Prehospital Care
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Prehospital Care focuses on the principles, practices, and protocols involved in delivering emergency medical care outside of hospital settings. The course covers the assessment and management of patients in various environments, scene safety, triage, emergency response techniques, and the use of life-saving interventions by first responders such as paramedics and emergency medical technicians (EMTs). Students will learn about the roles and responsibilities of prehospital care providers, communication with medical control centers, and collaboration with other emergency services to optimize patient outcomes during transport to healthcare facilities.
Recommended Textbook
Prehospital Emergency Care 10th Edition by Joseph J. Mistovich
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48 Chapters
2835 Verified Questions
2835 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Emergency Medical Care Systems, Research, and Public Health
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42685
Sample Questions
Q1) The county dispatch center where you work employs Emergency Medical Dispatchers (EMDs) as call takers. This enables the dispatch center to:
A) handle all emergency calls, including those for police, fire, and EMS.
B) provide medical instructions to the caller prior to the arrival of EMS.
C) use computer technology when dispatching the closest ambulance.
D) properly utilize an enhanced 911 call-taking system.
Answer: B
Q2) You have arrived on the scene of a medical emergency and find a woman lying on the floor of a grocery store. As you approach her, you know that your first priority as an EMT is:
A) personal safety.
B) patient care.
C) public safety.
D) patient advocacy.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Workforce Safety and Wellness of the Emt
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A distraught husband awoke to find his 26-year-old wife not breathing and cold to the touch. Since your assessment indicates that the woman has been dead for some time, you contact medical direction for authorization to withhold emergency care. The medical director agrees and the coroner is notified. At this time, your immediate responsibility is:
A) establishing the time of death.
B) preparing for the next call.
C) determining the cause of death.
D) providing supportive care to the husband.
Answer: D
Q2) You have been called to transport a patient from one medical facility to another. The patient has vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE), but does not have any open wounds and is medically stable. Which one of the following is most appropriate?
A) Place a surgical mask on the patient.
B) Place a surgical mask on the patient and yourself.
C) Use an N-95 respirator or HEPA mask.
D) Use the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE).
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are off duty and have come across a motor vehicle collision. A car has crashed head-on into a utility pole. There is moderate damage to the vehicle and the driver is walking about the scene. You stop and assess the patient. He has a large bruise on his arm and is complaining of abdominal pain where the seat belt contacted his body. Emergency Medical Responders (EMRs) are on scene and a responding ambulance has a 2-minute ETA. At this point, you realize that:
A) you cannot leave until another EMT or paramedic arrives to assume care.
B) you can leave the scene since the patient is stable and EMS is 2 minutes away.
C) you can only transfer care to a paramedic once he or she arrives on scene.
D) you can transfer care to EMRs since EMS is notified and 2 minutes from the scene.
Answer: A
Q2) The highest priority for the EMT working on a patient at the scene of a crime is:
A) preserving potential evidence.
B) ensuring personal safety.
C) administering quality patient care.
D) providing medical information to law enforcement.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Documentation
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements shows an accurate understanding of the legal aspects of the prehospital care report (PCR)?
A) "The PCR is considered a legal document only when it describes a crime or act of violence."
B) "A PCR can be used in a lawsuit only if that lawsuit is filed within six months."
C) "The PCR may be subpoenaed even if the case centers around alleged negligence that occurred in the emergency department."
D) "A copy of the PCR should be forwarded to the police any time law enforcement is involved in the call."
Q2) Consider the following narrative from a patient care report: "pt. restrained passenger involved in 2 car MVC; c/o left lower leg pain rated 2/10; LOC A/O to person, place, time, and event; BBS clear; abd. Soft with tenderness LLQ; hx of NIDDM with am glucose level of 133 mg/dL." Which of the following is true?
A) The patient's abdomen appears uninjured.
B) The patient is being tested for diabetes.
C) The patient is confused following the accident.
D) The patient's lungs sounds are clear and equal.
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6
Chapter 5: Communication
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is the most appropriate way to contact a receiving hospital to alert them that you are en route with a patient?
A) "Inbound with a 76-year-old male complaining of dizziness."
B) "St. Margaret's, can you take a report on a person with chest pain?"
C) "Dr. Jackson, this is EMT Mike Bennet, can you hear me?"
D) "St. Margaret's Hospital, this is BLS ambulance 17-64. How do you copy?"
Q2) While you are returning from lunch, a frantic woman flags you down and states that she just found a young child on the roadside who appears to have been hit by a car. She is not sure if the child is breathing. You should immediately:
A) grab equipment and get to the child's location.
B) advise dispatch that you have been flagged down for a possible emergency.
C) call for paramedic assistance and await their arrival.
D) inform the woman that she will need to calm down.
Q3) An effective and reliable communication system is essential to the EMT and the EMS system because:
A) a decrease in the number of lawsuits has been demonstrated.
B) EMTs are better able to assess patients.
C) hospitals can better prepare for the arrival of a patient.
D) the safety of an EMT is guaranteed on a dangerous scene.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lifting and Moving Patients
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37 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An obese patient cannot ambulate and must be carried down several flights of stairs. The patient exceeds your physical capabilities; however, your partner is very strong and physically fit. Which of the following statements, made by you, indicates the best means to safely lift and move the patient as well as minimize your opportunity of suffering an injury?
A) "When we move him, let's go slowly down the stairs."
B) "As long as I lean backward when moving him, we will be okay."
C) "To be safe, let's move him quickly and at one time down the stairs."
D) "We will have to call for assistance to get him from his house."
Q2) You and your partner are preparing to move a trauma patient down a flight of stairs using a portable stretcher. As you begin the move, a third EMT shows up and asks to help. Which one of the following instructions would be most appropriate to ensure a safe move for both the patient and crew?
A) "Please stand behind the EMT at the foot end and count steps for her."
B) "You can help by grasping the right side of the stretcher to keep it balanced."
C) "Come up and help me with the head end, since most of the weight is here."
D) "Stand behind us at the top of the stairs and let us know if you see any obstacles."
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Chapter 7: Anatomy, Physiology, and Medical Terminology
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86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient described as dysphagic presents as:
A) having a hard time breathing.
B) having difficulty swallowing.
C) being unable to speak.
D) exhibiting a painful cough.
Q2) A patient with dentalgia is suffering from a(n):
A) painful tooth.
B) throat infection.
C) inflammation of the tongue.
D) sinus infection.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the anatomical position?
A) Supine position with arms at the side and palms facing downward
B) Standing with the arms down at the side and palms facing forward
C) Prone position with arms upward and palms facing upward
D) Upright and facing backward with the arms raised and legs straight
Q4) An abrasion affects which part of the skin?
A) Epidermis
B) Dermal layer
C) Dermal and subcutaneous layers
D) Epidermal and dermal layers
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Chapter 8: Pathophysiology
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74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT would best recognize normal cellular metabolism as:
A) oxygenated.
B) aerobic.
C) glycolytic.
D) anaerobic.
Q2) Baroreceptors function in the body by:
A) monitoring the heart rate.
B) ensuring adequate oxygenation of the red blood cells.
C) monitoring the blood pressure.
D) stimulating the production of red blood cells.
Q3) Perfusion is best described as:
A) availability of oxygen to the lungs for placement into the blood.
B) an adequate amount of white blood cells to carry oxygen to the cells.
C) delivery of essential products and nutrients to the cell for its use.
D) exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and blood.
Q4) Which one of the following best describes the concept of afterload?
A) Pressure that the left ventricle must pump blood against
B) Ability of the heart to adequately contract and pump blood
C) Amount of blood that a person has in the arteries at any one given moment
D) Amount of blood returned to the lungs for oxygenation
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Life Span Development
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are at the residence of an alert and oriented 87-year-old female who is very short of breath but is refusing to go to the hospital. Rather, she wants you to treat her at home and then leave when she feels better. As an EMT knowledgeable of the characteristics and behaviors of this age group, you would become suspicious that her request is based on the fact that she:
A) may have Alzheimer's dementia and has yet to be diagnosed.
B) is concerned that she does not have the money to pay for the ambulance transport.
C) is concerned that she may be giving up the independence of living in her home.
D) does not trust those who are younger in age to take care of her.
Q2) You have received a grant to promote healthy living habits among the 20- to 40-year-old age group. Given the most common cause of death within this age group, which topic should be the focus of your program?
A) Safe driving
B) Cancer screening
C) Safe sex practices
D) Health heart living
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11
Chapter 10: Airway Management, Artificial Ventilation, and Oxygenation
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your paramedic partner has applied continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to a patient in respiratory distress from congestive heart failure (CHF). As an EMT, you realize that this should benefit the patient by:
A) reinflating portions of the lung that have collapsed.
B) causing the diaphragm to relax during inspiration.
C) removing air from the lungs during exhalation.
D) forcing fluid in the lungs back into the bloodstream.
Q2) Which one of the following statements about different sizes of oxygen cylinders is true?
A) H tanks are the smallest oxygen cylinders.
B) D cylinders hold the most oxygen.
C) G and E tanks have the same psi when full.
D) M tanks are the easiest to carry on the stretcher.
Q3) Which one of the following actions indicates that the EMT is correctly using a nonrebreather face mask on an adult patient?
A) He ensures that the reservoir fully collapses with each breath.
B) He instructs the patient to take deeper breaths when the mask is on.
C) He sets the oxygen flow rate to between 6 and 16 liters per minute.
D) He fully inflates the reservoir prior to placing it on the patient.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Baseline Vital Signs, Monitoring Devices, and History Taking
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123 Verified Questions
123 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following pieces of information would be obtained when getting a history using the SAMPLE mnemonic?
A) Pulse 144, respiration 16, BP 132/88
B) No life threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation
C) Reason for calling for an ambulance
D) Sensation of dizziness prior to falling
Q2) Which one of the following statements made by an EMT indicates an accurate understanding of checking a patient's skin temperature?
A) "Checking the skin temperature is not precise, but a good estimate of abnormally high or low body temperatures."
B) "To properly evaluate a patient's skin temperature during the primary assessment, the EMT needs a thermometer."
C) "It is important to remember that flushed skin always indicates a high body temperature."
D) "With experience, the EMT can precisely determine a patient's body temperature by feeling the skin."
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Chapter 12: Scene Size-Up
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) It has been reported that two people have been shot in an alleyway. As you pull onto the scene, you see a police officer standing over a person with blood on his shirt and pants. In this situation, your first priority is?
A) Assessing the patient's airway for patency
B) Determining the number of patients on scene
C) Considering the need for additional resources
D) Overall safety of the scene
Q2) A 67-year-old male who lives in an extremely "bad" neighborhood is experiencing chest pain. There are vacant homes throughout, including the homes to either side of his residence. Additionally, parked cars have forced you to park three houses away, making it necessary to walk and carry supplies to the residence. Which action is most appropriate as you approach and/or gain access to the patient's house?
A) Stand in front of the door while knocking to make your presence known.
B) Walk single file with your partner behind you carrying the medical bag.
C) Walk on the sidewalk instead of the grass to ensure steadier footing.
D) Hold a lit flashlight in front of you to illuminate shrubbery and trash cans.
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Chapter 13: Patient Assessment
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT shows she understands the importance and reason for forming a general impression when she states:
A) "The general impression permits a rapid diagnosis of the patient's problem."
B) "Forming a general impression allows me to fully assess the emergency situation."
C) "The general impression enables me to rule out any life-threatening conditions."
D) "Forming a general impression provides me with a rough idea of the patient's overall status."
Q2) A 41-year-old male patient has fallen from a second-story roof. He is complaining of right leg pain and pain to his pelvic region. When performing the secondary assessment on this patient, which one of the following should the EMT intentionally not perform?
A) Palpation of the patient's abdomen
B) Immobilization to a long spine board
C) Palpation of the pelvic region
D) Transporting the patient supine
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Chapter 14: Pharmacology Medication and Administration
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have administered Xopenex to a patient, using a small-volume nebulizer. You then notify medical direction that you have administered the drug. This is an example of which type of medical control?
A) On-line
B) Direct
C) Off-line
D) Retrospective
Q2) Which of the following is the most reliable source for information about a medication?
A) Nurses who routinely administer medications
B) Paramedics and Advanced EMTs
C) Physician's Desk Reference (PDR)
D) EMS-related magazines and websites
Q3) Which would be most important when administering aspirin to a patient with chest pain?
A) Instructing the patient to chew the medication
B) Giving the patient water with the aspirin
C) Determining that the patient has a prescription for the aspirin
D) Ensuring that the patient has an intact gag reflex
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Shock and Resuscitation
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89 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An unrestrained 37-year-old female is in cardiac arrest after striking a tree head-on at a high rate of speed. Assessment reveals her to have suffered massive blunt trauma to the chest and abdomen. The patient is quickly extricated from the vehicle and placed on a long board for immobilization. It is estimated that the patient has been in cardiac arrest for approximately 10 minutes, during which CPR was not performed. At this time, the EMT would:
A) withhold CPR and perform a focused trauma assessment.
B) perform CPR and contact medical command for permission to use the AED.
C) administer CPR for 2 minutes prior to applying the AED.
D) apply electrodes to the patient's chest and follow the AED's instructions.
Q2) Which one of the following statements made by a patient's family member would cause the EMT to suspect that a patient is suffering from hypovolemic shock?
A) "He has had a rash for the past three days."
B) "He cannot stop throwing up."
C) "He has been taking an antibiotic for a chest cold."
D) "He got up this morning and was having a hard time breathing."
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Chapter 16: Respiratory Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) While you are getting a medical history for a patient with generalized weakness and fatigue, she hands you a list of all the medications she is currently taking. Which one of the following medications should the EMT recognize as a bronchodilator?
A) Metaproterenol
B) Mucomyst
C) Prednisone
D) Metformin
Q2) Family directs you to a bedroom where a 62-year-old male is in respiratory distress. During the scene size-up, which of the following most strongly suggests that the patient suffers from a chronic respiratory disease?
A) Furnace turned on high with humidifier running
B) Bottles of aspirin and nitroglycerin on nightstand
C) Patient in chair in tripod position
D) Smell of cigarettes in house
Q3) The EMT is correctly assessing a patient for subcutaneous emphysema when he:
A) palpates the anterior and posterior chest.
B) listens posteriorly for breath sounds.
C) observes the chest for abnormalities.
D) examines the neck veins for distention.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Cardiovascular Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) On room air, which patient requires supplemental oxygen?
A) 66-year-old female; generalized weakness; history of diabetes; SpO 97%
B) 52-year-old male; chest pain; history of MI; SpO 95%
C) 39-year-old male; complaint of tingling in hands; headache; respirations of 30; SpO 98%
D) 47-year-old female; temperature 100.3°F; denies sob; SpO 91%
Q2) A 64-year-old male presents with a blood pressure of 210/132 mmHg. What patient statement would you recognize as most concerning and most likely associated with the elevated blood pressure?
A) My ears are continually ringing.
B) I feel very thirsty right now.
C) My hair has become very brittle.
D) I have this bruising on my arms and legs.
Q3) What structure of the neck would the EMT examine on a patient she believes to be in congestive heart failure?
A) Trachea
B) Neck veins
C) Lateral muscles
D) Clavicles
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Altered Mental Status, Stroke, and Headache
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements made by the EMT indicates a correct understanding of caring for someone with a headache?
A) "Unless the patient has some sort of past medical history, a headache is not a true emergency."
B) "If a patient calls 911 for a headache, it is most likely a life-threatening condition."
C) "Assessment is essential in determining if a patient's headache represents a life-threatening condition."
D) "In general, a headache is only considered serious if the pain is felt throughout the entire head."
Q2) Your patient is unresponsive. Which piece of information given to you by the patient's family is most important to the EMT in relation to a possible stroke?
A) "He forgot to take his blood thinner last night."
B) "We think that he had too much to drink last night."
C) "We noticed him acting oddly about 7 p.m."
D) "He took some ibuprofen last night for a fever and cough."
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20
Chapter 19: Seizures and Syncope
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57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is important that the EMT recognize that a complex partial (psychomotor) seizure can easily be mistaken for a(n):
A) asthma exacerbation.
B) left-sided stroke.
C) absence (petit mal) seizure.
D) alcohol intoxication.
Q2) You are called to a residence to assess a child. The panicked parents state that their 3-year-old son was playing with his brother when he suddenly "blanked out" and would not respond to them for several seconds. When asked, they deny any convulsing-like movement as well as a history of medical problems. Based on this description, you would be suspicious of what type of seizure?
A) Febrile
B) Simple partial
C) Grand mal
D) Absence
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21
Chapter 20: Acute Diabetic Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements made by an EMT indicates a correct understanding of glucose in the human body?
A) "Once ingested, glucose is broken down into carbohydrates and used for energy."
B) "All cells in the body require glucose for energy and cannot use anything else."
C) "Glucose is transformed into fats, which the cells of the body use for energy."
D) "The cells of the brain cannot use anything else but glucose for energy."
Q2) What is a glucometer used to evaluate?
A) Glucose levels
B) Insulin levels
C) Glucogen levels
D) Insulin and glucose levels
Q3) A diabetic patient is exhibiting rapid and deep respirations. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would expect to find:
A) hypoglycemia.
B) hypoxia.
C) fever and tachycardia.
D) elevated blood glucose.
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Chapter 21: Anaphylactic Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have assisted an adult patient with his epinephrine auto-injector. When giving a report to the emergency department nurse, you should inform her that ________ mg of epinephrine was administered.
A) 0.15
B) 0.25
C) 0.30
D) 1
Q2) A patient with an allergy to bees and a prescribed Epi-pen was working in the garden when she noted swelling to the right side of her face. Assessment reveals swelling that is red and hot to the right cheek area. Her airway is patent, respirations easy and adequate, and radial pulse strong. Her vital signs are: pulse 76, respirations 16, blood pressure 156/62 mmHg, and SpO at 99%. Which one of the following should you do next?
A) Perform a secondary assessment.
B) Assist the patient with her Epi-pen.
C) Treat as an anaphylactoid reaction.
D) Immediate and rapid transport
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Toxicologic Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called for a 41-year-old female who is confused. Her husband states that she is an alcoholic who has been in and out of rehab for the past five years. Assessment reveals her airway to be open and breathing adequate. Her pulse is regular and strong. Which of the following findings would cause the EMT to classify and treat this patient as a high priority?
A) Blood pressure 108/72 mmHg and complaint of nausea
B) Smell of alcohol on breath and complaint of headache
C) Complaint of nausea with a temperature of 101.6°F
D) Irritable and uncooperative with your effort to treat her
Q2) Medical direction has ordered the administration of activated charcoal to a 3-year-old boy. What dose would be most appropriate?
A) 100 mg
B) 1 gram/kilogram
C) 50 grams
D) 0.5 mg/kilogram
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Chapter 23: Abdominal,
Hematologic, Gynecologic,
Genitourinary, and Renal Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT understands that the most common cause of urinary tract infections is:
A) poor handwashing.
B) overuse of antibiotics.
C) frequent urination.
D) bacterial invasion.
Q2) A female patient has developed bacterial peritonitis after sustaining blunt trauma to the abdomen. Damage to what organ was most likely responsible for this condition?
A) Spleen
B) Small intestine
C) Liver
D) Ovary
Q3) The spleen of a patient has ruptured. Because it is a solid organ, the EMT recognizes that the primary threat to life is:
A) blood loss.
B) pain.
C) infection.
D) inflammation.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Environmental Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young female was weeding her garden when she was bitten on her left hand by an unidentified snake. The primary assessment does not reveal any life threats and vital signs are stable. In caring for this patient, it is critical that the EMT:
A) apply ice packs to the area of the snake bite.
B) administer the epinephrine auto-injector into the site.
C) have the patient remove her wedding ring from her left hand.
D) attempt to locate the snake for identification.
Q2) You have been called to a football practice field on a very hot day for a heat-related emergency. On scene you find a young male patient panting and lying under a tree. His skin is flushed and teammates are continually wiping the sweat off his face, arms, and chest with towels. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate?
A) "Keep wiping. You are helping him retain water that his body needs."
B) "Good job guys. By wiping him down you are helping him cool down."
C) "Please let him sweat. It is helping his body cool down."
D) "To keep him from sweating, let's put his shirt back on."
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Chapter 25: Submersion Incidents: Drowning and Diving Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT shows she understands the concept of the mammalian diving reflex by stating:
A) "It is a protective mechanism that occurs when the spinal column is compressed as would occur in a diving accident."
B) "It occurs in warm water and serves to increase blood flow to the vital organs."
C) "It may provide benefit to the patient by diverting oxygen-rich blood to the brain and heart."
D) "It occurs in cold water and increases the activity of the vital organs, thus protecting them."
Q2) A patient is in cardiac arrest after being submerged in a pond for 15 minutes. You note that his abdomen is greatly distended and it is very difficult to ventilate him. Which one of the following should you do next?
A) Ventilate more forcibly at a rate of 20-24 breaths per minute.
B) Administer chest compressions to evacuate water from the body.
C) Place the patient on his side and firmly press on the abdomen.
D) Administer five abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver).
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Chapter 26: Behavioral Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patients would the EMT classify as having a behavioral emergency?
A) 44-year-old female with bipolar disorder complaining of a fever of 102.5°F
B) 56-year-old male with schizophrenia who has stopped taking his medications
C) 29-year-old male with diabetes who is suddenly confused
D) 36-year-old male with no known history who is hearing voices
Q2) What is your first priority in managing a patient with a behavioral emergency?
A) Determining if the patient is a threat to him- or herself
B) Evaluating for a preexisting medical condition
C) Ensuring the safety of you and your partner
D) Assessing and managing the patient's airway
Q3) You are assessing a patient with schizophrenia. Friends called 911 because he was experiencing hallucinations this morning. He is prescribed Thorazine and Resperidone for his illness. Which one of the following questions is most pertinent to the current situation and must be asked first?
A) "Do you drink alcohol to help get you through the day?"
B) "Have you been taking your medications as prescribed?"
C) "Do you think that the hallucinations are real?"
D) "Has your psychiatrist considered changing the dose of your medications?"
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Trauma Overview: the Trauma Patient and the
Trauma System
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42711
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with severe head and neck pain states that he was properly wearing his seat belt when another car struck him from behind. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would realize that the complaint of:
A) head and neck pain indicates that he was not wearing his seat belt.
B) head pain suggests that he was not wearing the seat belt properly.
C) head and neck pain could occur when the seat belt is properly worn.
D) head and neck pain indicates that the lap belt was worn without the shoulder harness.
Q2) Which of the following is a high-velocity wound that carries the greatest risk for death when considering the concept of cavitation?
A) Shotgun wound to the lung
B) Gunshot wound to the spleen
C) Stab wound to the liver
D) Gunshot wound to the stomach
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Chapter 28: Bleeding and Soft Tissue Trauma
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42712
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following types of injuries is most likely to result in capillary bleeding only?
A) Avulsion
B) Abrasion
C) Laceration
D) Penetration
Q2) A patient was assaulted and sustained various and multiple injuries. Which injury does the EMT recognize as presenting the greatest risk for infection?
A) Contusion to the chin
B) Closed crush injury to the knee
C) Abrasion to the right side of the face
D) Hematoma to the left foot
Q3) In the human body, what occurs when a person is in shock?
A) The cells are getting glucose and other nutrients, but not oxygen.
B) The amount of oxygen to the cells is adequate, but CO is not being eliminated.
C) The blood has an adequate amount of oxygen, but not enough nutrients for cell survival.
D) The cells are not getting enough oxygen and waste products are accumulating.
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Chapter 29: Burns
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42713
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, who is coughing, has suffered a superficial burn to the chest, arms, and face after pouring gasoline on a smoldering campfire. Which one of the following statements indicates that the EMT is properly caring for him?
A) "We are going to put ice packs to your chest to cool the burn."
B) "I am going to apply a special antibiotic lotion to the burned areas to prevent scarring."
C) "Throughout transport, I am going to listen to your lungs quite frequently."
D) "I need to clean the dirt from the burned area to prevent an infection."
Q2) Firefighters have just pulled a young woman from a house fire and have laid her on the lawn. She is conscious and badly burned on the chest, abdomen, and legs. Her clothes are smoldering. Which one of the following actions should the EMT take immediately?
A) Place an oropharyngeal airway.
B) Determine the body surface area burned.
C) Apply oxygen via nonrebreather face mask.
D) Cool the burn with water.
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Chapter 30: Musculoskeletal Trauma and Nontraumatic
Fractures
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42714
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements shows that an EMT understands field care of a patient with a possible joint dislocation?
A) "If a joint injury is suspected, ice packs and not splints are indicated."
B) "The care for a patient with a joint injury is identical to that of a fracture."
C) "If a distal pulse is absent, three attempts to straighten the joint can be made."
D) "Warm packs, not cold packs, are indicated for a patient with a possible joint injury."
Q2) A young female patient was walking on a 7-foot-high retaining wall when she stumbled and fell. She impacted a concrete sidewalk surface with her left foot and left hand. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis, deformity, and edema to both the left foot and left hand. Based on the concept of injury caused by indirect force, where else should the EMT look for injury?
A) Left toes
B) Left ankle
C) Left hip
D) Left fingers
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Head Trauma
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42715
Sample Questions
Q1) A 52-year-old male is unresponsive and has bruises and lacerations to the head, chest, and abdomen. Bystanders state that the patient was intoxicated and got into a fight with several patrons of a bar. They state that he was beaten with their fists, and not other objects or weapons. The patient has snoring respirations, shallow breathing, and a strong radial pulse. His skin is warm and dry. After taking manual in-line spinal stabilization, which one of the following should be your next action?
A) Insert a nasal or oral airway.
B) Perform the jaw-thrust maneuver.
C) Start positive pressure ventilation.
D) Apply a cervical collar.
Q2) You are transporting a patient with a past medical history of a meningeal tumor (tumor on the meninges). You would recognize the tumor as being located:
A) within the cerebrum.
B) in tissue surrounding the brain.
C) within the bones of the skull.
D) in tissue composing the brainstem.
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Chapter 32: Spinal Column and Spinal Cord Trauma
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42716
Sample Questions
Q1) A teenage boy was found by friends as he attempted to hang himself in a garage using chains suspended from the ceiling. As you approach, you note that the patient is conscious, struggling to breathe, and has contusions that encircle his neck from the chains. After taking manual in-line spinal stabilization and opening the airway, your next action would be to:
A) start positive pressure ventilation.
B) size and apply a cervical collar.
C) perform a secondary assessment.
D) log roll him onto a long board.
Q2) Which one of the following shows that the EMT is correctly assessing motor function in the arms of a patient with potential spine injuries?
A) "Can you tell me what finger I am touching?"
B) "I need you to flex both arms across your chest."
C) "I am going to move your arm; tell me if it hurts."
D) "I am going to feel for a pulse in your wrist."
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Chapter 33: Eye, Face, and Neck Trauma
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42717
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient struck her face on the steering wheel in a head-on motor vehicle collision and has deformity and crepitus to the bridge of her nose. Further assessment reveals bleeding deep within the nasal passages. The patient has been fully immobilized to a long board. To best address the hemorrhage in the nasopharynx, the EMT would:
A) suction blood from the airway as needed.
B) transport fully immobilized with her feet elevated.
C) apply ice packs to the bridge of the nose to control hemorrhage.
D) carefully pack the nasal passages with rolls of sterile gauze.
Q2) A young girl complains of eye pain after having sand thrown in her face by another girl at the park. When assessing her eyes, you note large particles of sand in the right eye. The sand appears to be on the conjunctiva, which also seems to be scratched and irritated. Your initial action would be:
A) stop the tearing by applying gentle pressure to the eye.
B) attempt to remove the larger pieces of sand using a cotton swab.
C) flush the eye with clean water from a nearby sink.
D) gently wipe the inner eye with sterile pieces of gauze.
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Chapter 34: Chest Trauma
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42718
Sample Questions
Q1) You are managing a patient with a large flail segment to the right lateral chest. As such, you should recognize that the immediate threat to life is:
A) blood loss.
B) hypoxia.
C) infection.
D) rib fractures.
Q2) You are on the scene of a shooting. Your assessment reveals a 23-year-old male who has been shot twice. The first wound is to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen and is actively bleeding. The second wound is to the left lateral chest and bubbles every time the patient takes a breath. Your immediate action would be:
A) obtain a sterile dressing and cover the chest wound.
B) cover the chest wound with a gloved hand.
C) place direct pressure over the abdominal gunshot wound.
D) place the patient on high-concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather face mask.
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Chapter 35: Abdominal and Genitourinary Trauma
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42719
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT recognizes that the division between the thoracic and abdominal cavities lies approximately:
A) at the level of the umbilicus.
B) at the fifth intercostal space.
C) below the twelfth rib.
D) above the twelfth thoracic vertebra.
Q2) A 45-year-old female was at a family reunion and fell off a trampoline. She hit a picnic table with the left side of her lower rib cage and is now very anxious and confused. Her airway is open and her breathing adequate. Her radial pulse is rapid and weak and her skin is cool and diaphoretic. Vital signs are: pulse 132, respirations 20, blood pressure 102/78 mmHg, and SpO 97%. She has ecchymosis to the left lower rib area as well as tenderness and instability. She also has a superficial abrasion to her forehead. Given these findings, you would suspect and treat her for what condition?
A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Hypoxia
C) Spinal shock
D) Closed head injury
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Multisystem Trauma and Trauma in Special Patient Populations
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42720
Sample Questions
Q1) When treating a pediatric trauma patient, which one of the following is it important for the EMT to remember?
A) The elevated metabolism of a child causes them to retain heat, thus a blanket should not be applied when in shock.
B) Since the body of a child is smaller than an adult's body, there is less chance of multisystem trauma.
C) The flexibility of the chest wall in a child can allow for internal injury without obvious external signs.
D) Because children tend to be healthier than adults, they are able to compensate longer when in shock.
Q2) The EMT is correctly assessing the perfusion status of a 10-month-old when she:
A) obtains a blood pressure.
B) feels for a brachial pulse.
C) looks for cyanosis in the extremities.
D) observes the characteristics of the fontanelles.
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Chapter 37: Obstetrics and Care of the Newborn
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42721
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements about the umbilical cord is true?
A) It connects the placenta and uterus.
B) It detoxifies blood before delivery to the baby.
C) It contains one vein and two arteries.
D) It produces hormones for the baby.
Q2) After delivery, you note some blood oozing from the mother's vagina. The sanitary pads that you placed between her legs continue to become soaked. Your next action would be to:
A) transport with lights and sirens.
B) insert sterile gauze into the vaginal canal.
C) perform a uterine massage.
D) place the mother on her left side.
Q3) Which one of the following actions indicates that the EMT is properly suctioning the newborn?
A) He suctions the nose first followed by the mouth.
B) He inserts the bulb syringe deep into the oropharynx to get thick secretions.
C) He uses the portable suction unit on the "high" setting.
D) He squeezes the bulb syringe prior to placing it in the baby's nose.
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Chapter 38: Pediatrics
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42722
Sample Questions
Q1) You are treating a short of breath 9-year-old male with a history of asthma. On scene he presents in severe respiratory distress with noted intercostal retraction, lethargy, and expiratory wheezing. His pulse is 136, respirations 32, and SpO 95%. You have assisted him with his albuterol MDI and are transporting emergently to the hospital. As you reassess the patient, what finding is most concerning?
A) SpO 94%
B) Increased wheezing
C) Heart rate 88
D) Blood pressure 100/64
Q2) You suspect a very sick child to be in shock. His skin is dry, radial pulse weak, and blood pressure low. What statement made by the parents would reinforce this suspicion?
A) "He has had a headache since last night."
B) "I gave him an aspirin this morning."
C) "He has had diarrhea for three days."
D) "His stepfather is a bad diabetic."
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Available
Study
Chapter 39: Geriatrics
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42723
Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly female fell down three steps and is complaining of back pain. After performing the primary assessment, what question would be most important to ask first?
A) "Did you become dizzy before you fell?"
B) "Why did you not use the ramp on the other side?"
C) "Do you have a history of high blood pressure?"
D) "What medications are you taking?"
Q2) When assessing a 91-year-old female who fell, what assessment finding should concern the EMT most?
A) Skin tear that appears infected on her arm
B) Heart rate of 90 beats per minute
C) Sudden onset of confusion
D) History of osteoporosis and leg pain
Q3) Which one of the following is the fundamental danger associated with a pulmonary embolism?
A) Infection
B) Hypertension
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Hypoxia
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Patients With Special Challenges
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42724
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a past history of quadriplegia from a 4-wheeler accident would most likely be unable to:
A) speak.
B) hold utensils.
C) see peripherally.
D) turn his head.
Q2) The fundamental reason a patient uses BiPAP when sleeping is to:
A) provide high-concentration oxygen.
B) keep the small airways open.
C) lower the amount of exhaled CO .
D) decrease the incidence of lower airway infection.
Q3) Which of the following correctly identifies a stoma?
A) The inner portion of the tracheostomy tube
B) The strap that secures a tracheostomy tube
C) The opening in the neck for a tracheostomy tube
D) The proper name for a tracheostomy tube
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Chapter 41: The Combat Veteran
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42725
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding post-traumatic stress disorder?
A) There is no cure for the post-traumatic stress disorder.
B) All military veterans will eventually become debilitated from PTSD.
C) The symptoms of PTSD are evident within 6 months of an event.
D) PTSD can be cured with timely intervention and medication use.
Q2) A combat veteran's wife has summoned 911 after her husband suddenly became confused and agitated. She states that he takes several mood stabilizing drugs and has a history of traumatic brain injury (TBI) from an improvised explosive device (IED) while on tour in the Middle East. There is no other medical history. In the bedroom, the patient is staring at you with a face that appears angry. Your initial priority in the care of this patient would be to:
A) recognize post-traumatic stress disorder and check a blood sugar.
B) gather and identify the medications taken by the patient.
C) recognize post-traumatic stress disorder and prepare for immediate transport.
D) establish a rapport with the patient and ensure personal safety.
Q3) The four essential features of post-traumatic stress disorder include:
A) chronic confusion.
B) unexplained attraction to war memorabilia.
C) feelings of anger.
D) migration to crowds for security.
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Chapter 42: Ambulance Operations and Air Medical Response
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42726
Sample Questions
Q1) An EMT asks you how he can decrease the chances of being involved in a collision when driving with lights and siren at night. Your advice would be:
A) "It is safer to use your high beams with the lights and siren, so that oncoming cars can see you better."
B) "If blinded by the lights of an oncoming car, look to the right side of the road and not at the car."
C) "Flashing your high beams on and off when approaching another vehicle is a good way to alert him to your presence."
D) "Keep all lights on your dashboard to the highest setting so that you can easily see the speedometer to monitor your speed."
Q2) The EMT recognizes that preventive mechanical maintenance performed regularly on the ambulance results in:
A) cleaner ambulances.
B) fully stocked ambulances.
C) more knowledgeable EMTs.
D) safer patient transports.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Gaining Access and Patient Extrication
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42727
Sample Questions
Q1) To gain access to a patient entrapped in a car, the rescuers must use the "jaws of life" to open the door. The EMT should recognize this situation as:
A) complex access.
B) rapid extrication.
C) simple access.
D) hydraulic stabilization.
Q2) Which one of the following situations represents simple access to a patient?
A) Unlocking a car door by breaking the window using a screwdriver
B) Forcing entry into a house
C) Climbing stairs to gain access to a patient on a porch
D) Extrication of a patient from a car after removing one door
Q3) A car has struck a utility pole at a high rate of speed. The male driver appears to be unresponsive with snoring respirations. The vehicle has just been stabilized, and you have donned the appropriate personal protective equipment. Which one of the following should you do next?
A) Perform a jaw-thrust airway maneuver.
B) Place a tarp over some spilled antifreeze.
C) Take manual spinal stabilization.
D) Apply a cervical collar to his neck.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Hazardous Materials
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42728
Sample Questions
Q1) You have arrived on the scene where a tractor trailer has overturned. As you pull onto the scene, the driver of the truck approaches and informs you that he is hauling radioactive medical wastes and warns you that there is a car underneath the overturned trailer. Which of the following should you do immediately?
A) Move the ambulance upwind of the scene.
B) Position the ambulance in front of the vehicle to block oncoming traffic.
C) Attempt to identify the material and type of rays being emitted.
D) Determine if any radioactive material has been released.
Q2) If the red diamond on a National Fire Protection Association placard contains a "4," the EMT should recognize that the material contained within is:
A) liquid.
B) radioactive.
C) a gas.
D) very flammable.
Q3) The EMT would best describe a hazardous material as:
A) any material capable of injuring >50 people.
B) any material that poses a threat to life.
C) any material that is explosive in nature.
D) any material that can contaminate the environment.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Multiple-Casualty Incidents and Incident Management
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42729
Sample Questions
Q1) At the scene of a multiple-casualty drill, you have been assigned to the role of Transport Unit leader. As such, your responsibility is:
A) ensuring proper care for each patient.
B) distributing patients to each medical facility.
C) immobilizing all patients prior to transport.
D) ensuring that patients in cardiac arrest leave for the hospital first.
Q2) At the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, you are triaging a patient using the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system. You are presented with a patient who is not breathing. Which one of the following should you do next?
A) Place a red tag on the patient.
B) Start positive pressure ventilation.
C) Open the airway.
D) Place a black tag on the patient.
Q3) A problem with the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system of triage is it:
A) is difficult to apply to young children.
B) requires at least 10 rescuers.
C) is only used for traumatic injuries.
D) can be complex and difficult to use.
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Chapter 46: Ems Response to Terrorism Involving Weapons
of Mass Destruction
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42730
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an injury to his arm caused by an unknown vesicant. After assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation, you should:
A) brush the powder from the skin.
B) apply a wet sterile dressing to the arm.
C) flush the injured area with water.
D) transport the patient to the hospital immediately.
Q2) The goal of an attack using a "dirty bomb" most likely is:
A) blast power to destroy buildings and infrastructure.
B) thermal forces to induce massive burns.
C) to disperse gamma radiation.
D) contamination of an area with radioactivity.
Q3) A patient has inhaled cyanide gas. He is alert and complaining of shortness of breath. His airway is patent, his breathing is adequate, and his radial pulse is strong. His skin is warm and dry, and his breath sounds are clear. Given these assessment findings, what should the EMT do first?
A) Administer the antidote for cyanide.
B) Monitor the patient and transport.
C) Obtain vital signs with the patient in a supine position.
D) Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: ALS-Assist Skills
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42731
Sample Questions
Q1) When assisting an advanced life support provider with IV therapy, the best way to avoid potential clinical complications is to:
A) only assist with setting up IV equipment if the patient is critically ill or injured.
B) only assist with setting up IV equipment if the patient is not critically ill or injured.
C) ask medical direction for approval each time prior to assisting with the equipment.
D) gain and maintain proficiency through knowledge and practice.
Q2) You are preparing to obtain an ECG tracing while using a 4-lead cardiac monitor. Where would you place the red "RL" lead?
A) Right thorax, under the clavicle
B) Lower left chest wall, anterior axillary line
C) Left thorax, under the clavicle
D) Lower right chest wall, anterior axillary line
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Chapter 48: Advanced Airway Management
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42732
Sample Questions
Q1) As the trachea extends from the upper portion of the airway, it splits at the carina into the:
A) alveoli.
B) bronchi.
C) vallecula.
D) epiglottis.
Q2) You have been called to help transport a sedated patient who has been endotracheally intubated and is on a capnometer. The vital signs are: pulse 88, respiration 12 (delivered through a ventilator), and blood pressure 106/64 mmHg. If the tube is in place, what should you see on the capnometer?
A) CO reading of near 0
B) Decreasing SpO reading
C) CO level of 40 mmHg
D) Unchanging blood pressure
Q3) The EMT understands that capnometry informs the care provider of:
A) Level of oxygen in the lungs.
B) Amount of CO being exhaled.
C) Measure of O being delivered to the cells.
D) The adequacy of oxygen diffusion into the bloodstream.
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Page 50