Prehospital Trauma Life Support
Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Prehospital Trauma Life Support (PHTLS) is a comprehensive course designed to impart critical knowledge and skills necessary for assessing and managing trauma patients in the prehospital setting. It emphasizes evidence-based practices that optimize patient survival and outcomes, focusing on rapid assessment, effective interventions, and priority-based transport decisions. The course integrates theoretical understanding of trauma pathophysiology with hands-on practical applications, preparing participants such as paramedics, EMTs, nurses, and other first responders to deliver high-quality trauma care in a variety of emergency situations. PHTLS encourages a systematic approach to trauma care, utilizing current protocols and algorithms to ensure efficient and coordinated response from the scene to definitive care.
Recommended Textbook
Emergency Care 13th Edition by Daniel J. Limmer
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39 Chapters
1984 Verified Questions
1984 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Emergency Medical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A written authorization for an EMS provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation is a(n):
A) on-line protocol.
B) standard of care.
C) direct medical order.
D) standing order.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance?
A) Emergency department
B) Emergency medical services system
C) Surgical services department
D) Emergency medical dispatch center
Answer: A
Q3) Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs?
A) To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted
B) To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan
C) To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence
D) To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Well-Being of the Emt
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Sample Questions
Q1) What reference provides important information regarding hazardous materials,emergency care,and procedures in case of accidental fire or release; supplies definitions of placard colors and identification numbers; and should be standard issue on-board all ambulances and rescue units?
A) Accidental Exposure and Contamination Guide
B) Emergency Response Guidebook
C) Emergency Preparedness and Response Plan
D) Safety Data Sheets
Answer: B
Q2) An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients?
A) A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration
B) A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris
C) A patient who is actively coughing
D) A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Lifting and Moving Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes an urgent move?
A) Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board
B) Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt
C) Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher
D) Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following should you use when you want to move a patient from a wheelchair to a stretcher?
A) Ground transfer
B) Extremity lift
C) Clothing lift
D) Modified direct lift
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is used to immobilize a patient with a suspected spinal injury?
A) Portable stretcher
B) Long backboard
C) Basket stretcher
D) Scoop stretcher
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Medicallegal and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest?
A) The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician.
B) The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents documentation of the patient's wishes.
C) Family members request that nothing be done.
D) All of the above
Q2) In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided to a patient?
A) The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the patient.
B) The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend.
C) The patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone.
D) You are asked by a coworker who knows the patient.
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6
Chapter 5: Medical Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following BEST describes the location of the mid-axillary line?
A) A line from the center of the armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest
B) A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel
C) A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other, across the front of the body
D) A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone
Q2) Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position?
A) Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent
B) Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head
C) Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward
D) Standing in profile with the hands on the hips
Q3) A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following?
A) Two fractures in the same femur
B) A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma
C) A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh
D) Fractures of both femurs
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Chapter 6: Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following is the primary function of the stomach?
A) Production of bile
B) Absorption of water from food products
C) Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions
D) Absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream
Q2) Which organ secretes insulin after a person eats a large meal?
A) Gallbladder
B) Spleen
C) Liver
D) Pancreas
Q3) Which of the following is NOT part of the upper extremities?
A) Carpals
B) Calcaneus
C) Clavicle
D) Scapula
Q4) Which of the following is NOT part of the lower extremity?
A) Femur
B) Carpals
C) Pelvis
D) Patella
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Ventilation, perfusion, and Shock: Understanding Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon dioxide is transported back to the lungs in two ways: via the red blood cells and:
A) white blood cells.
B) oncotic pressure.
C) hydrostatic pressure.
D) plasma.
Q2) You respond to a patient who is choking.The victim is suffering from the most common of airway obstructions.This would indicate that the problem is in the ________ airway.
A) upper
B) bronchial
C) lower
D) alveoli
Q3) Injuries to the brain and spinal cord,sepsis,and severe allergic reactions can cause what similar cardiovascular problem?
A) Increased SVR
B) Loss of tone
C) Hypertension
D) Permeability
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called to a private residence where a 16-year-old female patient is reported by her parents to be "acting strangely" and possibly "on something." Upon your arrival,the patient is locked in her bedroom refusing to open the door.The patient refuses to speak to you and will only come out if her best friend is present.Your knowledge of life-span development indicates that the following characteristics are common with a patient of this age.
A) Depression and suicide
B) Preoccupation with body image
C) Self-destructive behaviors such as tobacco, alcohol, and drug use
D) All of the above
Q2) At which of the following stages is toilet-training most likely to begin?
A) Preschool age
B) Infant
C) Toddler
D) School age
Q3) Patients in late adulthood are likely to face which of the following challenges?
A) Self-worth
B) Hygiene
C) Tax burden
D) All of the above
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Chapter 9: Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) When inserting an oropharyngeal airway,how many degrees do you need to rotate the airway so the tip is pointing down into the patient's pharynx?
A) 45
B) 90
C) 180
D) 270
Q2) Which of the following patients should NOT have their airway opened using a head-tilt,chin-lift maneuver?
A) A 35-year-old diabetic woman who is in the driver's seat of the car in her driveway, who becomes unresponsive while speaking to her husband.
B) A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders.
C) A 50-year-old woman who choked on a piece of food while dining in a restaurant and was lowered to the floor by a waiter.
D) A 25-year-old man who is still unresponsive after a grand mal seizure.
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11
Chapter 10: Respiration and Artificial Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Concerning the use of humidified oxygen,which of the following is true?
A) It should only be used when assisting ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.
B) The water in the reservoir should be treated with chlorine tablets to prevent the growth of bacteria.
C) It is not of great benefit during short transports but can make the patient more comfortable.
D) The water reservoir should be changed on a weekly basis.
Q2) To calculate the minute volume,you need to multiply what two measurements?
A) Tidal volume and respiratory rate
B) Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate
C) Respiratory rate and bronchial dilation
D) Tidal volume and dead space air
Q3) Venturi masks are designed to mix oxygen with:
A) nitrogen.
B) inhaled air.
C) humidified air.
D) carbon monoxide.
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Chapter 11: Scene Size-Up
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Sample Questions
Q1) You and your partner respond to a residence for a fall.You arrive to find a group of approximately 30 adults surrounding a middle-aged man who appears to be unconscious.A police car pulls in behind you.You should:
A) wait for the police officer to assess the safety of the scene.
B) enter the scene ahead of the police officer to provide care.
C) leave the area and stage until the scene is cleared of people.
D) have the police officer drag the victim over to the ambulance.
Q2) You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire.You should ensure safety by:
A) borrowing turnout gear from the fire department.
B) remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out.
C) putting your unit back in service and leaving the scene.
D) using your fire extinguisher to put out the fire.
Q3) Which of the following BEST describes blunt-force trauma?
A) An object strikes the body, but it does not penetrate the body tissues.
B) The object is not sharp, but it penetrates the body when enough force is used.
C) The object penetrates soft tissue, but it cannot penetrate bone.
D) A rounded object impacts the body tissues.
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Chapter 12: The Primary Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the primary assessment of a responsive adult patient,where should the pulse be checked?
A) At the radial artery
B) At the femoral artery
C) At the brachial artery
D) At the carotid artery
Q2) Which of the following is the correct manner for checking for responsiveness in an apparently unresponsive infant?
A) Pinching the earlobe
B) Rubbing the sternum with your knuckles
C) Flicking the soles of the feet
D) Shaking the child
Q3) Which of the following differences should be expected when assessing a pediatric patient,as compared to the adult patient?
A) The normal pulse rate is slower.
B) Capillary refill is not as reliable an indicator of circulatory status.
C) The normal respiratory rate is faster.
D) An adult's tongue is proportionally larger than that of a child and should always be considered as a potential airway obstruction.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Vital Signs and Monitoring Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term cyanosis is used when the patient's skin color is noted to be which of the following characteristics?
A) Yellow
B) Blue-gray
C) Very pale
D) Flushed
Q2) You are called to care for a child who has fallen out of a third-story window.You arrive to find the child in his mother's arms.As you approach,you notice the child's skin is pale with dark spots of cyanosis.You would report this uncommon condition of blotchy skin as:
A) mottling.
B) flushed.
C) jaundiced.
D) cyanotic.
Q3) All of the following are common techniques for measuring blood pressure,except:
A) Palpation
B) Rhythm method
C) Blood pressure monitor
D) Auscultation
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Secondary Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are transporting a patient who has had her neck slashed from side to side.You and your partner are caring for the patient while a police officer drives you to the hospital,which is minutes away.You are focusing all of your efforts to maintain her airway and your partner is controlling her bleeding.Which of the following will you be unlikely to obtain?
A) Primary assessment
B) Patient's gender
C) Reassessment results
D) Pulse and respiratory rates
Q2) The patient was a driver in a lateral impact motor vehicle collision.During the assessment of his chest,the EMT notes a segment of the chest wall moving in the opposite direction from the rest of the chest.Which of the following BEST describes this finding?
A) Flutter segment
B) Tension pneumothorax
C) Paradoxical movement
D) Intercostal retractions
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16
Chapter 15: Communication and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following BEST describes the position you should take when dealing with a cooperative patient who is sitting in a chair?
A) Sit or kneel at the same level as the patient.
B) Stand behind the patient's chair.
C) Stand next to the chair.
D) Sit on the floor at the patient's feet.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a principle of proper radio usage in EMS?
A) Speak with your lips 2 to 3 inches from the microphone.
B) Speak as quickly as possible.
C) Use plain English.
D) Make sure the radio is on before speaking.
Q3) Which of the following agencies assigns and licenses radio frequencies?
A) United States Department of Transportation
B) Transportation Security Administration
C) Federal Trade Commission
D) Federal Communications Commission
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17
Chapter 16: General Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is activated charcoal,which is carried by some EMS systems,supplied for use in emergency situations?
A) As a powder, which is mixed with water before administration
B) As a gel or paste
C) As tablets
D) As a fine liquid spray for inhalation
Q2) A serious negative interaction for giving Nitrostat is a drug interaction with what medications?
A) Nitroglycerin, Ventolin, and epinephrine
B) Sildenafil, vardenafil, and epinephrine
C) Viagra, Levitra, or medication for erectile dysfunction
D) Oral glucose, Viagra, and aspirin
Q3) What is the most important medication that should be administered to a patient experiencing chest pain with difficulty breathing?
A) Oxygen
B) Aspirin
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Albuterol
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Chapter 17: Respiratory Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a benefit of using small-volume nebulizers for the treatment of respiratory problems?
A) They allow greater exposure of the patient's lungs to the medication.
B) The patient can easily carry this equipment in a purse or pocket.
C) Nebulized medications have fewer side effects than aerosolized medications from an inhaler.
D) They will work even when the patient's ventilations are inadequate.
Q2) Which of the following BEST defines inadequate breathing?
A) Wheezing noises when breathing
B) Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life
C) Breathing slower than normal
D) Breathing faster than normal
Q3) Which of the following is a sign of adequate artificial ventilations in a pediatric patient?
A) The breath is delivered easily.
B) Pulse rate slows down.
C) Pulse rate increases.
D) You notice cyanosis developing around the mouth.
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Chapter 18: Cardiac Emergencies
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Q1) You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest.CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied.The AED does not advise shock.What is your next intervention?
A) Stop CPR and place the patient in the recovery position.
B) Insert a Combitube.
C) Continue CPR.
D) Replace the malfunctioning AED.
Q2) Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of oxygen?
A) Angina pectoris
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Cardiac arrest
D) Heart failure
Q3) Which of the following BEST describes a fluttering sensation in the chest?
A) Pulseless electrical activity of the heart
B) Palpitations
C) Dysrhythmia
D) Tachycardia
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Chapter 19: Diabetic Emergencies and Altered Mental Status
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a standardized test to evaluate a conscious patient for possible stroke?
A) Michigan TIA Assessment
B) The Numbness-Aphasia-Paralysis (NAP) Test
C) Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale
D) The Functional Analysis Stroke Test
Q2) What is epilepsy?
A) A condition in which a person has multiple seizures usually controlled by medication.
B) A condition in which a person has an aura followed by seizure usually controlled by medication.
C) A condition caused by congenital brain abnormalities that causes seizures only twice a year.
D) A condition in which a person has general seizures that start in childhood.
Q3) The medical term for fainting is:
A) syncope.
B) altered RAS status.
C) dehydration.
D) vertigo.
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Chapter 20: Allergic Reaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs to blood vessels during an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Constriction
B) No change
C) Spasm
D) Dilation
Q2) Most epinephrine auto-injectors,except the Twinject,contain how many doses of epinephrine?
A) Two
B) Three
C) One
D) None of the above
Q3) If a patient was having a myocardial infarction,not an allergic reaction,and received an epinephrine auto-injection,which of the following would most likely occur?
A) Bradycardia
B) Stronger and faster heartbeat
C) No reaction if administered inadvertently
D) Relief of shortness of breath
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Chapter 21: Poisoning and Overdose Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) By definition,a systemic poison causes harm to which of the following?
A) Stomach and intestines
B) Localized areas of tissue
C) Specific organ system
D) Entire body
Q2) The drug ecstasy is classified as what type of drug?
A) Depressant
B) Hallucinogen
C) Barbiturate
D) Tranquilizer
Q3) Most cases of accidental poisoning involve which of the following?
A) Infants
B) Adults
C) Adolescents
D) Young children
Q4) Regarding activated charcoal,which of the following is NOT true?
A) Ingestion of strong acids or alkalis is a contraindication to its use.
B) It is an antidote to many poisons.
C) It can reduce the amount of poison absorbed by the gastrointestinal system.
D) It does not work on all poisons.
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Chapter 22: Abdominal Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You arrive on the scene to find an approximately 60-year-old male patient writhing on the floor.He is complaining of a tearing pain radiating to his lower back.He has absent femoral pulses and has a pulsatile mass just superior to his umbilicus.You suspect which of the following conditions?
A) Myocardial infarction
B) Abdominal aortic aneurysm
C) Acute pancreatitis
D) Ruptured appendix
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a cause of parietal pain?
A) Muscle spasm
B) Bleeding into the abdominal cavity
C) Inflammation
D) Infection
Q3) You respond to a 65-year-old patient complaining of abdominal pain.Your physical exam reveals a nonpulsating mass in the lower left quadrant.You suspect:
A) aortic abdominal aneurysm.
B) appendicitis.
C) splenic rupture.
D) hernia.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Behavioral and Psychiatric Emergencies and Suicide
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Q1) Which one of the following statements is NOT true?
A) In any given year, 26.2% of adult Americans suffer from a diagnosable mental disorder.
B) Almost 10% of the population of adult Americans has a mood disorder such as depression.
C) Just over 20% of the population of adult Americans has anxiety or panic issues.
D) It is very unusual for an EMT to be called for a psychiatric emergency.
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning forcible restraint of patients is true?
A) It is easily accomplished by two EMTs with a good plan.
B) This is necessary only with mentally ill individuals.
C) It causes irreparable emotional harm to most patients.
D) This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement.
Q3) When managing a patient who may hurt himself or others,you should do all of the following except:
A) make sure only you and the patient are in the room.
B) keep bystanders a safe distance away.
C) watch for sudden changes in the patient's behavior.
D) retreat if the patient becomes threatening.
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Chapter 24: Hematologic and Renal Emergencies
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Q1) Which of the following pathologies make patients at high risk for acute renal failure?
A) Polycystic kidney disease
B) Shock
C) Uncontrolled diabetes
D) Hypertension
Q2) The most frequently transplanted organ is the:
A) liver.
B) heart.
C) kidney.
D) pancreas.
Q3) You are dispatched to a private residence for a 52-year-old African American male sitting in his living room complaining of chest pain.During your assessment,he discloses that he has the sickle cell trait.Because of this you should:
A) administer high-concentration oxygen.
B) monitor for signs of inadequate respiration.
C) be prepared to treat for shock if he also has a high fever.
D) treat the patient as any other 52-year-old with chest pain.
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26
Chapter 25: Bleeding and Shock
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Q1) Which one of the following is incorrect in the application of a tourniquet?
A) The tourniquet should be placed approximately 2 inches above the bleeding.
B) The tourniquet should be 2 to 4 inches wide.
C) A blood pressure cuff can be used as a tourniquet.
D) If possible, the tourniquet should be placed on a joint.
Q2) Which of the following vessels contain blood under the highest amount of pressure?
A) Veins
B) Arteries
C) Venules
D) Capillaries
Q3) Which of the following is the most important reason for controlling external bleeding?
A) To prevent hypoperfusion
B) To prevent the spread of infectious diseases
C) To make clean-up of the ambulance and your equipment easier after the call
D) To prevent the patient from becoming upset at the sight of blood
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Chapter 26: Soft-Tissue Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is a 40-year-old man who was burned when he spilled gasoline on his pants as he was standing near the pilot light of his hot water heater.He has partial thickness burns from his feet to just above his knees,and circumferentially around both legs.Using the rule of nines,which of the following most accurately represents the extent of body surface area burned?
A) 18%
B) 9%
C) 36%
D) 4.5%
Q2) An injury caused by heavy pressure to the tissues,such as when an extremity is trapped under a fallen tree,that results in damage to muscle cells and the accumulation of waste products in the tissue is called a(n):
A) crush injury.
B) evisceration.
C) contusion.
D) abrasion.
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Chapter 27: Chest and Abdominal Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chest cavity can hold up to ________ liter(s)of blood in an adult,leading to the possibility of massive internal hemorrhage without any external blood loss.
A) 3
B) 5
C) 0.5
D) 1
Q2) You are caring for a 27-year-old male who has a puncture wound to the right upper chest.The patient was stabbed with a serrated steak knife by his ex-girlfriend.You have placed an occlusive dressing to the site and began emergent transport to the closest trauma center.However,while en route the patient begins to complain of increasing shortness of breath.You notice a decrease in ventilatory volume and an increase in thoracic diameter.Which of the following options would be the best step to perform next?
A) Free a corner or edge of the dressing and have the patient exhale to release pressure buildup. And re-seal the wound
B) Begin providing BVM-assisted ventilations to the patient.
C) Call dispatch for an ALS intercept en route to the hospital.
D) Begin providing CPR to the patient.
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Chapter 28: Musculoskeletal Trauma
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Q1) Your patient is an 11-year-old male who has a swollen,painful,and angulated right lower arm after falling from his bicycle onto his hands.Which of the following should be considered in the immobilization of his injured extremity?
A) Check pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting.
B) Immobilize from the shoulder to the wrist.
C) Use an upper extremity traction splint.
D) Do not attempt to realign the extremity before splinting.
Q2) Which of the following complications may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity?
A) Converting a closed fracture to an open one
B) Compromising circulation to the extremity
C) Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A) A fracture is any break in a bone.
B) A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place.
C) A greenstick break is an incomplete break in a bone.
D) An angulated break is when the broken bone is bent at an angle.
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30
Chapter 29: Trauma to the Head, neck, and Spine
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for the zygomatic bone?
A) Malar
B) Maxillae
C) Temporal
D) Mandible
Q2) Which of the following observations may the EMT use to rule out a spinal injury in a trauma patient?
A) Patient is able to walk at the scene.
B) There is a lack of mechanism of injury.
C) There is a lack of numbness and paralysis of the extremities.
D) Patient denies pain in his spine.
Q3) Your patient has been involved in a motor vehicle collision.He has a contusion on his forehead,is confused,and is bleeding from his nose.His heart rate is 90 beats per minute,blood pressure is 80/58 mmHg,respirations are 20 breaths per minute,and his skin is cool and clammy.Which of the following sets of injuries should you suspect?
A) Head injury, spine injury, and internal bleeding
B) Head injury
C) Head injury and spine injury
D) Head injury and internal bleeding
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Multisystem Trauma
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Q1) You are on the scene of a 50-year-old male who lacerated his arm on a sheet of plate glass.He is pale,diaphoretic,and mumbling incoherently.You have controlled an arterial bleed with direct pressure.His blood pressure is 70/40,pulse 120,and respiratory rate of 28.Which of the following signs is the most concerning?
A) Tachycardia
B) Altered mental status
C) Respiratory rate
D) Blood pressure
Q2) What are three elements of successful trauma care that field practitioners can use which will ultimately translate into greater rates of survival?
A) Teamwork, timing, and transport
B) Ground ambulances, air helicopters, and trauma centers
C) Lights, sirens, and diesel
D) Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury
Q3) What is the definition of multiple trauma?
A) A trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury.
B) A trauma in which there are multiple casualties.
C) A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies.
D) Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Environmental Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) When actively rewarming a frostbitten extremity in warm water,you should change the water when the temperature falls below ________ °F.
A) 115 to 120
B) 100 to 105
C) 85 to 95
D) 80 to 90
Q2) Which of the following types of snake is NOT a pit viper?
A) Water moccasin
B) Rattlesnake
C) Coral snake
D) Copperhead
Q3) Which of the following should the EMT do during the treatment of localized cold injury?
A) Encourage the patient to use the affected part.
B) Rub the affected area with snow.
C) Massage the affected area.
D) Gradually warm the affected area.
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Chapter 32: Obstetric and Gynecologic Emergencies
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Q1) Which of the following BEST describes the term crowning?
A) Complete dilation of the cervix
B) Presenting part of the baby being visible at the vaginal opening
C) Delivery of the head during a breech birth, completing delivery
D) Discharge of bloody mucus
Q2) While treating a patient of sexual assault,your treatment should follow which of the following sequences?
A) Treat immediate life threats, treat psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence.
B) Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, and treat only the secondary injuries that may become life threats to protect criminal evidence.
C) Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, treat medical and psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence.
D) Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, allow the patient to shower if the patient is capable to help treat psychological needs, and transport.
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Chapter 33: Pediatric Emergencies
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Q1) A 3-year-old child who burns both legs and arms has burned approximately ________% of his entire body surface area.
A) 54
B) 45
C) 72
D) 36
Q2) You are assessing a child who is having problems breathing.Her mother states that she has been diagnosed with asthma and has recently started using an inhaler.Which of the following would indicate early respiratory distress?
A) Cyanosis of the nail beds and lips
B) Slow heart rate
C) Respiratory rate of 12
D) Nasal flaring
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding the skin and body surface area of children as compared to adults?
A) The skin of a child is thicker.
B) Children have more subcutaneous fat.
C) Children have a larger body surface-to-weight ratio.
D) A child is not more prone than an adult to heat loss through the skin.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Geriatric Emergencies
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Q1) While assessing the mental status of an elderly patient who has been retired for several years,you notice he has difficulty answering your questions.He seems depressed.Based on this information,you should:
A) suspect a life-threatening neurological event.
B) acknowledge the patient's fears and try to put them in perspective.
C) consider his mental status as being decreased.
D) consider the need for advanced provider care.
Q2) A segment of the body associated with a specific nerve coming from the spinal cord,along which shingles can appear,is called a:
A) motor unit.
B) dermatome.
C) zoster.
D) myelin sheath.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a form of elder abuse or neglect?
A) Social
B) Physical
C) Psychological
D) Financial
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Chapter 35: Emergencies for Patients With Special Challenges
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Q1) Jarl is a male who is 5 foot 7 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds.What is Jarl's body mass index (rounded to the nearest tenth)?
A) 35.2
B) 36.5
C) 38.4
D) 39.1
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of child abusers of special need patients?
A) They rarely feel guilt or remorse.
B) They usually identify with the child's pain and suffering.
C) Alcohol and drug abuse is uncommon.
D) They usually want the child's injuries treated.
Q3) Which of the following is true in regards to touching a patient who is being shocked with an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)?
A) The EMT will always feel the shock, and it is very dangerous to the EMT as well.
B) The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient.
C) The EMT will always feel the shock, but it is not very painful.
D) It depends on the AICD model as to whether or not the EMT can feel the shock.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Ems Operations
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Q1) The medical acronym EMD stands for which of the following?
A) Emergency Medical Director
B) Emergency Medical Doctor
C) Emergency Medical Driver
D) Emergency Medical Dispatch
Q2) After responding to the scene of a patient complaining of difficulty breathing,you and your partner determine that the patient's condition is not life threatening based on a thorough assessment.You should transport the patient to an appropriate medical facility with:
A) the emergency lights on, but without activating the siren.
B) the emergency lights off, but activating the siren when traffic builds.
C) both lights and siren activated.
D) neither lights nor siren activated.
Q3) What is an appropriate-sized landing zone for a helicopter?
A) 25 feet by 25 feet
B) 50 feet by 50 feet
C) 75 feet by 75 feet
D) 100 feet by 100 feet
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Chapter 37: Hazardous Materials, multiple-Casualty
Incidents,
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Q1) You are called to a garden center where four shoppers have collapsed after a section of shelving fell and dumped hazardous products on the floor.When you arrive on the scene,you should:
A) think hazmat, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response.
B) think hazmat, dress in a Tyvek suit, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response.
C) secure the scene quickly, triage each patient, and move to fresh air.
D) think hazmat, dress in a Tyvek suit, access the scene to identify the spilled product, secure the MSDS sheets, and remove victims to fresh air.
Q2) Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies?
A) OSHA and EPA
B) DOT and FCC
C) NAEMT and NHTSA
D) NHTSA and NRC
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Chapter 38: Highway Safety and Vehicle Extrication
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Q1) Stabilizing a vehicle is unnecessary when a vehicle is on its roof with:
A) all roof supports collapsed.
B) the trunk lid in contact with the ground.
C) the front edge of the hood in contact with the ground.
D) the vehicle horizontal and resting entirely on the roof.
Q2) When disconnecting a battery cable to disrupt a vehicle's electrical system,the EMT should disconnect the:
A) positive cable from the battery.
B) negative cable from the battery.
C) positive cable from the alternator.
D) negative cable from the alternator.
Q3) The largest single hazard associated with EMS highway operations is:
A) explosion.
B) traffic flow.
C) power lines.
D) sharp objects.
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Chapter 39: Ems Response to Terrorism
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Q1) The extent of radiation depends on which of the following factors?
A) Duration of exposure
B) Distance from the source
C) Shielding from the source
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist violence?
A) Function of the target
B) Number of people present
C) Occurrence on the anniversary of a significant or symbolic historical event
D) All of the above
Q3) Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known as: A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) toxins.
D) biologicals.
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