Prehospital Trauma Life Support
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Prehospital Trauma Life Support (PHTLS) is a comprehensive course designed to equip healthcare providers, such as paramedics, emergency medical technicians, and first responders, with the knowledge and skills necessary to assess, treat, and manage trauma patients in the prehospital setting. Emphasizing the principles of rapid assessment, critical interventions, and prioritization of care, the course covers topics such as airway management, shock, spinal motion restriction, hemorrhage control, and trauma system integration. Through a combination of didactic instruction, practical skill stations, and scenario-based learning, participants gain the ability to make informed decisions and provide effective life-saving interventions in various trauma situations before patients reach definitive care facilities.
Recommended Textbook
Prehospital Emergency Care 10th Edition by Joseph J. Mistovich
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48 Chapters
2835 Verified Questions
2835 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2143
Page 2
Chapter 1: Emergency Medical Care Systems, Research, and Public Health
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42685
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been dispatched for a 61-year-old female in cardiac arrest. Emergency Medical Responders (EMRs) are on scene. In your community all EMS practitioners are trained according to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model. Which one of the following do you expect the EMRs to be providing?
A) Emergency medication administration
B) Automated external defibrillation
C) Intravenous (IV) therapy
D) Reading an electrocardiogram (ECG)
Answer: B
Q2) As an EMT, which requirement is needed so that you can provide routine and emergency medical care to the sick and injured?
A) Prior medical experience
B) Service medical director
C) Knowledgeable partner
D) Safe driving record
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Workforce Safety and Wellness of the Emt
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are dispatched to a motor vehicle collision on a remote country road. It is night and your scene size-up reveals a heavily damaged car that rolled several times. The driver has been ejected and is lying prone in the middle of the road. In this situation, which one of the following types of protective clothing is it most essential that you don prior to making patient contact?
A) Rubber-soled boots
B) Reflective vest
C) Protective helmet
D) HEPA mask
Answer: B
Q2) Changes in your lifestyle that may help you manage stress include:
A) eating a high-protein and fatty diet.
B) concentrating on your job 24 hours a day.
C) self-medication with over-the-counter medicines.
D) practicing relaxation techniques such as meditation.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a community park, a 10-year-old boy has fallen from the top of a slide. His right wrist is deformed and he is in pain. He states that he lives with his mother and she is working. He does not know her work number. The EMT's best action would be to:
A) treat the patient under the guidelines of implied consent.
B) do not treat the patient until his mother can be contacted.
C) obtain permission from the park director.
D) have the police take custody of the boy and give permission to treat.
Answer: A
Q2) A patient who is extremely dizzy and vomiting declines your care and will not sign the refusal form. Your best action would be to:
A) document that the patient refuses to sign and leave.
B) have a family member sign as a witness to the refusal.
C) have your partner sign on behalf of the patient.
D) inform the patient that by law he must sign the form.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Documentation
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following describes the EMT's most objective finding?
A) Complaint of nausea
B) Blood pressure 114/68 mmHg
C) Patient rates pain as 10 out of 10
D) Complaint of headache for past 12 hours
Q2) Which one of the following statements shows an accurate understanding of the legal aspects of the prehospital care report (PCR)?
A) "The PCR is considered a legal document only when it describes a crime or act of violence."
B) "A PCR can be used in a lawsuit only if that lawsuit is filed within six months."
C) "The PCR may be subpoenaed even if the case centers around alleged negligence that occurred in the emergency department."
D) "A copy of the PCR should be forwarded to the police any time law enforcement is involved in the call."
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6
Chapter 5: Communication
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called for a 23-year-old male who is completely deaf. To best communicate with this patient, you should:
A) stand in front of the patient and speak loudly.
B) write questions on a note pad.
C) use gestures when asking questions.
D) have the emergency department get the needed information.
Q2) You have arrived at the scene of a medical emergency. As you enter the room where the patient is located, you note him to be sitting up and talking without difficulty. Emergency Medical Responders are on scene and providing basic care for the patient.
Which one of the following will you do first?
A) Place the patient on your stretcher and transfer him to the ambulance.
B) Ask the patient's family if he has any past medical problems.
C) Get the patient's pulse and respiratory rate, along with his blood pressure.
D) Get a report from the Emergency Medical Responder.
Q3) An advantage to asking the patient close-ended questions is a(n):
A) opportunity to get a detailed response from the patient.
B) ability to get medical information very quickly.
C) chance to get a significant amount of information.
D) opportunity for the patient to elaborate about his medical complaint.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lifting and Moving Patients
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which observation demonstrates that the EMTs and EMRs are correctly using the stair chair?
A) The wheels of the stair chair touch each and every step.
B) The stair chair slides down the stairs while tilted forward.
C) The patient is carried down the stairs feet first.
D) The stair chair is carried down the stairs with the chair tilted forward.
Q2) Which of the following statements accurately describes the concept of body mechanics?
A) "Body mechanics refers to an exercise program designed to increase strength and prevent injuries when lifting or moving patients."
B) "Body mechanics describes the personal maintenance of a proper weight and posture so that on-the-job injuries are minimized."
C) "Body mechanics refers to methods that promote using your body in the safest and most efficient way when moving objects or patients."
D) "Body mechanics describes a program of back exercises that decreases the chance of incurring a back injury when moving a patient."
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8
Chapter 7: Anatomy, Physiology, and Medical Terminology
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86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another EMT informs you that a patient has been stabbed once with a knife in the left midaxillary region. Where is this injury located?
A) Left chest
B) Left shoulder
C) Left lateral chest
D) Left side of the abdomen
Q2) A patient who has had both her thyroid and parathyroid glands removed would most likely have difficulty with which one of the following?
A) Producing hormones that govern sex characteristics
B) Maintaining strong and healthy bones
C) Regulating blood sugar
D) Maintaining an adequate blood pressure
Q3) The left atrium:
A) receives blood from the veins of the body.
B) receives blood from the pulmonary veins.
C) pumps blood to the lungs.
D) pumps blood to the body.
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Chapter 8: Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 35-year-old male is lethargic and dehydrated after working at a construction site for 12 hours on a very hot day. You obtain the following vital signs: pulse 136, respirations 22, blood pressure 102/88, and SpO 100% with supplemental oxygen. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize:
A) widened pulse pressure to circulate more blood.
B) elevated heart rate to increase cardiac output.
C) rapid respirations to decrease CO loss.
D) low blood pressure to conserve the body's energy.
Q2) A patient has a blood pressure of 140/98 mmHg. Which one of the following can the EMT ascertain from this reading?
A) The pulse pressure is narrowed.
B) The afterload is increased.
C) The preload is diminished.
D) The SpO level must be abnormal.
Q3) The body will compensate for a decrease in cardiac output by:
A) increasing systemic vascular resistance.
B) increasing the respiratory rate.
C) dilating to arteries, veins, and capillaries.
D) decreasing the heart rate.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Life Span Development
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Puberty is best described as:
A) maturation of the sexual organs.
B) a milestone developmental stage in school-aged children.
C) a two- to three-year growth spurt in adolescents.
D) a developmental stage that occurs earlier in males than in females.
Q2) A mother has called 911 for medical assistance. She states that her 3-month-old has a rectal temperature of 99.7 F and is not feeding. Which one of the following statements would be appropriate when talking with the mother?
A) "You are right, he does have a fever; have you given him any Tylenol?"
B) "Fever in babies is always a concern; has he ever had a febrile seizure?"
C) "Why don't we get him undressed so we can cool him down."
D) "Given his age, a temperature of 99.7 F is normal."
Q3) The average years of life remaining based on an individual's date of birth is called:
A) life span development.
B) maximum life span.
C) life expectancy.
D) physiological expectancy.
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Chapter 10: Airway Management, Artificial Ventilation, and Oxygenation
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are transferring an unresponsive patient from her house to the ambulance on the stretcher. An oral airway has been placed and ventilations with the bag-valve mask are being administered. Suddenly, the patient regains consciousness and starts to gag. Your immediate action should be to:
A) leave the airway in but stop ventilations.
B) remove the oral airway.
C) suction the airway.
D) reassure and calm the patient.
Q2) You are starting to ventilate a patient with a laryngectomy and stoma. As you provide the first few ventilations, you note that the air passes easily into the patient, but does not cause the chest to rise. Your next action should be to:
A) seal the patient's mouth and nose.
B) suction the tracheostomy tube.
C) perform a head-tilt, chin-lift.
D) ventilate through the mouth and nose.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Baseline Vital Signs, Monitoring Devices, and History Taking
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123 Verified Questions
123 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
A) "Why did you call 911?"
B) "Does your chest hurt?"
C) "Are you dizzy?"
D) "Did you take your medications today?"
Q2) As you enter the scene of a medical emergency, the Emergency Medical Responder informs you that the patient is not breathing and has pupils that are fixed and dilated. Based on this description, which one of the following are you expecting to see when you reach the patient's side?
A) Both pupils are large and change shape to light.
B) The patient must wear corrective lenses.
C) The patient has a past medical history of blindness.
D) Neither pupil will react when light is directed into the eyes.
Q3) You determine a radial pulse is readily palpable, but has uneven intervals between beats. This would best be documented on the prehospital care report as:
A) bounding and regular.
B) prominent and bounding.
C) strong and irregular.
D) thready and regular.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Scene Size-Up
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are providing care to a patient with altered mental status in the midst of a large crowd gathered for a concert. Which characteristic of the crowd should concern you the most in relation to personal safety?
A) Angry mood growing within the crowd
B) A growing number of people making up the crowd
C) The growing size of the crowd as more people gather to watch you
D) Presence of alcohol and possible drugs in the crowd
Q2) A 67-year-old male, with a history of diabetes and previous heart attack, fell down three stairs. His chief complaint is pain and deformity to his right wrist. The EMT would classify the patient as a:
A) medical patient.
B) trauma patient.
C) medical and trauma patient.
D) special needs patient.
Q3) Of the following, who has personal protective equipment in place?
A) EMT with gloves, gown, and eye protection
B) Emergency Medical Responder with leather gloves and steel-toed boots
C) Firefighter with a self-contained breathing apparatus unit on
D) All of the above have personal protective equipment in place.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Patient Assessment
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are assessing a 4-year-old patient whose panicked mother states that she cannot wake him. The child is breathing but his eyes are closed. To best determine the child's mental status, you should first:
A) apply pressure to the child's nail beds.
B) say loudly, "Open your eyes!"
C) ask the mother how long the child has been asleep.
D) determine the child to be unresponsive.
Q2) When assessing a stable patient with a medical complaint, which piece of information will be obtained first and will help to guide the type of exam after the primary assessment has been completed?
A) Vital signs
B) Chief complaint
C) Level of consciousness
D) Past medical history
Q3) The "S" in SAMPLE stands for:
A) Significance
B) Severity
C) Sign
D) Seriousness
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Pharmacology Medication and Administration
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with severe chest pain hands you a bottle of nitroglycerin. After reading the label, you determine that the medication expired two months ago. You should:
A) administer two of the nitroglycerin tablets.
B) withhold the medication and transport.
C) administer the nitroglycerin orally.
D) place one tablet under the patient's tongue.
Q2) As an EMT, you may assist the patient in taking which of the following prescribed medications?
A) Inhalers used for difficulty breathing
B) Medications for high blood pressure
C) Drugs for heart-rhythm disorders
D) Seizure-control medications
Q3) You are assisting a patient with her metered-dose inhaler (MDI). In an effort to determine the exact name of the medication, it would be best for the EMT to:
A) ask the patient the name of the medication.
B) contact and describe the MDI to medical direction.
C) look up the medication using the Physician's Desk Reference (PDR).
D) find the medication name on the label on the metered dose inhaler.
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Chapter 15: Shock and Resuscitation
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is appropriate when two EMTs are performing CPR on an adult patient?
A) Compressions of at least 100 per minute
B) Airway reassessment after every 30 compressions
C) Compression to ventilation rate of 15:2
D) Delivery of ventilations while compressions are being provided
Q2) You are treating a patient with severe chest pain and believe she is in cardiogenic shock. As such, which of the following is most appropriate?
A) Supplemental oxygen
B) Application of the AED
C) Administration of nitroglycerin
D) Rapid transport with the patient supine
Q3) Within two minutes of going into cardiac arrest, an AED is applied, the patient is shocked, and a pulse is restored. The EMT should recognize that the heart was in:
A) ventricular fibrillation and now is in cardiac arrest.
B) asystole and now is in an organized rhythm.
C) ventricular fibrillation and now is in an organized rhythm.
D) ventricular fibrillation and now is in asystole.
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Chapter 16: Respiratory Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) An alert and oriented 45-year-old female patient is complaining of shortness of breath. Although her respiratory volume and rate are satisfactory, you note cyanosis in her fingertips. Which one of the following should be your next action?
A) Administer supplemental oxygen.
B) Assist respirations with the bag-valve mask.
C) Place a nasopharyngeal airway and assist respirations.
D) Move to the stretcher for immediate and rapid transport.
Q2) A patient, with a history of COPD, is breathing 32 times a minute. Her vital signs are: pulse 140, blood pressure 168/102, and SpO 98% on room air. You would classify this as:
A) apnea.
B) dyspnea.
C) bradypnea.
D) hypoxia.
Q3) How many breaths per minute is normal for a child who is breathing adequately?
A) 5 to 10
B) 15 to 30
C) 30 to 40
D) 40 to 45
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Chapter 17: Cardiovascular Emergencies
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106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing a patient with upper back pain, what assessment finding would make you very suspicious of a thoracic aortic dissection?
A) Lower back pain described as a constant ache
B) Dizziness when going from a supine to standing position
C) Different blood pressure readings in each arm
D) History of hypertension and lower back injury
Q2) When administering oxygen to a patient with chest pain, which of the following should be a guide to its use and maintenance?
A) Patient rating of pain
B) The respiratory rate
C) Pulse oximetry reading
D) The heart rate
Q3) Who is most likely to suffer a silent MI?
A) 55-year-old female with diabetes
B) 72-year-old male with syncopal episode
C) 60-year-old female with colon cancer
D) 48-year-old male with undiagnosed hypertension
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19
Chapter 18: Altered Mental Status, Stroke, and Headache
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient has altered mental status secondary from a brain tumor. The EMT would classify the brain tumor as what type of cause?
A) Central
B) Structural
C) Metabolic
D) Internal
Q2) When assessing a patient with stroke-like signs and symptoms, it is critical that the EMT also suspect and rule out what condition?
A) Narcotic overdose
B) Syncope
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Shock
Q3) An alert and oriented 69-year-old male has slight right-arm weakness but exhibits no deficits to the right leg. The EMT should consider the patient a:
A) non-priority transport since no paralysis exists.
B) priority only if the patient also has a low blood glucose level.
C) non-priority since he is alert and oriented.
D) priority for transport to a hospital with a stroke center.
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Chapter 19: Seizures and Syncope
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements about seizures is true?
A) Simple partial seizures do not cause an alteration in mental status.
B) The cause of most seizures is easily identified.
C) Generalized seizures last longer than partial seizures.
D) Complex partial seizures involve both cerebral hemispheres.
Q2) A 36-year-old diabetic male with hypertension has suffered a secondary seizure. The patient responds to verbal stimuli with garbled speech and his airway, breathing, and circulation are intact. Vital signs are: pulse 128, respirations 20 and adequate, blood pressure 158/96 mmHg, and SpO 97% on room air. At this time, it is important that the EMT:
A) administer oral glucose.
B) position the patient supine on the stretcher and transport.
C) check the patient's blood sugar.
D) administer high-concentration oxygen.
Q3) As a general rule, a postictal patient should be placed on the stretcher and transported in what position?
A) Supine
B) Semi-Fowler's
C) Lateral recumbent
D) Prone
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Chapter 20: Acute Diabetic Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diabetic patient is exhibiting rapid and deep respirations. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would expect to find:
A) hypoglycemia.
B) hypoxia.
C) fever and tachycardia.
D) elevated blood glucose.
Q2) You have arrived on the scene of a 64-year-old diabetic patient. He is supine in bed and exhibits snoring respirations. Family members state that they just tested his blood sugar and it is 25 mg/dL. Which one of the following should be your immediate action?
A) Prepare and administer oral glucose.
B) Have family recheck the blood sugar.
C) Determine what the patient has eaten.
D) Perform the head-tilt, chin-lift.
Q3) What is a glucometer used to evaluate?
A) Glucose levels
B) Insulin levels
C) Glucogen levels
D) Insulin and glucose levels
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Chapter 21: Anaphylactic Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are responding to a call for an allergic reaction. Your partner is a new EMT and this is his first call. When prepping him for what might lie on scene, what instruction regarding the assessment and treatment of an allergic reaction and/or anaphylaxis would be correct?
A) "If the allergic reaction was caused by exposure to chocolate or eggs, we will not be able to administer epinephrine."
B) "Epinephrine really should be given to any patient suffering even a mild allergic reaction to prevent anaphylaxis."
C) "Our first priority will not be to determine what caused the allergic reaction, but to treat the patient according to his or her symptoms."
D) "If the allergic reaction was caused by food, we will need to administer activated charcoal."
Q2) What statement would you agree with regarding both anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reactions?
A) Anaphylaxis is caused by medications; anaphylactoid reactions are not.
B) Administering epinephrine in an anaphylactoid reaction can be fatal.
C) Both anaphylactoid and anaphylactic reactions are treated the same.
D) Anaphylactoid reactions seldom involve the airway while anaphylaxis does.
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Chapter 22: Toxicologic Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which of the following patients would you be most concerned about exposure to cyanide?
A) Auto mechanic working near exhaust fumes
B) Coal miner working long hours in a mine
C) Worker who paints cars in an auto body shop
D) Firefighter battling a smoky structure fire
Q2) You have been called to a residence for a 14-year-old male who states that he intentionally took some medication to kill himself. Assessment indicates that he is alert, oriented, and has an open airway and adequate breathing. Given the situation, it is imperative that the EMT's next action be:
A) ask the patient if he feels nauseated.
B) determine what was taken.
C) check the radial pulse and skin.
D) inquire why the patient took the medication.
Q3) When treating a patient for an overdose, the highest priority of care is placed on:
A) managing the airway and breathing.
B) determining what and how much drug was taken.
C) establishing the patient's risk for suicide.
D) contacting law enforcement.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Abdominal, Hematologic, Gynecologic,
Genitourinary, and Renal Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with sickle cell crisis will most likely complain of:
A) high fever.
B) diarrhea.
C) severe pain.
D) blood-tinged urine.
Q2) Assessment of a confused and lethargic patient with diabetes and renal failure reveals her to be lying in bed with notable significant edema to the face, torso, and extremities. Her respirations are extremely labored and associated with a "grunting" sound. Her airway is patent, radial pulse weak, and skin cool and diaphoretic with cyanosis noted to the fingers. Oxygen has been applied by Emergency Medical Responders (EMRs). Your next action would be to:
A) obtain vital signs.
B) sit the patient upright.
C) place a nasal airway.
D) check her blood glucose level.
Q3) The EMT would recognize the profession of urology as applying to:
A) all organs in the pelvic cavity.
B) the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra.
C) a female's urinary and reproductive organs.
Page 25
D) the urinary organs as well as the penis and vagina.
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Chapter 24: Environmental Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical direction has ordered you to begin rewarming an unresponsive patient with a core temperature of 93°F. Which one of the following measures would best benefit this patient?
A) Give him warm fluids to drink to increase internal body temperature.
B) Gently massage the patient's arms and legs.
C) Wrap the patient in several warm blankets.
D) Place one extremity at a time in warm water.
Q2) Which one of the following best describes a patient suffering an environmental emergency?
A) Young female who slipped on ice and has pain and deformity to her left arm
B) Male patient who fell into a stream and sustained a laceration to the head after hitting a rock
C) Female who is sick and vomiting after eating potato salad at an outdoor church picnic
D) Intoxicated male patient who collapsed in the snow and is complaining that he feels cold
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Chapter 25: Submersion Incidents: Drowning and Diving Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 24-year-old intoxicated female patient was pulled from a pool by hotel personnel. The primary assessment reveals her airway to be open and her breathing adequate. Her radial pulse is strong but fast and she is persistently coughing. Vital signs are pulse 144, respirations 24, blood pressure 166/100; and SpO2 93%. Which one of the following would be considered appropriate in the care of this patient?
A) Abdominal thrusts to remove water from the lungs
B) Supplemental oxygen through a nasal cannula
C) Deep oral suctioning to remove water from the airway
D) Precautionary application of the automated external defibrillator
Q2) A fisherman fell through the ice and was submerged in a lake for approximately 4 minutes before being pulled out by friends. You find the man to be unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. Which one of the following should you do immediately?
A) Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
B) Apply the automated external defibrillator.
C) Immobilize the patient.
D) Determine the patient's core temperature.
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Chapter 26: Behavioral Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are called by a husband who states that his wife is bipolar and in need of help at the hospital. Which presentation would make the most sense related to this disorder?
A) Distortion of speech and thought
B) Thoughts of persecution
C) Depressed and not wanting to talk
D) Paranoid with thoughts of persecution
Q2) A male patient with a history of behavioral problems continually smacks his lips, sticks his tongue out, and turns his head to the left. His arm also jerks upward regularly. Which statement, made by a caregiver, would an EMT recognize as most important and relating to this presentation?
A) "He refused to take his morning medications."
B) "He can be very delusional at times."
C) "He has been on psych medications for many years."
D) "Lately, he will only eat potato chips for breakfast."
Q3) A patient experiencing command hallucinations would most likely tell you:
A) his arm is stiff and cannot be bent.
B) his arm is infected with worms and parasites.
C) his arm smells like rotten meat and is dead.
D) his arm must be amputated so he will not die.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Trauma Overview: the Trauma Patient and the Trauma System
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42711
Sample Questions
Q1) You have arrived on the scene of an explosion in a warehouse used to store fertilizers. A paramedic, who has already triaged the nine patients involved, directs you to a young man sitting under a tree. The man states that he is having excruciating ear pain. The initial assessment and rapid trauma assessment reveal no obvious injuries. Given this presentation, the EMT would recognize which of the following?
A) Inner ear damage caused by the noise of the explosion
B) Primary phase blast injury to the inner ear
C) Secondary blast injury to the inner ear
D) Ear damage caused by exposure to superheated air
Q2) After assessing the following patients, which would the EMT identify as suffering from multisystem trauma?
A) 24-year-old male; slipped on ice; tenderness to the right shoulder
B) 61-year-old male; became dizzy and fell down five stairs; laceration to the head; open fracture to the left lower leg
C) 31-year-old female; large laceration to her leg from a hunting knife; bleeding controlled
D) 89-year-old female fell in a nursing home; hematoma to the back of her head
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Bleeding and Soft Tissue Trauma
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42712
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT is by the side of a young female who was cut while washing dishes. She has a jagged laceration to her left forearm that is bleeding steadily and heavily. When attempting to control the bleeding, the EMT would first:
A) tightly wrap roller gauze around a large sterile dressing placed over the top of the injury.
B) apply direct pressure to the elbow to slow the flow of blood into the distal arm.
C) place a large sterile dressing over the site with hand pressure applied over the top of the dressing.
D) wrap the injury site tightly with roller gauze and apply a tourniquet above the laceration.
Q2) You arrive at a meat packing plant to find a 30-year-old male cut in the wrist with a sharp knife. The patient appears pale and blood is spurting from the laceration. Your immediate action would be to:
A) assess and manage the airway.
B) apply direct pressure to the laceration.
C) provide supplemental oxygen.
D) check the pulse and blood pressure.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Burns
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42713
Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old waitress spilled hot coffee and burned her right forearm. When assessing the burn, you note a full-thickness burn surrounded by partial-thickness burns. She complains of pain in the surrounding partial-thickness burn, but not in the center where the full-thickness burn is located. As an EMT, you recognize that the patient does not localize pain to the center of the burn because of:
A) destruction of pain receptors in the epidermis.
B) injury to pain receptors in the subcutaneous layer.
C) damage to pain receptors located in the dermis.
D) destruction of the epidermal nerve endings.
Q2) When triaging multiple burn patients, the EMT would recognize which as suffering the most critical burn?
A) 41-year-old with a partial-thickness burn to the upper left arm
B) 22-year-old with a partial-thickness burn to the right hand
C) 58-year-old with a scald burn to the anterior chest
D) 12-year-old with a superficial burn to the neck and chest
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Chapter 30: Musculoskeletal Trauma and Nontraumatic
Fractures
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42714
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient with osteoporosis stepped sideways on her foot and has suffered an open tibial fracture to the distal portion of her right leg. Which one of the following interventions indicates that appropriate care is being given for this injury?
A) The protruding bone is gently replaced back under the skin.
B) The EMT cleans dirt from within the wound and off the bone prior to splinting.
C) A pressure dressing is tightly applied to the open wound prior to splinting.
D) The bone end and soft tissue wounds are covered with a sterile dressing.
Q2) The EMT recognizes that a benefit of applying a traction splint to a deformed femur and thigh is that it:
A) corrects the fracture.
B) decreases pain.
C) increases perfusion to the muscle.
D) contracts the thigh muscles.
Q3) Which of the following bodily activities is a function of a voluntary muscle?
A) Contraction of the heart
B) Movement of food through the intestines
C) Blinking of the eyes
D) Protection of the abdominal organs
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Chapter 31: Head Trauma
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42715
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called to the local community hospital for a 48-year-old male involved in a motor vehicle collision 2 hours prior. He has been diagnosed with a cerebral contusion and must be transported to a trauma center for specialty care. As a knowledgeable EMT, you recognize that a cerebral contusion is:
A) an open skull fracture with increased pressure in the skull.
B) the formation of a pocket of blood within the brain tissue.
C) bruising and swelling of the brain tissue.
D) active bleeding between the brain and the skull.
Q2) A patient involved in an altercation has been struck on the side of the head with a baseball bat, in addition to suffering several blows to the arms and legs. When assessing this patient, which of the following signs or symptoms best indicates the patient has suffered a brain injury?
A) Confusion and combativeness
B) Complaint of a headache
C) Ecchymosis to the side of the face
D) Weakness to both arms
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Chapter 32: Spinal Column and Spinal Cord Trauma
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42716
Sample Questions
Q1) A football player was struck in the head and is complaining of a headache and nausea. He also states that he has pain to his upper back and tingling in his left hand. The EMT is providing proper care for the patient when he:
A) removes the helmet to better assess the airway and head.
B) leaves the helmet in place but removes the face mask.
C) removes the shoulder pads to apply a cervical collar.
D) does not place the patient on a long board due to the presence of shoulder pads.
Q2) A motorcyclist wearing a full helmet was thrown from his motorcycle after hitting a patch of oil. The bike had been traveling at a high rate of speed. Manual in-line spinal stabilization is being held by an off-duty EMT. The primary assessment reveals the patient to be responsive to painful stimuli and breathing rapidly. His radial pulse is weak and fast. As you quickly scan his body, you note deformity to the left femur and lower leg.
Your immediate action should be to:
A) apply a cervical collar.
B) place a nonrebreather face mask.
C) remove his helmet.
D) expose his left lower extremity.
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Chapter 33: Eye, Face, and Neck Trauma
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42717
Sample Questions
Q1) 911 was dialed by a frantic mother for her 3-year-old daughter who stuck a small, dried bean into her ear. Assessment shows the bean to be lodged firmly in the ear canal.
When treating this patient, the EMT would:
A) make one attempt to remove the bean with tweezers.
B) gently flush the ear canal with sterile water until the bean is dislodged.
C) reassure the mother and transport the patient.
D) have the patient follow up with her family physician.
Q2) A patient with hyphema would exhibit:
A) deformity of the sclera.
B) edema of the globe.
C) disfigurement of the eye.
D) blood in the eye chamber.
Q3) Which of the following statements made by an EMT indicates an understanding of facial anatomy and injuries?
A) "The face has little blood supply but will readily swell when injured."
B) "Airway compromise is not a concern unless the neck is also injured."
C) "Injury to the eye(s) takes precedence over any and all other injuries."
D) "The only movable bone making up the face is the mandible."
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Chapter 34: Chest Trauma
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42718
Sample Questions
Q1) An Emergency Medical Responder asks you to explain a pneumothorax. You would explain that a pneumothorax occurs when:
A) the lung becomes overinflated with air and collapses.
B) air accumulates around the lung, causing a portion of it to collapse.
C) the trachea becomes obstructed, causing the lungs to collapse.
D) air enters the lung and alveoli from a traumatic opening in the chest wall.
Q2) A middle-aged male has been stabbed once in the left anterior chest. His airway is patent, respirations tachypneic, pulse weak and rapid, and skin cool and diaphoretic. Breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. The vital signs are: pulse 140, respirations 24, blood pressure 100/78 mmHg, and SpO 96% on supplemental oxygen. Given this presentation, you would have a high index of suspicion for:
A) pneumothorax.
B) hemothorax.
C) flail segment.
D) pericardial tamponade.
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Chapter 35: Abdominal and Genitourinary Trauma
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42719
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient who suffered a straddle injury while trying to balance on top of a chain link fence continues to bleed from the vaginal area despite your initial attempt to control the hemorrhage. At this time, you would:
A) apply an ice pack wrapped in a towel to the genital area.
B) gently put sterile gauze dressings into the opening of the vaginal canal.
C) place another dressing over the first and maintain direct pressure.
D) clean the area with sterile saline and reapply direct pressure.
Q2) While cleaning a window, the glass broke and a sharp piece sliced the groin of a 43-year-old man. Assessment shows him to have a large laceration to his left scrotum, with a testicle exposed and protruding through the sac. Blood is pouring from the laceration and the patient rates the pain as an 8/10. Which of the following should be done first?
A) Apply direct pressure to the injury.
B) Provide oxygen at 15 liters per minute.
C) Call for advanced life support assistance.
D) Cover the exposed testicle with moist dressing.
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Chapter 36: Multisystem Trauma and Trauma in Special Patient Populations
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42720
Sample Questions
Q1) A 31-year-old unrestrained pregnant female has been involved in an MVC and is complaining of chest and abdominal pain after striking the steering wheel. She is conscious, alert, and oriented with no deficits noted to the airway, breathing, or circulation. When asking her questions regarding her status, what questions should you ask first?
A) "Have there been any problems with previous pregnancies?"
B) "Are you receiving prenatal care from an obstetrician?"
C) "Do you feel as though you are having contractions?"
D) "Is there a reason as to why you were not wearing a seat belt?"
Q2) Assessment of a 79-year-old female with a long history of medical complaints reveals tenderness and deformity to her left hip. Staff at the personal care home state that she slipped in some water and fell onto her buttocks. Currently, she is alert and oriented and stating the pain is 10/10. Regarding care of her leg, which one of the following is most appropriate?
A) Apply traction with a traction splint until the pain subsides.
B) Straighten the leg and splint it in that position.
C) Determine the presence of a pedal pulse, and then apply the traction splint.
D) Maintain the leg in the position found and transfer to a long spine board.
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Chapter 37: Obstetrics and Care of the Newborn
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42721
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT would use the sterile scissors found in the OB kit to cut which of the following?
A) Towels to create a sterile field
B) Umbilical cord
C) Patient's clothing
D) Amniotic sac (if not ruptured)
Q2) You have been dispatched to a residence for a female patient who is dizzy and "passing out." An Emergency Medical Responder meets you at the door and reports that the patient is lying in bed and is nine months pregnant. Her pulse rate is 112 and her blood pressure is 84/50 mmHg. Respirations are 24 per minute and she has a room air pulse oximetry reading of 97%. Which one of the following should you do as soon as you reach the patient's side?
A) Recheck the blood pressure.
B) Roll her onto her side.
C) Determine any complications of the pregnancy.
D) Start positive pressure ventilation.
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Chapter 38: Pediatrics
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42722
Sample Questions
Q1) You are assessing a 12-year-old female in respiratory distress and a history of asthma. What statement, made by her mother, would be most concerning?
A) "The doctor stopped her prescription for steroids."
B) "Two years ago she needed to have a breathing tube in her throat."
C) "Her asthma started bothering her last night."
D) "There is a history of asthma on her father's side of the family."
Q2) A 2-month-old presents with labored breathing, fever, and coughing. Auscultation of the lungs reveals significant wheezing bilaterally. Based on this presentation, an EMT would recognize that the patient is most likely suffering from:
A) asthma.
B) epiglottitis.
C) bronchiolitis.
D) croup.
Q3) The EMT is properly assessing the breathing of a 3-year-old when he:
A) counts the respiratory rate for 15 seconds and multiplies by 4.
B) counts the respiratory rate for 30 seconds and multiplies by 2.
C) counts the respiratory rate for 15 seconds and observes chest rise and fall.
D) counts the respiratory rate for 10 seconds and multiplies by 6.
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Chapter 39: Geriatrics
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42723
Sample Questions
Q1) You have just arrived by the side of an elderly patient who took excessive amounts of his daily medications after becoming confused about what to take and when. Which one of the following is the immediate priority in caring for this patient?
A) Determine what medications were taken and how much.
B) Determine the patient's past medical history.
C) Gather up all medications for transport with the patient.
D) Evaluate and support the patient's airway and breathing.
Q2) You have been summoned for a diabetic patient with altered mental status. What sign would cause you to suspect that the patient is suffering from hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)?
A) Blood glucose level of 52 mg/dL
B) Inability to urinate
C) Complaint of thirst and dry mouth
D) Fruity smell on his breath
Q3) When assessing a geriatric patient for pneumonia, the EMT must remember that:
A) a cough with bloody sputum is typically observed.
B) hypotension is commonly associated with the infection.
C) a normal body temperature may be observed.
D) chest pain and chills are almost always present.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Patients With Special Challenges
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42724
Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing a dialysis patient and his AV graft, which one of the following is of most concern?
A) Feeling of a vibration through the graft
B) Palpable pulse in the graft
C) Red and hot skin at the graft site
D) Strong radial pulse distal to the graft
Q2) On scene, you must lead a patient's visually impaired wife from the house to the ambulance. This is best accomplished by:
A) verbally instructing her past obstacles.
B) physically carrying her to the ambulance.
C) placing her hand on the stretcher for guidance.
D) placing her hand on your shoulder.
Q3) A patient with a past history of quadriplegia from a 4-wheeler accident would most likely be unable to:
A) speak.
B) hold utensils.
C) see peripherally.
D) turn his head.
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42
Chapter 41: The Combat Veteran
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42725
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT would suspect that a patient suffers from a traumatic brain injury (TBI), as opposed to post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) when he observes:
A) relationship problems.
B) confusion and disorientation.
C) anxiety and anger.
D) left arm amputation.
Q2) The four essential features of post-traumatic stress disorder include:
A) chronic confusion.
B) unexplained attraction to war memorabilia.
C) feelings of anger.
D) migration to crowds for security.
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding post-traumatic stress disorder?
A) There is no cure for the post-traumatic stress disorder.
B) All military veterans will eventually become debilitated from PTSD.
C) The symptoms of PTSD are evident within 6 months of an event.
D) PTSD can be cured with timely intervention and medication use.
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43
Chapter 42: Ambulance Operations and Air Medical Response
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42726
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following actions is appropriate when using a helicopter on the scene of an emergency?
A) Always approach the helicopter from the front and never from behind.
B) Point a spotlight at the helicopter to indicate the location of the landing zone.
C) Always approach the helicopter from behind and never from the front.
D) Keep all EMS and rescuer personnel at least 50 feet from the helicopter as it lands.
Q2) When an EMT is driving an ambulance in emergency mode (lights and sirens), most states do not permit the EMT to:
A) proceed through a red light without stopping.
B) drive in the wrong direction down a one-way street.
C) turn in any direction at an intersection.
D) pass other vehicles in a no-passing zone.
Q3) The use of high-visibility vests when operating on a roadway is a requirement of the:
A) federal government.
B) state EMS department.
C) medical director.
D) state department of highways.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Gaining Access and Patient Extrication
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42727
Sample Questions
Q1) You are on scene of a serious motor vehicle collision. As the officer in charge, which one of the following instructions for other rescuers is most appropriate?
A) "Let's make sure to put cones around the cars."
B) "We need to route passing traffic no more than 20 feet around the scene."
C) "Park the ambulance downhill to make movement of the patient easier."
D) "Let's stop all traffic and reroute it to alternative roadways."
Q2) A car has struck a utility pole at a high rate of speed. The male driver appears to be unresponsive with snoring respirations. The vehicle has just been stabilized, and you have donned the appropriate personal protective equipment. Which one of the following should you do next?
A) Perform a jaw-thrust airway maneuver.
B) Place a tarp over some spilled antifreeze.
C) Take manual spinal stabilization.
D) Apply a cervical collar to his neck.
Q3) Which one of the following situations represents simple access to a patient?
A) Unlocking a car door by breaking the window using a screwdriver
B) Forcing entry into a house
C) Climbing stairs to gain access to a patient on a porch
D) Extrication of a patient from a car after removing one door
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Hazardous Materials
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42728
Sample Questions
Q1) While he is moving a container of a radioactive liquid, some of the liquid splashed onto the technician's arm. This situation is best be described as:
A) exposure.
B) contamination.
C) exposure with contamination.
D) exposure with beta injury.
Q2) Which one of the following statements shows that the EMT has a proper understanding of basic operations at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency?
A) "Life or health should never be risked if the threat is only to the environment."
B) "It is critical to remove the patients as quickly as possible from the incident site."
C) "If you cannot see or smell a chemical, the chance of one being present is very low."
D) "Identification of the material is not important, since the approach is the same for all materials."
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Chapter 45: Multiple-Casualty Incidents and Incident Management
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42729
Sample Questions
Q1) At the scene of a multiple-casualty drill, you have been assigned to the role of Transport Unit leader. As such, your responsibility is:
A) ensuring proper care for each patient.
B) distributing patients to each medical facility.
C) immobilizing all patients prior to transport.
D) ensuring that patients in cardiac arrest leave for the hospital first.
Q2) You are in charge of triage at a scene involving 30 patients exposed to carbon monoxide. You find a 6-year-old boy who is not breathing. You open his airway and find that breathing does not return. Furthermore, you cannot locate a radial pulse. You should:
A) provide 15 seconds of positive pressure ventilation.
B) place a black tag on the patient and move to the next.
C) provide 15 seconds of CPR and recheck for a radial pulse.
D) apply oxygen and check the patient's mental status.
Q3) A problem with the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system of triage is it:
A) is difficult to apply to young children.
B) requires at least 10 rescuers.
C) is only used for traumatic injuries.
D) can be complex and difficult to use.
Page 47
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Chapter 46: Ems Response to Terrorism Involving Weapons
of Mass Destruction
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42730
Sample Questions
Q1) A chemical agent used by terrorists is described as having a high volatility. You should recognize this as meaning that the chemical is:
A) highly radioactive.
B) easily evaporated.
C) very explosive.
D) in liquid form.
Q2) For the patient exposed to a nerve agent, which of the following signs would the EMT expect?
A) Dilated pupils
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Decreased body temperature
D) Increased salivation
Q3) A patient has an injury to his arm caused by an unknown vesicant. After assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation, you should:
A) brush the powder from the skin.
B) apply a wet sterile dressing to the arm.
C) flush the injured area with water.
D) transport the patient to the hospital immediately.
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Chapter 47: ALS-Assist Skills
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42731
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT recognizes that the IV catheter is used to:
A) connect the IV needle and IV solution.
B) control the volume of fluid the patient receives.
C) access the patient's vein.
D) pierce the IV solution bag.
Q2) Your partner works as a registered nurse in a local emergency department, but also volunteers as an EMT with a community EMS service. Given his background, which of the following would require immediate intervention by the supervisor or yourself?
A) Applies the cardiac monitor
B) Starts a small IV
C) Applies (continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
D) Titrates oxygen from low-concentration to high-concentration
Q3) When performing a 3-lead ECG, how would you place the electrodes?
A) Right anterior chest, left anterior chest, right lower chest
B) Right anterior chest, right lower chest, left lower chest
C) Right anterior chest, mid chest over heart, left lower chest
D) Right anterior chest, left anterior chest, left lower chest
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Chapter 48: Advanced Airway Management
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49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42732
Sample Questions
Q1) As the trachea extends from the upper portion of the airway, it splits at the carina into the:
A) alveoli.
B) bronchi.
C) vallecula.
D) epiglottis.
Q2) You are ventilating an intubated patient who suffered multisystem trauma. While the paramedic with whom you are working is starting an IV, you both glance at the capnometer device and see that the numeric display is dropping quickly. If there has been no change in ventilatory rate or depth, what could be another cause for this end-tidal carbon dioxide change?
A) There is a drop in blood flow to the lungs from the heart.
B) Patient's blood pressure is rising.
C) Patient's lungs are receiving too much oxygen.
D) The body's metabolic activity is finally starting to improve.
Q3) An endotracheal tube is properly placed when the distal end lies in the:
A) esophagus.
B) bronchus.
C) trachea.
D) lungs.
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