Prehospital Trauma Life Support
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Prehospital Trauma Life Support (PHTLS) is a comprehensive course designed to enhance the knowledge and skills of prehospital healthcare providers in the assessment and management of trauma patients. The course focuses on the principles of rapid trauma assessment, prioritization of care, and evidence-based interventions to improve survival rates and patient outcomes in prehospital settings. Topics include scene safety, trauma anatomy and physiology, airway management, shock recognition, hemorrhage control, spinal motion restriction, and the logistics of trauma transport. Through a combination of interactive lectures, hands-on skills stations, and scenario-based exercises, participants develop critical thinking and teamwork abilities essential for delivering high-quality trauma care before hospital arrival.
Recommended Textbook
Prehospital Emergency Care 10th Edition by Joseph J. Mistovich
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48 Chapters
2835 Verified Questions
2835 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Emergency Medical Care Systems, Research, and Public
Health
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42685
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been asked to sit on your service's quality improvement (QI) committee. As a knowledgeable EMT, you recognize that you will be involved in projects that serve to:
A) communicate with insurance companies for increased reimbursement. B) recruit and educate EMTs into the profession of the Emergency Medical Services. C) examine ways in which the delivery of emergency care can be improved.
D) identify and reeducate EMTs that routinely do not provide proper care.
Answer: C
Q2) You have arrived on the scene of a medical emergency and find a woman lying on the floor of a grocery store. As you approach her, you know that your first priority as an EMT is:
A) personal safety.
B) patient care.
C) public safety.
D) patient advocacy.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Workforce Safety and Wellness of the Emt
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are accidentally stuck with a needle used to administer a medication to a patient with a known history of hepatitis B. You have already completed your hepatitis B vaccine series. In this case, which of the following statements is true?
A) You have complete protection from hepatitis B and no further action is needed.
B) You have two weeks from the time of exposure to start medical care for a potential infection.
C) You will have to get another series of three vaccines to give you protection in the future.
D) You need to report the needle stick to your supervisor as soon as possible.
Answer: D
Q2) A patient with a history of hepatitis C has called 911 because he has a headache. Given the complaint and medical history, which personal protective equipment is most appropriate?
A) Goggles
B) Gloves
C) Gloves and gown
D) No protection is needed.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 77-year-old female is unresponsive, but breathing and with a pulse. On scene, a family member hands you an official document stating that the patient does not want feeding tubes, ventilators, or other long-term life support equipment to keep her alive. There is no mention of whether to administer life-saving drugs or withhold cardiopulmonary resuscitation. The EMT would recognize this document as a(n):
A) durable power of attorney.
B) living will document.
C) Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order.
D) implied consent.
Answer: B
Q2) You have been called to transfer a trauma patient from a rural hospital emergency department to the emergency department of a large urban medical center. Which one of the following will best decrease your chance of becoming involved in an EMTALA violation?
A) Obtaining a copy of the patient's insurance and billing information
B) Taking vital signs every 5 minutes during transport
C) Determining the exact location to which the patient is to be transported
D) Assessing the patient for stability prior to transfer
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Documentation
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are reviewing a prehospital care report (PCR) and note the following entry: "Pt. took PCN b.i.d. PO for 5 days." You would interpret this as the patient took:
A) penicillin injections for five days.
B) a total of 10 pills of penicillin.
C) a penicillin pill every other day for five days.
D) antibiotic injections two times a day for five days.
Q2) Consider the following narrative from a patient care report: "pt. transported 3 days ago for STEMI; pt. currently denies CP and SOB; PMH of HTN and CAD; pt. currently in NAD." Which of the following is true?
A) The patient is short of breath.
B) The patient suffers from hypotension.
C) The patient has heart problems.
D) The patient is in moderate distress.
Q3) A pertinent negative would be illustrated by:
A) "nausea without vomiting."
B) "hypertension and taking medication."
C) "dizziness for three days without notifying the doctor."
D) "short of breath with history of lung problems."
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Chapter 5: Communication
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phrase best illustrates the EMT using the summary technique of therapeutic communication?
A) "It appears that you have been depressed for several weeks now."
B) "Since you are depressed, we need to transport you to the hospital."
C) "I know how you feel; my brother suffers from depression."
D) "Since you are not in a calm state of mind, we have to transport you to the ED."
Q2) Your ambulance was dispatched for a patient complaining of shortness of breath at 1512. You arrived on scene at 1523 and left at 1538. You arrived at the hospital with the patient at 1557 and were back in service at 1622. Which one of the following is true?
A) Your scene time was 15 minutes.
B) You arrived on the scene at 5:23 p.m.
C) The call took place in the morning.
D) The time spent at the hospital was 16 minutes and 22 seconds.
Q3) An advantage to asking the patient close-ended questions is a(n):
A) opportunity to get a detailed response from the patient.
B) ability to get medical information very quickly.
C) chance to get a significant amount of information.
D) opportunity for the patient to elaborate about his medical complaint.
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Chapter 6: Lifting and Moving Patients
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An obese patient cannot ambulate and must be carried down several flights of stairs. The patient exceeds your physical capabilities; however, your partner is very strong and physically fit. Which of the following statements, made by you, indicates the best means to safely lift and move the patient as well as minimize your opportunity of suffering an injury?
A) "When we move him, let's go slowly down the stairs."
B) "As long as I lean backward when moving him, we will be okay."
C) "To be safe, let's move him quickly and at one time down the stairs."
D) "We will have to call for assistance to get him from his house."
Q2) When carrying equipment in the right hand, the EMT would:
A) lean to the left side for compensation.
B) bend backward for counter balance.
C) tilt his body to the right side.
D) keep his or her back straight and locked.
Q3) The EMT would perform an urgent move when the:
A) patient exhibits no problems with the airway, breathing, or circulation.
B) patient is suffering from an immediate threat to life.
C) scene contains an immediate threat to the patient and EMT.
D) patient is stable but suffering from pain.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Anatomy, Physiology, and Medical Terminology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has had both her thyroid and parathyroid glands removed would most likely have difficulty with which one of the following?
A) Producing hormones that govern sex characteristics
B) Maintaining strong and healthy bones
C) Regulating blood sugar
D) Maintaining an adequate blood pressure
Q2) A patient has a total occlusion of the left femoral artery. Regarding this condition, which of the following might the EMT expect to find?
A) Pale skin to the left foot
B) Swelling in the legs
C) Difficulty moving the left arm
D) Decreased radial pulse
Q3) Which one of the following best represents the correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs?
A) Nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, pharynx
B) Larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
C) Epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, bronchi, alveoli
D) Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
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Chapter 8: Pathophysiology
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74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has lost 1 liter of blood is conscious with a patent airway, but his extremities are pale and cold to the touch. Vital signs are pulse 130, respirations are 22 and adequate, blood pressure is 74/56, and SpO is 95% on room air. Which one of the following is most needed by this patient to increase perfusion to the cells?
A) Increased blood pressure by giving IV fluids
B) Administration of oxygen
C) Increased number of red blood cells and plasma volume
D) Keeping the patient warm
Q2) The body will compensate for a decrease in cardiac output by:
A) increasing systemic vascular resistance.
B) increasing the respiratory rate.
C) dilating to arteries, veins, and capillaries.
D) decreasing the heart rate.
Q3) The patient in anaerobic metabolism is deficient of:
A) glucose (sugar).
B) protein.
C) lactic acid.
D) oxygen.
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Chapter 9: Life Span Development
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing a sick 3-week-old baby, which finding would be most concerning?
A) Fontanelle level with the skull
B) Soft spot to the top of the head
C) Mucus occluding both nares
D) Rectal temperature of 99.4 F
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the maximum life span?
A) Almost all persons die before reaching the maximum life span.
B) The maximum life span is different for every person and takes into account health status and occupation.
C) The maximum life span is approximately 100 years of age.
D) The maximum life span is the average years a person is expected to live based on health status.
Q3) You are caring for a 6-month-old male who is fussy, crying, and has a fever. What would be most appropriate?
A) Talk to the parents and not the baby since a stranger's voice is upsetting.
B) Wait for the baby to stop crying so that you can properly assess him.
C) Keep the parents calm even though it is the baby you are caring for.
D) Distract the baby with a small toy or ball so that you can assess him.
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11
Chapter 10: Airway Management, Artificial Ventilation, and Oxygenation
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements indicates that the EMT has an accurate understanding of the bronchioles?
A) "They are large structures that pass oxygen from the lungs directly into the bloodstream."
B) "They are small air sacs located just before the alveoli."
C) "They are small passages located in the lower airway that have smooth muscle surrounding them."
D) "They are large airways located before the carina and are made of cartilage."
Q2) Why is the jaw-thrust maneuver indicated for a patient with a possible spinal injury?
A) It is a permanent airway intervention that does not require a mechanical airway if performed correctly.
B) It manipulates the head and cervical spine less than the head-tilt, chin-lift.
C) It is less painful for the patient since he is already in pain from the injury.
D) It is the EMT's preference as to whether to use the head-tilt, chin-lift or jaw-thrust maneuver.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Baseline Vital Signs, Monitoring Devices, and History Taking
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123 Verified Questions
123 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has advanced liver disease from years of exposure to toxic chemicals in his place of employment. Which one of the following skin colors would the EMT expect?
A) Bluish-gray
B) Pale and cyanotic
C) Pinkish and flushed
D) Yellow-orange
Q2) A female patient who called 911 when she noticed blood in her stool is scared and anxious. Her pulse rate is 124 and her blood pressure is 88/60 mmHg. After you get her vital signs, she nervously asks you if they are normal. Given her anxiety, you should:
A) change the subject.
B) inform her of the vital signs.
C) tell her they are normal.
D) reassure her that she is fine.
Q3) Which one of the following patients should the EMT recognize as tachycardic?
A) 86-year-old male with chest pain and a heart rate of 96
B) 3-year-old female with vomiting and a heart rate of 116
C) 24-year-old female with diabetic complications and a heart rate of 54
D) 37-year-old male with a complaint of fatigue and a heart rate of 104
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Chapter 12: Scene Size-Up
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the scene of a motor vehicle collision involving two vehicles, which actions would be most appropriate in regards to rescuer and patient safety?
A) Place flares 500 feet in each direction from the collision scene.
B) Remove reflective clothing to avoid distracting passing vehicles.
C) Turn your reflective back to oncoming traffic so they are aware of your presence.
D) Treat the patients between the vehicles so all rescuers can see each other.
Q2) Dispatch has sent you to the scene of a fight at a local sporting event. Since the EMS system is busy and there are very few ambulances available, dispatch has instructed you to call for additional units after arrival on scene. On scene you find that the police are present and have what appear to be 10 people seated or lying on the ground, many with blood on their faces and clothing. When would you call for additional ambulances?
A) Once all patients have been triaged
B) After assessing and treating life-threatening injuries
C) Once the exact number of patients has been determined
D) Before getting out of the ambulance
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Chapter 13: Patient Assessment
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An alert and oriented 69-year-old female is complaining of low, right-sided abdominal pain. She describes the pain as "knife-like" and states that it started suddenly 1 hour ago. Her only medical history is hypertension for which she takes the medication lisinopril. Which of the following assessment findings shows that the EMT is appropriately assessing this patient?
A) No trauma noted to the head
B) No pain on palpation to the chest
C) No deformity to the upper extremities
D) No abdominal guarding is noted
Q2) The patient's family states that their 16-year-old daughter has a history of asthma and has been complaining of shortness of breath for the past two days. She has been taking her metered-dose inhaler with some relief, but this morning, they found her lethargic and struggling to breathe. Your assessment reveals her to be responsive to verbal stimuli with an open airway and shallow respirations of 44 per minute. You hear minimal wheezing to both lungs. Your immediate action in caring for this patient is to:
A) insert an oral airway.
B) apply a nonrebreather mask.
C) position her on her side.
D) start positive pressure ventilation.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Pharmacology Medication and Administration
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After assisting a patient with her EpiPen, she tells you that it is much easier for her to breathe. However, her heart rate has increased from 92 to 118 beats per minute. Regarding the epinephrine, the EMT recognizes the increased heart rate as a(n):
A) therapeutic effect.
B) side effect.
C) contraindication.
D) allergy.
Q2) Which medication is included in the EMT scope of practice?
A) Tylenol
B) Glucose
C) Motrin
D) Benadryl
Q3) Of the following, which one best illustrates how the EMT should document the administration of a medication?
A) 325 mg of aspirin administered orally at 1325
B) 0.4 of nitroglycerin administered sublingually at 0800
C) Medical direction (Dr. Cole) ordered albuterol at 1245. Given as ordered.
D) Assisted patient with administration of medication via metered-dose inhaler
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Chapter 15: Shock and Resuscitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements made by a patient's family member would cause the EMT to suspect that a patient is suffering from hypovolemic shock?
A) "He has had a rash for the past three days."
B) "He cannot stop throwing up."
C) "He has been taking an antibiotic for a chest cold."
D) "He got up this morning and was having a hard time breathing."
Q2) A patient arrests at 1313. E-911 is activated and dispatches an ambulance at 1315. The ambulance arrives on scene at 1319 and the EMTs reach the patient's side and start care at 1321. After transporting the patient, the patient is transferred to the ED staff at 1346.
Based on that information, which one of the following is true?
A) Down time is 8 minutes.
B) Total down time is 31 minutes.
C) Down time is 25 minutes.
D) Total down time is 6 minutes.
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Chapter 16: Respiratory Emergencies
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85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT is correctly accessing for accessory muscle use when he examines what part of the body?
A) Nares
B) Chest
C) Back
D) Inner mouth
Q2) You have been dispatched for a young child with difficulty breathing. As you enter the apartment, which one of the following scene clues would best indicate that the patient is experiencing a problem in her upper airway?
A) Grunting with exhalation
B) Stridorous noises with inspiration
C) Low-pitched sobbing and crying
D) Audible wheezing on expiration
Q3) A patient requires several doses of medication from her metered-dose inhaler. At a minimum, how long should the EMT wait between administrations?
A) 30 seconds
B) 2 minutes
C) 5 minutes
D) 10 minutes
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Cardiovascular Emergencies
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are transporting a patient who had an episode of chest pain. On scene you assisted him in taking his nitroglycerin, which completely alleviated the chest pain. En route to the hospital, he asks you why the nitroglycerin takes the chest pain away. Your response would be:
A) "It causes the heart rate to decrease, which relaxes it and decreases pain."
B) "It has a sedative effect on the brain, making you less aware of the pain."
C) "It dilates the blood vessels, which decreases the workload of the heart."
D) "It causes the body to relax, decreasing the need for oxygen."
Q2) You have been called to a residence for a 52-year-old male complaining of chest pain. When obtaining a history from the patient, what statement, made by the patient, would you find most concerning?
A) "I started taking an antianxiety medication last week."
B) "The pain came on suddenly when I was reading the paper."
C) "I have had chest pain on and off for years now."
D) "I occasionally feel that my heart seems to skip a beat."
Q3) Who is most likely to suffer a silent MI?
A) 55-year-old female with diabetes
B) 72-year-old male with syncopal episode
C) 60-year-old female with colon cancer
D) 48-year-old male with undiagnosed hypertension
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Chapter 18: Altered Mental Status, Stroke, and Headache
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assessment of a 63-year-old female reveals a patent airway, adequate breathing, and strong radial pulse. She has no difficulty speaking and no facial droop, but exhibits a slight left arm drift. The EMT should interpret these findings as:
A) not suggestive of a stroke.
B) suggestive of a stroke if the blood pressure is also elevated.
C) suggestive of a stroke if the blood pressure is increased and pupils are not equal.
D) highly suggestive that a stroke is occurring.
Q2) Which one of the following statements made by the patient suggests that he is suffering from a tension headache?
A) "The pain starts at the top of my head and spreads down my back."
B) "I get so nauseated with the pain."
C) "The light really seems to bother my eyes when I get these headaches."
D) "The pain seems to get worse as the day goes on."
Q3) The EMT shows she understands a hemorrhagic stroke when she states:
A) "It occurs when clots form in blood vessels within the brain."
B) "It occurs when a blood vessel ruptures within the brain."
C) "Its signs and symptoms generally resolve within 24 hours."
D) "It can sometimes be treated by clot-destroying medications."
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20
Chapter 19: Seizures and Syncope
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57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called for a seizure emergency. On scene you find an adult female actively seizing with bystanders attempting to restrain her. You would:
A) place a padded tongue blade into the patient's mouth.
B) loosen any restrictive clothing the patient is wearing.
C) instruct the bystanders to release the patient.
D) have bystanders to continue restraining while you complete the primary assessment.
Q2) A young boy tells you that his twin brother suffers from seizures and asks what he can do if he sees his brother convulsing. Your response would be:
A) "Move any movable objects and furniture away from him."
B) "Hold him securely to the floor until he stops seizing or the EMTs arrive."
C) "Insert a spoon into his mouth to keep him from swallowing his tongue."
D) "Call 911 if the seizure lasts more than 5 minutes or if he loses control of his bladder."
Q3) The EMT would recognize a focal motor seizure when she observes:
A) jerky muscular activity of a single extremity.
B) repetitive actions like lip smacking or finger rolling.
C) blank staring which begins and ends abruptly.
D) abrupt personality changes including fits of rage.
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Chapter 20: Acute Diabetic Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your medical director is providing a review of diabetic emergencies and asks you to describe glucose. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate response?
A) "It is a medication that will lower the blood sugar."
B) "It is a hormone produced by the pancreas."
C) "It is a sugar that is the body's main source of energy."
D) "It is a toxin that accumulates in the blood of a diabetic patient."
Q2) An unresponsive patient presents with a blood sugar of 30 mg/dL. What is the major threat to this patient's well-being?
A) Brain damage
B) Dehydration
C) Cardiac compromise
D) Glucose toxicity
Q3) Medical direction has ordered you to administer one dose of oral glucose to a diabetic patient with confusion. Which one of the following actions describes what you should do?
A) Repeat and question the order to medical direction.
B) Place half the contents of the tube of glucose in the patient's mouth.
C) Carefully administer the entire tube of glucose.
D) Have the patient swallow all of the glucose in the tube.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Anaphylactic Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A football player in full uniform has been stung by a bee. Your assessment reveals him to be confused with stridorous respirations and weak radial pulses. His skin is warm and flushed and covered with hives. Vital signs are: pulse 164, respirations 28, blood pressure 74/58 mmHg, and SpO at 87%. The coach notifies you that the patient is allergic to bees and hands you the patient's epinephrine pen. Your next action would be to:
A) completely expose the patient and administer the epinephrine into his anterior thigh.
B) lift the shirt over the abdomen and administer the epinephrine into his abdomen below the umbilicus.
C) lift the shoulder pads and shirt and administer the epinephrine into his upper arm muscle.
D) administer the epinephrine through a padless area of the pants over the side of his thigh.
Q2) When the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis are rapid, the EMT must realize that:
A) the reaction tends to be severe.
B) the reaction tends to be localized.
C) there is an increased amount of antigens.
D) epinephrine will not be effective.
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Chapter 22: Toxicologic Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been found unresponsive on her bedroom floor. When assessing her, the EMT would have the highest index of suspicion for a narcotic overdose when he notes:
A) dilated pupils.
B) bottle of Valium next to her.
C) a glass pipe with a sticky residue in it.
D) shallow and slow respirations.
Q2) A 14-year-old female has taken an excessive amount of Tylenol with codeine. Family states that they were asleep when they heard a crash and found her at the bottom of the stairs. When they asked her if she was okay, she told them that her boyfriend broke up with her and she saw no point in going on, therefore she took the overdose. As you arrive by the patient's side, you note that she is responsive to verbal stimuli and breathing shallowly. Your first action would be to:
A) open the airway with the head-tilt, chin-lift.
B) determine exactly how much medication she took.
C) start positive pressure ventilation with oxygen.
D) take manual in-line spinal stabilization.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Abdominal, Hematologic, Gynecologic,
Genitourinary, and Renal Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes a female patient with a problem to her urinary system?
A) Infection of the fallopian tubes
B) Swelling of the ureter
C) Damage to the vaginal canal
D) Cancerous lesion to the ovary
Q2) A 19-year-old hemophiliac with behavioral problems has intentionally cut his right wrist. Assessment indicates an open airway, adequate breathing, and profound bleeding from the self-inflicted laceration. What instructions would you provide to other EMTs taking care of this patient?
A) "Let's use normal bleeding-control procedures and see how that works."
B) "Let's elevate his arm and place a tourniquet distal to the cut."
C) "Since control is virtually impossible, we need to transport immediately."
D) "We need to quickly apply a tourniquet directly above the cut."
Q3) What condition would indicate an infection in the retroperitoneal portion of the abdomen?
A) Gastroenteritis
B) Hepatitis
C) Pancreatitis
D) Inflamed spleen
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Chapter 24: Environmental Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following best describes a patient suffering an environmental emergency?
A) Young female who slipped on ice and has pain and deformity to her left arm
B) Male patient who fell into a stream and sustained a laceration to the head after hitting a rock
C) Female who is sick and vomiting after eating potato salad at an outdoor church picnic
D) Intoxicated male patient who collapsed in the snow and is complaining that he feels cold
Q2) A landscaper who has been working in 105 degree weather is responsive to painful stimuli and has an open airway. His breathing is shallow and his radial pulse is weak. His skin is hot and dry and appears to be sunburned. The EMT should immediately:
A) start positive pressure ventilation.
B) wrap him in a sheet soaked with cool water.
C) administer oxygen through a nonrebreather face mask.
D) obtain a full set of vitals.
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Chapter 25: Submersion Incidents: Drowning and Diving Emergencies
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42709
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been dispatched to a pool party for a 19-year-old male with shoulder pain. He states that he dove off the diving board and hit the bottom of the pool with his right shoulder and back. Although there is alcohol at the party, he has not been drinking. He is alert and oriented and has obvious redness and abrasions to his right shoulder, neck, and back. He denies pain or discomfort to any other part of the body. Your next action would be to:
A) measure and apply a cervical collar.
B) establish manual in-line spinal stabilization.
C) provide supplemental oxygen.
D) perform the secondary assessment.
Q2) Friends pulled an unresponsive 15-year-old male from a lake. They say they were swimming when they lost track of him. Assessment reveals labored breathing and a weak pulse. Which of the following questions would give the EMT the most information related to the prognosis of the patient?
A) "Does he have a history of breathing problems?"
B) "How long was he under the water?"
C) "Was he drinking or doing drugs?"
D) "Is there any chance he hit his head?"
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Chapter 26: Behavioral Emergencies
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42710
Sample Questions
Q1) What type of hallucination is most dangerous?
A) Command
B) Tactile
C) Visual
D) Dissociative
Q2) Which of the following patients would the EMT classify as having a behavioral emergency?
A) 44-year-old female with bipolar disorder complaining of a fever of 102.5°F
B) 56-year-old male with schizophrenia who has stopped taking his medications
C) 29-year-old male with diabetes who is suddenly confused
D) 36-year-old male with no known history who is hearing voices
Q3) A male patient with a history of behavioral problems continually smacks his lips, sticks his tongue out, and turns his head to the left. His arm also jerks upward regularly. Which statement, made by a caregiver, would an EMT recognize as most important and relating to this presentation?
A) "He refused to take his morning medications."
B) "He can be very delusional at times."
C) "He has been on psych medications for many years."
D) "Lately, he will only eat potato chips for breakfast."
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Trauma Overview: the Trauma Patient and the
Trauma System
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42711
Sample Questions
Q1) A "whiplash" type neck injury is most often observed with what type of collision?
A) Frontal impacts
B) Ejection
C) Rear-end impact
D) Rollover
Q2) Two cars have collided head on. One car was traveling 55 mph and the other 35 mph. The total speed of impact would be:
A) 20 mph.
B) 35 mph.
C) 55 mph.
D) 90 mph.
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning trauma is true?
A) Falls are the leading cause of trauma deaths.
B) Mechanism of injury is the best predictor of patient outcome.
C) Multisystem trauma has a higher mortality rate than single-system injuries.
D) A "spider web" or "star" pattern of cracks on the windshield means the patient impacted the windshield with his head.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Bleeding and Soft Tissue Trauma
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42712
Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is confused and anxious after falling 20 feet from a ladder onto the grass below. What sign is most suggestive of shock?
A) Heart rate of 112
B) Deformity to the left arm
C) Large hematoma to the head
D) Constricted pupils
Q2) A patient has had part of his right thumb amputated in an industrial accident. Coworkers have retrieved the thumb and wrapped it in a towel. The EMT demonstrates appropriate handling of the amputated part when he:
A) places the thumb in ice water.
B) keeps the thumb warm during transport.
C) places the thumb in sterile saline.
D) wraps it in a dry sterile dressing.
Q3) Which of the following statements about dressings and bandages is true?
A) Dressings must be airtight to prevent contamination.
B) Bandages should not be applied until bleeding is controlled.
C) Dressings are placed over bandages.
D) Dressings should be placed into open wounds.
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Chapter 29: Burns
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42713
Sample Questions
Q1) An awake but confused patient with a diabetic history spilled a pot of hot water on himself while cooking. He has a partial-thickness burn on his right anterior leg. Following an unremarkable primary assessment, which action is your highest priority?
A) Determine the percentage of body surface area burned.
B) Check the patient's blood glucose level.
C) Assess for signs of infection at the burn site.
D) Apply sterile dressings to the burn.
Q2) You are assessing a patient who was burned when she dropped a hot iron on her bare foot. Her foot is red and has a small partial-thickness burn near the ankle. When completing the prehospital care report, what mechanism would you document?
A) Scald burn
B) Flame burn
C) Electrical burn
D) Contact burn
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Chapter 30: Musculoskeletal Trauma and Nontraumatic
Fractures
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42714
Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding, on a 32-year-old female involved in an MVC, should the EMT recognize as potentially life threatening?
A) Deformity of the left femur
B) Open fracture to the right forearm
C) Dislocation of two fingers on the left hand
D) Crepitus palpated to the right humerus
Q2) A patient fell and sustained an open fracture to the left humerus. However, assessment reveals the bone to have pulled back into the arm. Bleeding from the site is controlled. How will splinting the left arm benefit this patient?
A) Decreases the opportunity for further injury to nerves and blood vessels
B) Starts the process of healing by aligning and connecting the bone ends
C) Eliminates the possibility of infection through the open wound
D) Converts the open fracture to a closed fracture and maintains it as such
Q3) When using an air splint, the EMT must remember that air splints:
A) should never be applied circumferentially.
B) do not fully immobilize a possible fracture.
C) can decrease circulation in the extremity.
D) are contraindicated for joint injuries.
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Chapter 31: Head Trauma
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42715
Sample Questions
Q1) At an industrial complex, a young male was struck in the head by a large piece of steel thrown from a grinding machine. Assessment reveals a soft, painful depression underlying a tear in his scalp, which is covered with dried blood. There is also clear fluid coming from his right ear. He is conscious but confused and exhibits the following vital signs: pulse 84, respirations 16, blood pressure 142/76, and SpO 92%. Emergency Medical Responders are on scene and are maintaining in-line manual stabilization of the cervical spine. What instruction would indicate the next step needed in this patient's care?
A) "Let's pack his right ear with gauze to stop the loss of fluid."
B) "Place manual, direct pressure over the injury to control bleeding."
C) "I need someone to check the clear fluid for glucose."
D) "Will someone administer supplemental oxygen to the patient?
Q2) You are assessing the pupils of a patient who hit his head after falling from the top of a tractor trailer. What pupillary finding suggests a closed head injury?
A) The right pupil constricts when light is shined into the left pupil.
B) The left pupil dilates in reaction to light while the right does not.
C) Both the left and right pupils are constricted and do not react to light.
D) The left pupil constricts to light but the right pupil does not.
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Chapter 32: Spinal Column and Spinal Cord Trauma
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42716
Sample Questions
Q1) A 42-year-old man has called 911 because of severe back pain. He informs you that his back pain is related to a recent fracture of his coccyx. Based on this information, where should the EMT expect the patient to be complaining of pain?
A) Neck
B) Upper back
C) Pelvic area
D) Lower back
Q2) Which one of the following signs or symptoms best indicates the patient has suffered an injury to the thoracic spine?
A) Bruising to the back
B) Paralysis of the arms
C) Tingling in the legs
D) Cool and diaphoretic skin
Q3) What area of the spinal cord is most commonly injured?
A) Cervical spine
B) Thoracic spine
C) Lumbar spine
D) Sacral spine
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34
Chapter 33: Eye, Face, and Neck Trauma
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42717
Sample Questions
Q1) A worker in a factory complex has a sliver of metal lodged in the colored portion of his eye. The EMT would recognize the foreign body as lying in the:
A) cornea.
B) iris.
C) lens.
D) sclera.
Q2) An elderly woman is suffering from a closed head injury after falling down five steps. She is responsive to painful stimuli and is breathing shallowly. When evaluating her airway, you note that she has both upper and lower dentures. Her upper dentures are secure, but her lower dentures are loose. Prior to providing positive pressure ventilation, you would:
A) re-secure the lower dentures.
B) remove both the upper and lower dentures.
C) remove the lower dentures.
D) leave the dentures as you found them.
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Chapter 34: Chest Trauma
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42718
Sample Questions
Q1) You have applied a nonporous dressing to a stab wound on a patient's chest. The Emergency Medical Responder assisting you asks you why the dressing was taped on three sides and not all four. Your best response is that taping the dressing on three sides:
A) permits oxygen to still enter the lungs.
B) allows trapped air to escape on exhalation.
C) causes less pain for the patient.
D) decreases the chance of air entering the chest on exhalation.
Q2) A 42-year-old male was involved in a fight and was stabbed in the right lateral chest. The knife is still impaled, and he is complaining of shortness of breath. When he speaks he gurgles and blood drains from his mouth. His respirations are labored and his radial pulse is weak. Which one of the following should you do first?
A) Suction the blood from the airway.
B) Provide positive pressure ventilation.
C) Stabilize the knife with bulky dressings.
D) Remove the knife and seal the injury with a dressing.
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Chapter 35: Abdominal and Genitourinary Trauma
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42719
Sample Questions
Q1) EMT care for an open chest wound and an abdominal evisceration are similar in that:
A) air must be periodically released from both wounds.
B) occlusive dressings are placed over both wounds.
C) moist dressings are placed over both wounds.
D) both wounds can cause the trapping of air in the body.
Q2) An industrial worker has sustained a laceration to his abdomen. On closer inspection, you note what appears to be fat tissue and a portion of intestine protruding through the wound. Which one of the following is most appropriate for treating this injury?
A) One attempt at replacement using sterile gloves
B) Dry sterile dressing applied over the wound
C) Direct pressure using gloved palms to the injury
D) Occlusive dressing applied over saline-soaked gauze
Q3) Which one of the following injuries is most likely to cause peritonitis?
A) Contusion to the pancreas
B) Stab wound to the small intestine
C) Blunt trauma to the spleen
D) Bullet injury to the liver
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Chapter 36: Multisystem Trauma and Trauma in Special Patient Populations
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42720
Sample Questions
Q1) You are by the side of an 11-month-old female with a decreased level of consciousness. Caregivers will not provide an accurate history of how the child came to this condition, only that she was hard to wake up this morning, about 30 minutes ago. When assessing the child, what finding would be most immediately concerning?
A) Bruise to the head
B) Lack of crying as you assess her
C) Bradycardic heart rate
D) Healing bruises on the lower legs
Q2) A 27-year-old male has been involved in a motor vehicle collision and is entrapped in his car. He is unresponsive with agonal gurgling respirations and blood coming from his nose. His respirations show poor effort and are inadequate. The radial pulse is rapid and weak and skin cool and diaphoretic. An Emergency Medical Responder is holding manual in-line spinal stabilization. What action would you perform first?
A) Mechanical extrication from the vehicle
B) Application of a cervical collar
C) Control a nasal hemorrhage
D) Suction the airway with a hard-tip catheter
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Obstetrics and Care of the Newborn
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42721
Sample Questions
Q1) The APGAR scoring system is useful in determining:
A) type of resuscitation needed.
B) precise age of gestation.
C) status of overall condition.
D) maturity of heart and lungs.
Q2) While delivering a baby, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby's neck. You would:
A) clamp and cut the cord.
B) stop the delivery and transport.
C) slip the cord over the baby's shoulders.
D) contact medical direction.
Q3) You are responding to a low-income apartment complex for a 16-year-old who is five weeks pregnant with vaginal bleeding. When mentally reviewing possible causes of hemorrhage for this patient, which of the following should you be prepared to encounter?
A) Ruptured uterus
B) Dysfunctional placenta
C) Drug addiction
D) Spontaneous abortion
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Chapter 38: Pediatrics
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42722
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called to a local day care for a sick child. On scene, panicked day care workers inform you that the 4-year-old child was lethargic all morning and wanted to sleep. After resting for several minutes, she began to "shake all over." This lasted for approximately 30 seconds. Your assessment reveals her to be responsive to painful stimuli and breathing adequately. Her airway is open and her radial pulse is strong and bounding. Her skin is hot and moist to the touch with no signs of cyanosis. You are told that she has no medical history. En route to the hospital, the patient's mental status improves. Based on this presentation and information, you assume that the seizure occurred secondary to:
A) hypoxia.
B) fever.
C) hypoglycemia.
D) altered mental status.
Q2) You have been called to care for a 21-month-old female who has been bitten by a dog. Given the patient's age, you would appropriately classify the patient as a(n):
A) infant.
B) school-age child.
C) preschooler.
D) toddler.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Geriatrics
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42723
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been summoned for a diabetic patient with altered mental status. What sign would cause you to suspect that the patient is suffering from hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)?
A) Blood glucose level of 52 mg/dL
B) Inability to urinate
C) Complaint of thirst and dry mouth
D) Fruity smell on his breath
Q2) An 86-year-old female fell while walking to her bathroom. She is on the floor with severe pain to her right hip. Her airway is patent and breathing adequate. Family members tell you that she takes medication for high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and depression. When assessing the patient, what assessment finding is most concerning?
A) Heart rate of 120 beats per minute
B) External rotation of the hip
C) Weak pedal pulse in the right foot
D) Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
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Chapter 40: Patients With Special Challenges
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42724
Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing a dialysis patient and his AV graft, which one of the following is of most concern?
A) Feeling of a vibration through the graft
B) Palpable pulse in the graft
C) Red and hot skin at the graft site
D) Strong radial pulse distal to the graft
Q2) A patient has a dialysis AV graft in his right forearm. Which one of the following is true?
A) A blood pressure cannot be taken in the right arm.
B) The blood pressure cuff must be placed above the AV graft.
C) The blood pressure can only be palpated in the right arm.
D) A blood pressure can be obtained by placing the cuff below the graft.
Q3) Assessment of a patient complaining of the sudden onset of chest pain reveals a central intravenous catheter to his right upper chest. Which one of the following signs related to the catheter should be of greatest concern to the EMT?
A) The skin is red around the insertion site.
B) The line is unclamped and without a cap.
C) There appears to be fluid in the catheter.
D) The catheter tubing is kinked.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: The Combat Veteran
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42725
Sample Questions
Q1) You arrived on scene of a local restaurant and encounter a highly agitated combat veteran who is yelling at patrons. Given the public nature of the scene and a known history of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following statements indicates appropriate initial management of the situation?
A) "Let me see if I can establish a rapport and calm him."
B) "We need to contact ALS for chemical restraints."
C) "This is more a police matter so we need to contact them."
D) "Let's determine if he has a weapon before we attempt to physically restrain him."
Q2) A combat veteran patient with a history of severe PTSD states that he has a headache that feels worse than any other he has ever had. The patient is alert and oriented with no threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation. His vital signs are: pulse 68, respirations 16, blood pressure 168/100 mmHg, and SpO 95% on room air. You next action is to:
A) recognize the component of anguish.
B) perform a neurological assessment.
C) treat the patient for PTSD and transport.
D) administer low-concentration oxygen.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Ambulance Operations and Air Medical Response
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42726
Sample Questions
Q1) You walk into the station at the beginning of your shift and see another EMT laundering sheets and pillowcases used from the previous shift. Which one of the following observations should cause you to stop and correct the EMT in relation to this task?
A) He uses exam gloves to transfer the laundry into the washer.
B) He is using an EPA-registered sterilant as the detergent.
C) He is using a regular laundry detergent to clean the items.
D) He handles the dirty laundry as little as possible.
Q2) Which one of the following statements about the use of an escort to drive a critical patient to the hospital is true?
A) "It is actually safer, because traffic is cleared ahead of the ambulance."
B) "It should be used as a last resort, because it increases the risk of an accident."
C) "It is a safe way to get a critical patient to the hospital quickly and should be used when needed."
D) "It is safer if the ambulance transporting the patient goes first and is followed by the second emergency vehicle."
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Gaining Access and Patient Extrication
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42727
Sample Questions
Q1) At the scene of a motor vehicle collision, a driver is entrapped in his car after striking the back of a truck at a high rate of speed. Which action would be performed first when providing stabilization of the car?
A) Setting the parking brake
B) Disconnecting the battery
C) Shutting off the engine
D) Placing the transmission in "park"
Q2) On the scene of a motor vehicle collision, which one of the following EMTs is engaged in simple extrication of the patient?
A) The EMT removing the patient from the car
B) The EMT entering the car to open the patient's airway
C) The EMT stabilizing the car to prevent it from moving
D) The EMT monitoring the scene for safety hazards
Q3) Which one of the following situations represents simple access to a patient?
A) Unlocking a car door by breaking the window using a screwdriver
B) Forcing entry into a house
C) Climbing stairs to gain access to a patient on a porch
D) Extrication of a patient from a car after removing one door
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45
Chapter 44: Hazardous Materials
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42728
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT would best describe a hazardous material as:
A) any material capable of injuring >50 people.
B) any material that poses a threat to life.
C) any material that is explosive in nature.
D) any material that can contaminate the environment.
Q2) At the scene of a hazardous materials emergency, you have been assigned to the cold zone. In this zone, which one of the following activities will you be performing or assisting with?
A) Initial decontamination and triage
B) Rescue and initial decontamination
C) Removal of contaminated rescue gear
D) Triage, vital signs, and medical histories
Q3) A small truck has gone over an embankment. The driver has suffered a head injury and is confused, but is able to tell you that he is hauling N-acetyl-para-aminophenol.
Which of the following resources would provide you with the best initial information about this chemical?
A) Emergency Resource Guidebook
B) Medical direction
C) Truck driver
D) TREC-CHEM EMS Guidebook
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Chapter 45: Multiple-Casualty Incidents and Incident Management
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42729
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been assigned to the triage unit at a multiple-casualty incident. A patient with a yellow triage tag arrives. Your immediate action should be to:
A) change the tag to green.
B) obtain vital signs.
C) arrange for immediate transport.
D) retriage the patient.
Q2) At the scene of a multiple-casualty drill, you have been assigned to the role of Transport Unit leader. As such, your responsibility is:
A) ensuring proper care for each patient.
B) distributing patients to each medical facility.
C) immobilizing all patients prior to transport.
D) ensuring that patients in cardiac arrest leave for the hospital first.
Q3) A problem with the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system of triage is it:
A) is difficult to apply to young children.
B) requires at least 10 rescuers.
C) is only used for traumatic injuries.
D) can be complex and difficult to use.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Ems Response to Terrorism Involving Weapons
of Mass Destruction
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42730
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of radiation will travel the farthest and penetrate the human body with the greatest ease?
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Blast
D) Gamma
Q2) A chemical agent used by terrorists is described as having a high volatility. You should recognize this as meaning that the chemical is:
A) highly radioactive.
B) easily evaporated.
C) very explosive.
D) in liquid form.
Q3) How can an EMT best protect herself, as well as get the most appropriate resources to the scene of a multiple-casualty incident involving a weapon of mass destruction?
A) Estimation of the number of fatalities and injuries
B) Identification of the specific agent or mechanism used
C) Overall determination of the number and types of injuries
D) Turning over control of the incident to Homeland Security
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Chapter 47: ALS-Assist Skills
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42731
Sample Questions
Q1) While assisting a paramedic to start an IV on a critical patient, he asks you to set up the IV bag with a "mini drip" administration set. Which one of the following administration sets should you use?
A) 10 drop/mL set
B) 15 drop/mL set
C) 20 drop/mL set
D) 60 drop/mL set
Q2) When performing a 3-lead ECG, how would you place the electrodes?
A) Right anterior chest, left anterior chest, right lower chest
B) Right anterior chest, right lower chest, left lower chest
C) Right anterior chest, mid chest over heart, left lower chest
D) Right anterior chest, left anterior chest, left lower chest
Q3) Which one of the following is not a common lead configuration for obtaining an ECG tracing on a patient?
A) 3-lead
B) 4-lead
C) 8-lead
D) 12-lead
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Chapter 48: Advanced Airway Management
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42732
Sample Questions
Q1) An endotracheal tube is properly placed when the distal end lies in the:
A) esophagus.
B) bronchus.
C) trachea.
D) lungs.
Q2) Why would providing Sellick's maneuver be beneficial when performing endotracheal intubation?
A) Assist the paramedic in visualizing the glottis opening.
B) Movement of air from the pharynx into the esophagus is increased.
C) Chance of vomitus entering the esophagus is decreased.
D) Sellick's stabilizes the cervical spine while intubation is attempted.
Q3) An endotracheal tube has just been placed in an unresponsive asthmatic patient. To confirm proper placement, which one of the following interventions should be performed first?
A) Attach an end-tidal CO detector and watch for color changes.
B) Listen for sounds of ventilation over the epigastrium.
C) Listen for breath sounds over each lung field.
D) Determine the ease by which positive pressure ventilation can be delivered.
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