wrap the patient in several warm blankets.
D) Place one extremity at a time in warm water.
Q2) You have been called for a 78-year-old female who slipped while getting out of her bathtub. She is confused and cold to the touch. You learn that she slipped 24 hours ago and has been on the tile bathroom floor ever since. Since it is summer, she also had her air conditioner running on high. The EMT would best categorize this emergency as:
A) external urban hypothermia caused by a medical complaint.
B) generalized hyperthermia caused by convection.
C) internal urban hypothermia with heat loss caused by conduction.
D) localized external hypothermia caused by immobility.
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26

Chapter 25: Submersion Incidents: Drowning and Diving Emergencies
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42709
Sample Questions
Q1) While at a public pool obtaining a refusal from a patient who was stung by a bee, you hear screaming. Patrons are waving you over to a 13-year-old boy who hit the diving board with his head while diving and is now in the water motionless. The lifeguard is in the water and informs you that the patient's eyes are open and he is breathing with a pulse, but not talking. Which one of the following should you do next?
A) Instruct the lifeguard to carefully float the boy to the side of the pool so you can assess and immobilize him.
B) Have the lifeguard quickly remove the patient from the pool so assessment and emergency medical care can be given.
C) Position the boy upright against the lifeguard with in-line spinal precautions observed during removal from the pool.
D) Pass a cervical collar and long board into the water to immobilize the patient prior to extrication from the water.
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Chapter 26: Behavioral Emergencies
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42710
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following patients is the EMT justified in restraining?
A) Patient with severe depression and refusing transport
B) Patient stating that he wants to kill himself and desires transport to the hospital
C) Patient threatening to kill himself and his wife and trying to leave the scene
D) Patient with unpredictable violent outbursts but at the present time is calm
Q2) When on the scene of a patient who has attempted suicide, which of the following is the most immediate priority?
A) Preserving evidence
B) Crew safety
C) Assessing life-threatening conditions
D) Patient safety and well-being
Q3) You have arrived on the scene where a depressed patient is crying in an upstairs bedroom. When assessing her, which one of the following must be done first?
A) Obtain vital signs.
B) Determine the patient's medications.
C) Check a radial pulse.
D) Assess her for suicide risk.
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Chapter 27: Trauma Overview: the Trauma Patient and the
Trauma System
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42711
Sample Questions
Q1) Assessment of a patient involved in a motor vehicle accident reveals him to have crepitus to the left humerus, instability to the left lateral chest wall and flank, and pain on palpation to left hip region. He also complains of pain to the right side of the neck. Based on this injury pattern, the EMT would recognize the patient was:
A) an unrestrained driver involved in a head-on collision.
B) the passenger in a car hit from behind.
C) an unrestrained occupant in a car struck from the side.
D) the driver of a car hit on the driver's side.
Q2) The EMT understands the importance of evaluating the mechanism of injury when he states:
A) "The mechanism of injury is useful in determining the exact injuries the patient has sustained."
B) "Evaluating the mechanism of injury is important since it determines whether emergency transport to the hospital is needed."
C) "The mechanism of injury is a useful tool in determining if the patient's outcome will be good or bad."
D) "The mechanism of injury can be used to guide your assessment and treatment of the patient."
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29

Chapter 28: Bleeding and Soft Tissue Trauma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42712
Sample Questions
Q1) An alert and oriented patient has had a portion of his hand amputated by a table saw. Assessment reveals the patient to be in great pain with a moderate amount of dark red blood still coming from the injury site. His airway is open and his breathing is fast, but adequate. The radial pulse is rapid and strong, and his skin is warm and dry. The patient's hand has been placed in a bag of ice by coworkers. Which one of the following should the EMT do immediately?
A) Insert a nasopharyngeal airway.
B) Remove the amputated part from the ice.
C) Control the bleeding with direct pressure.
D) Obtain a full set of vital signs.
Q2) A patient has had part of his right thumb amputated in an industrial accident. Coworkers have retrieved the thumb and wrapped it in a towel. The EMT demonstrates appropriate handling of the amputated part when he:
A) places the thumb in ice water.
B) keeps the thumb warm during transport.
C) places the thumb in sterile saline.
D) wraps it in a dry sterile dressing.
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Chapter 29: Burns
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42713
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement made by the EMT indicates an understanding of calculating the body surface area (BSA) burned?
A) "The BSA can be quickly estimated before evaluating the status of the airway and breathing."
B) "Determining the BSA is an estimation and should never delay transport of the burn patient to the hospital."
C) "It is important to get an accurate estimation of the BSA burned since this will affect the care provided by the EMT."
D) "It is better to underestimate the BSA of a burn patient rather than overestimate the BSA."
Q2) Your patient is a 27-year-old male who fell down a full flight of stairs while escaping his burning apartment. What assessment finding should demand your immediate attention?
A) Tenderness to the right upper abdominal quadrant
B) Full-thickness burn on the hands
C) Burns on the face
D) Deformity of the left wrist
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Chapter 30: Musculoskeletal Trauma and Nontraumatic
Fractures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42714
Sample Questions
Q1) A vacuum splint has just been applied to the arm of a patient who fell backward from a chair while hanging drapes. Which one of the following statements or questions should the EMT make or ask next?
A) "I am going to feel your wrist for a pulse now."
B) "Can you rate your pain for me?"
C) "I need to feel your arm for tenderness."
D) "I am wrapping the splint with roller gauze to secure it."
Q2) Which one of the following statements shows that an EMT understands field care of a patient with a possible joint dislocation?
A) "If a joint injury is suspected, ice packs and not splints are indicated."
B) "The care for a patient with a joint injury is identical to that of a fracture."
C) "If a distal pulse is absent, three attempts to straighten the joint can be made."
D) "Warm packs, not cold packs, are indicated for a patient with a possible joint injury."
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Chapter 31: Head Trauma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42715
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman strikes her forehead against the dashboard of her car as it strikes a tree. Immediately following the impact, her brain bounces back and forth within her skull.
Based on the anatomy and physiology of the skull, which of the following is true?
A) The ridges of the basilar skull can damage the brain as it shifts back and forth.
B) The frontal bone is the thinnest portion of the skull and will most likely be fractured.
C) Her brain will not be injured unless an object from the dashboard penetrates her skull.
D) Her brain will most likely not be damaged since the skull's flexibility is designed to absorb the force of the impact.
Q2) You are assessing a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the head. Which would be most indicative of the loss of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
A) Red-tinged fluid in the ear canal
B) Light bruising around both eyes
C) Clear fluid coming from the nose
D) Dark bruising on the forehead
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Chapter 32: Spinal Column and Spinal Cord Trauma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42716
Sample Questions
Q1) When performing the secondary assessment, what sign is most suggestive of a spinal cord injury?
A) Pain in the right leg
B) Headache and nausea
C) Bruising on the back
D) Persistent penile erection
Q2) What area of the spinal cord is most commonly injured?
A) Cervical spine
B) Thoracic spine
C) Lumbar spine
D) Sacral spine
Q3) A 42-year-old man has called 911 because of severe back pain. He informs you that his back pain is related to a recent fracture of his coccyx. Based on this information, where should the EMT expect the patient to be complaining of pain?
A) Neck
B) Upper back
C) Pelvic area
D) Lower back
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34
Chapter 33: Eye, Face, and Neck Trauma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42717
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient complains of pain and discomfort to the left eye after being hit in the face with a cloud of dust while working at a manufacturing complex. As you specifically assess the eye, you note some redness to the globe but do not see any obvious foreign object. The most appropriate care you can provide to this patient would be:
A) covering both eyes with a bandage.
B) carefully wiping the eye with a soft piece of sterile gauze.
C) gently massaging the eye to promote tearing.
D) applying gauze and direct pressure over the eye.
Q2) A 36-year-old male patient was involved in an altercation with a knife and has suffered a 2-inch laceration to the right side of the neck. Bleeding was controlled prior to your arrival by Emergency Medical Responders. Your paramedic partner has asked you to apply an occlusive dressing to the wound. You recognize that the primary benefit of the action is to:
A) prevent the cervical collar from touching the wound.
B) control the bleeding from large blood vessels.
C) prevent air entry into the circulatory system.
D) promote clot formation in order to stop bleeding.
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35

Chapter 34: Chest Trauma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42718
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with blunt chest wall trauma has a flail section to her chest. She is conscious and confused and breathing rapidly and shallowly. After manually stabilizing the flail section of the chest wall, the EMT best treats this condition by:
A) applying ice packs to the flail segment.
B) administering oxygen through a nonrebreather face mask.
C) providing positive pressure ventilation.
D) inserting an oropharyngeal airway.
Q2) A confused 62-year-old female fell at home, hitting the side of a table with her chest. Assessment reveals instability to the left lateral chest accompanied by minor bruising in the same area. She complains of intense pain every time she breathes. Her airway is patent, breathing is rapid and shallow, and skin warm and nondiaphoretic. Vital signs are pulse 112, respirations 24, and blood pressure 132/64 mmHg with SpO at 90%. Breath sounds are shallow but equal to both lungs. Based on those findings, you should treat this patient for what life-threatening condition?
A) Shock
B) Pain
C) Pneumothorax
D) Hypoxia
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Chapter 35: Abdominal and Genitourinary Trauma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42719
Sample Questions
Q1) EMT care for an open chest wound and an abdominal evisceration are similar in that:
A) air must be periodically released from both wounds.
B) occlusive dressings are placed over both wounds.
C) moist dressings are placed over both wounds.
D) both wounds can cause the trapping of air in the body.
Q2) A female patient who suffered a straddle injury while trying to balance on top of a chain link fence continues to bleed from the vaginal area despite your initial attempt to control the hemorrhage. At this time, you would:
A) apply an ice pack wrapped in a towel to the genital area.
B) gently put sterile gauze dressings into the opening of the vaginal canal.
C) place another dressing over the first and maintain direct pressure.
D) clean the area with sterile saline and reapply direct pressure.
Q3) Which one of the following injuries is most likely to cause peritonitis?
A) Contusion to the pancreas
B) Stab wound to the small intestine
C) Blunt trauma to the spleen
D) Bullet injury to the liver
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Page 37

Chapter 36: Multisystem Trauma and Trauma in Special Patient Populations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42720
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT is correctly assessing a 2-year-old male who is unresponsive after being assaulted by the mother's live-in boyfriend when he:
A) checks the patient's brachial pulse.
B) recognizes a respiratory rate of 30 per minute as abnormal.
C) takes the time to get a blood pressure.
D) checks capillary refill time to help determine perfusion.
Q2) To prevent the majority of traumatic injuries in the geriatric population, what prevention program should you develop?
A) Safe driving
B) Elder abuse
C) Smoke alarm maintenance
D) Fall prevention
Q3) An 81-year-old woman with severe kyphosis and osteoporosis has fallen and is complaining of neck pain as well as nausea. Given the patient's past medical history, which one of the following is most appropriate?
A) Transfer her to the stretcher and transport in a position of comfort.
B) Place her in a supine position on the long board and pad all voids.
C) Apply a cervical collar only and transport her supine on the stretcher.
D) Position her on her left side and immobilize her to the long board.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Obstetrics and Care of the Newborn
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42721
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called to a home for a female patient in labor. On scene the family tells you that the 37-year-old patient is 42 weeks pregnant and wanted to have her baby at home naturally. They tell you that she has been in labor for over 24 hours and suddenly began complaining of severe and tearing abdominal pain. What condition should the EMT suspect?
A) Placenta previa
B) Preeclampsia
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Ruptured uterus
Q2) The EMT recognizes the underlying pathophysiology associated with an ectopic pregnancy as a fertilized egg that is:
A) lodged in a fallopian tube.
B) developing without a placenta.
C) contaminated with abdominal bacteria.
D) stuck in the abdomen.
Q3) The components of the APGAR scoring system include:
A) airway, breathing, circulation.
B) heart rate, activity, respirations.
C) airway, breathing, level of consciousness.
D) grimace, movement, skin moisture.
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Chapter 38: Pediatrics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42722
Sample Questions
Q1) An 8-year-old child was chasing his dog when he ran out into the street and was struck by a car. He is responsive to verbal stimuli and has an unstable pelvis and a bruise to the side of his face. His airway is open and his breathing is rapid and shallow. His radial pulse is rapid and weak and his skin is cool, moist, and diaphoretic. He also has burns and abrasions to his back after being thrown by the car onto the hot pavement. Based on these assessment findings, the EMT would treat the patient for what condition?
A) Hypoxia
B) Head injury
C) Shock
D) Burn injuries
Q2) A 5-year-old male is drooling with stridorous respirations and has a fever of 104°F. What statement would concern the EMT most?
A) "I am not hungry at all."
B) "It hurts to swallow."
C) "I have a headache."
D) "My nose will not stop running."
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Chapter 39: Geriatrics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42723
Sample Questions
Q1) An 82-year-old female with nausea and vomiting has called 911. When obtaining her past medical history, she informs you that she suffered a transient ischemic attack (TIA) two months ago. Based on this, what should the EMT expect to find?
A) Decreased sensation to the left side of her body
B) Difficulty in moving her right arm and right leg
C) Decreased sensation to her left leg
D) The absence of any neurological deficits
Q2) A patient with cataracts would most likely complain of:
A) cloudy vision.
B) color blindness.
C) loss of peripheral vision.
D) intermittent blindness.
Q3) A 92-year-old male states that he "passed out" and fell down. He regained consciousness a few moments later, but had shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Which one of the following in the patient's history is of greatest concern?
A) He had hip surgery two years ago.
B) The patient took nitroglycerin and now has a headache.
C) The patient states his left calf is tender and painful.
D) The patient injured his wrist when he fell.
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Page 41

Chapter 40: Patients With Special Challenges
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42724
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements about peritoneal dialysis is true?
A) It is more effective than hemodialysis.
B) A catheter is inserted into the abdomen.
C) It is only effective in acute renal failure.
D) A constant low-grade fever is normal and common.
Q2) A patient who received peritoneal dialysis has called 911 for generalized weakness. Which one of the following should be of most concern in this patient?
A) Heart rate of 112
B) Temperature of 101 F
C) Blood glucose of 146
D) Complaint of thirst
Q3) Poor position of an obese patient on the stretcher would most likely result in:
A) hypotension.
B) skin breakdown.
C) respiratory distress.
D) back pain.
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Chapter 41: The Combat Veteran
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42725
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT recognizes that alcohol or drug dependence often occurs in those with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) because:
A) it is used to blunt the sympathetic nervous system and emotional mental anguish. B) the medications that treat PTSD make the individual more prone to alcohol and drug abuse.
C) it reflects an individual weakness since not all with PTSD have substance abuse issues.
D) it is therapeutic by "slowing down" the brain and allowing mental processing of past experiences.
Q2) When caring for a 34-year-old male with a history of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following instructions to your crew would be most appropriate?
A) "We must remove family members from around him."
B) "We need to determine if he feels suicidal or homicidal."
C) "We need to determine if he has ever killed anyone."
D) "We need to determine if he remembers the event that caused the PTSD."
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43

Chapter 42: Ambulance Operations and Air Medical Response
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42726
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT shows that she understands the concept of driving with due regard when she states:
A) "When responding to an emergency, I drive as fast as possible so that emergency care can be delivered as quickly as possible."
B) "When taking a patient to the hospital, I drive as quickly as possible so that I can get back into service for another call."
C) "When approaching an intersection, I wait for all traffic to stop before proceeding through."
D) "It is acceptable to take a nonemergency patient to the hospital using lights and siren if dispatch informs me that there is another call waiting."
Q2) You have been dispatched for a 2-year-old female who is not breathing. When responding, you realize that your primary goal is to:
A) mentally prepare for what might be required on scene.
B) arrive at the scene safely with no mishaps.
C) review the protocol for pediatric cardiac arrest.
D) get to the scene as quickly as possible.
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Chapter 43: Gaining Access and Patient Extrication
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42727
Sample Questions
Q1) On the scene of a motor vehicle collision, which one of the following EMTs is engaged in simple extrication of the patient?
A) The EMT removing the patient from the car
B) The EMT entering the car to open the patient's airway
C) The EMT stabilizing the car to prevent it from moving
D) The EMT monitoring the scene for safety hazards
Q2) You have just arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle collision where a car rolled several times at a high rate of speed. The car is on its wheels with the restrained driver still in his seat. After ensuring that the scene is safe and gaining access to the patient, which of the following should you do immediately?
A) Establish a plan to extricate the patient.
B) Remove pieces of broken glass from around the patient.
C) Cover the patient and force the door open.
D) Provide manual in-line spinal stabilization.
Q3) Which one of the following situations represents simple access to a patient?
A) Unlocking a car door by breaking the window using a screwdriver
B) Forcing entry into a house
C) Climbing stairs to gain access to a patient on a porch
D) Extrication of a patient from a car after removing one door
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Page 45

Chapter 44: Hazardous Materials
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42728
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT would best describe a hazardous material as:
A) any material capable of injuring >50 people.
B) any material that poses a threat to life.
C) any material that is explosive in nature.
D) any material that can contaminate the environment.
Q2) You are on a scene in which a radioactive material is emitting alpha rays. As a knowledgeable EMT, you recognize that the most appropriate shielding for this material is:
A) clothing.
B) aluminum.
C) concrete.
D) lead.
Q3) A worker has been exposed to beta rays given off by a radioactive material. Which one of the following should you do first?
A) Decontaminate the patient.
B) Quickly assess for any radiation burns.
C) Assess his level of consciousness and ABCs.
D) Determine the exact material he was exposed to.
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Chapter 45: Multiple-Casualty Incidents and Incident Management
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42729
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patient triage tags indicates the lowest priority for care and transport on the scene of a multiple-casualty incident?
A) Yellow
B) Red
C) Black
D) Green
Q2) Approximately 15 trucks and cars have been involved in a "chain-reaction" collision. You are the first ambulance on the scene and begin going from vehicle to vehicle to determine the type and severity of each injury. This would be an example of what kind of triage?
A) Secondary
B) Emergency
C) Primary
D) Tertiary
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Chapter 46: Ems Response to Terrorism Involving Weapons
of Mass Destruction
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42730
Sample Questions
Q1) An alert and oriented patient has been exposed to the biological toxin ricin. He presents with a fever, cough, and generalized weakness. His airway is patent and his breathing is adequate. His skin is warm and dry, and his radial pulse is weak. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate when caring for this patient?
A) Administer oxygen to the patient.
B) Apply a HEPA filter mask to the patient.
C) Obtain vital signs and transport.
D) Isolate the patient before administering further care.
Q2) Beta radiation represents the greatest threat to a person's well-being when the: A) person is within 30 feet of the source.
B) person ingests it by eating contaminated food.
C) radiation occurs in liquid form.
D) source is heated to greater than 100°F.
Q3) Your service has acquired the antidote for a nerve agent attack. As such, you realize that it will be given by what route?
A) Inhalation
B) Oral
C) Injection
D) Topical

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Chapter 47: ALS-Assist Skills
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42731
Sample Questions
Q1) Where would you place the electrode if you were going to attach the V lead to it?
A) Right sternal border, fourth intercostal space on the right thorax
B) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line on the left thorax
C) Left leg, just proximal to the medial malleolus
D) Lateral to V , on the left midaxillary line of the left thorax
Q2) When helping a paramedic apply a 3-lead ECG, what action would demand immediate and corrective intervention?
A) Cleaning the skin with alcohol prior to adhering an electrode
B) Placing an electrode on the lower right chest
C) Attaching the electrode to the cable prior to placing it on the patient
D) Using antiperspirant to dry the moist and clammy skin of the patient
Q3) After appropriately filling the drip chamber with IV fluid, you would:
A) flush air from the IV tubing.
B) remove the protective cap from the spike.
C) check the IV solution for particles or other impurities.
D) adjust the flow to the appropriate rate.
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Chapter 48: Advanced Airway Management
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42732
Sample Questions
Q1) Your paramedic partner is having difficulty placing an endotracheal tube in an unresponsive trauma patient. He asks you to get the King LT airway prepared. As such, you would gather:
A) King airway device.
B) King airway and laryngoscope.
C) King airway and a malleable stylet.
D) King airway, 7.0 endotracheal tube, and laryngoscope.
Q2) You have just inserted an endotracheal tube into an unresponsive patient whom you believe has suffered a stroke. Which one of the following actions should you take immediately after removing the laryngoscope from the patient's mouth?
A) Inflate the cuff with 15 mL of air.
B) Attach the bag-valve mask and start ventilations.
C) Carefully remove the stylet if used.
D) Secure the tube with a commercial device or tape.
Q3) Oxygen can be delivered more effectively by orotracheal intubation because:
A) a higher liter flow of oxygen can be used.
B) an air-tight seal can be made with the face mask of the BVM.
C) oxygen can be ventilated directly into the lungs.
D) a lower liter flow of oxygen can be used.
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