

Prehospital Care Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Prehospital Care is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the principles, practices, and critical interventions involved in providing emergency medical care prior to a patients arrival at a hospital. The course covers the roles and responsibilities of prehospital care providers, the assessment and management of trauma and medical emergencies, airway and ventilation techniques, patient stabilization, and safe transport protocols. Emphasis is placed on teamwork, rapid decision-making, effective communication, and the application of standardized protocols to ensure optimal patient outcomes in diverse and often challenging environments.
Recommended Textbook
Prehospital Emergency Care 10th Edition by Joseph J. Mistovich
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
48 Chapters
2835 Verified Questions
2835 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2143

Page 2
Chapter 1: Emergency Medical Care Systems, Research, and Public Health
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42685
Sample Questions
Q1) Before contacting medical direction for authorization to assist a shortness of breath patient with his or her metered-dose inhaler, protocols state that the EMT must first attempt to provide relief by administering oxygen. You recognize that the administration of oxygen is best described as a(n):
A) standing order.
B) on-line medical direction.
C) direct permission.
D) quality improvement.
Answer: A
Q2) Which one of the following is an appropriate outcome of a project undertaken by the quality improvement (QI) committee?
A) Termination of three EMTs who are chronically late to work
B) A program by which raises are based on performance and attitude
C) Community fundraiser to raise money for new EMS equipment
D) Monthly continuing education programs in which seldom-used skills are practiced
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Workforce Safety and Wellness of the Emt
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42686
Sample Questions
Q1) If you have questions regarding the steps to take when exposed to an infectious disease, your best resource would be:
A) The department of Health and Human Services.
B) Your service's written exposure control plan.
C) Your service's medical director.
D) Your primary care physician or ED physician.
Answer: B
Q2) You are dispatched to a motor vehicle collision on a remote country road. It is night and your scene size-up reveals a heavily damaged car that rolled several times. The driver has been ejected and is lying prone in the middle of the road. In this situation, which one of the following types of protective clothing is it most essential that you don prior to making patient contact?
A) Rubber-soled boots
B) Reflective vest
C) Protective helmet
D) HEPA mask
Answer: B
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4

Chapter 3: Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42687
Sample Questions
Q1) An intoxicated 72-year-old male with an alcoholic history has fallen and has a laceration on the back of his head. He states that he does not want treatment and becomes combative when you try to talk to or assess him. Your best course of action would be to:
A) transport him against his will.
B) have him sign a refusal.
C) contact medical direction.
D) transport him by permission of family.
Answer: C
Q2) Many states require EMTs to report which one of the following to law enforcement?
A) Alcohol abuse and child abuse
B) Drug addiction and drug-related crimes
C) Physical and mental abuse
D) Refusal of EMS services
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Documentation
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42688
Sample Questions
Q1) After a patient, who is short of breath, signs a refusal of service, which one of the following statements would be appropriate prior to leaving the residence?
A) "We will leave this oxygen for you; call us when you feel better."
B) "Try taking an aspirin and get a good night's rest; you will probably feel better."
C) "Call our dispatch in the morning to let us know how you made out."
D) "If you change your mind and want to be transported to the hospital, call 911."
Q2) Consider the following narrative from a patient care report: "pt. transported 3 days ago for STEMI; pt. currently denies CP and SOB; PMH of HTN and CAD; pt. currently in NAD." Which of the following is true?
A) The patient is short of breath.
B) The patient suffers from hypotension.
C) The patient has heart problems.
D) The patient is in moderate distress.
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Chapter 5: Communication
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42689
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is the most appropriate way to contact a receiving hospital to alert them that you are en route with a patient?
A) "Inbound with a 76-year-old male complaining of dizziness."
B) "St. Margaret's, can you take a report on a person with chest pain?"
C) "Dr. Jackson, this is EMT Mike Bennet, can you hear me?"
D) "St. Margaret's Hospital, this is BLS ambulance 17-64. How do you copy?"
Q2) Your ambulance was dispatched for a patient complaining of shortness of breath at 1512. You arrived on scene at 1523 and left at 1538. You arrived at the hospital with the patient at 1557 and were back in service at 1622. Which one of the following is true?
A) Your scene time was 15 minutes.
B) You arrived on the scene at 5:23 p.m.
C) The call took place in the morning.
D) The time spent at the hospital was 16 minutes and 22 seconds.
Q3) Which one of the following is an open-ended question?
A) "Can you describe the pain to me?"
B) "What time did the pain begin?"
C) "Did you get sweaty when the pain started?"
D) "Who is your primary care physician?"
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Chapter 6: Lifting and Moving Patients
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42690
Sample Questions
Q1) After immobilizing an elderly female patient who fell in her bathroom, you prepare to carry her down a flight of stairs on a backboard. Which of the following instructions would be most appropriate to give to your partner?
A) "Make sure to hold the board 6 inches from your body so that you get maximum stabilization."
B) "It is best if we do not talk so that we can concentrate on safely moving her down the stairs."
C) "Why don't I take the head and then we can carry her down the stairs feet first."
D) "Let's have the patient hold onto the stair railing to prevent the board from getting off balance."
Q2) You have been charged with writing a policy regarding reaching for equipment. In that policy, you indicate that the maximum distance an EMT should reach is no more than:
A) one arm's length in front of her body.
B) 10 to 12 inches in front of her body.
C) 15 to 20 inches in front of her body.
D) 30 inches while bending at the waist.
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Page 8

Chapter 7: Anatomy, Physiology, and Medical Terminology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42691
Sample Questions
Q1) The bones of the upper extremities include:
A) humerus and radius.
B) humerus and calcaneus.
C) phalanges and tibia.
D) radius, ulna, and tarsals.
Q2) A patient is experiencing the backup of blood and fluid in her lung tissue. Failure of which one of the heart's valves is likely responsible for this condition?
A) Tricuspid
B) Right
C) Mitral
D) Pulmonary
Q3) A patient with a calcaneal fracture has a broken:
A) foot.
B) thigh.
C) knee.
D) heel.
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Chapter 8: Pathophysiology
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42692
Sample Questions
Q1) For a patient reliant on the hypoxic drive to breathe, the respiratory rate will increase when:
A) carbon dioxide levels increase.
B) oxygen levels decrease.
C) CO levels decrease and O levels increase.
D) oxygen and CO levels both increase.
Q2) On scene, a 43-year-old male states that he has a history of liver failure and does not produce enough of the protein albumin. Given this condition, which one of the following would you expect?
A) Elevated temperature and signs of infection
B) Low SpO reading from significant edema
C) Swelling of the extremities and abdomen
D) Decreased heart rate and signs of hypoxia
Q3) Which one of the following best describes minute ventilation?
A) Number of breaths a patient breathes in one minute
B) Amount of air moved into and out of the lungs in one minute
C) Total milliliters of air moving into and out of the lungs in one breath
D) Amount of oxygen needed by the body in one minute
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Chapter 9: Life Span Development
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42693
Sample Questions
Q1) A young new mother has called 911 because her baby will not stop crying. On scene, you find a 6-month-old baby who alternates between crying and sleep. Which of the following statements to the mother would be most appropriate in this situation?
A) "Is there a possibility of child abuse?"
B) "Does this cry seem different to you?"
C) "Has the baby had all his immunizations?"
D) "It is normal for babies to cry and he seems to be sleeping well."
Q2) You have been called for a 2-week-old male whose mother feels as though he is "sick." When assessing the patient and obtaining a history from the mother, which of the following would be most concerning?
A) He has lost weight since he was born.
B) The fontanelles are lower than the level of the skull.
C) The father states that the baby feeds every 2 to 3 hours.
D) You observe that the baby seems to breathe only through his nose.
Q3) When assessing a sick 3-week-old baby, which finding would be most concerning?
A) Fontanelle level with the skull
B) Soft spot to the top of the head
C) Mucus occluding both nares
D) Rectal temperature of 99.4 F
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Airway Management, Artificial Ventilation, and Oxygenation
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42694
Sample Questions
Q1) You are assessing a young male patient who is responsive to painful stimuli and breathing agonally after being ejected from an automobile at a high rate of speed. His pulse is weak and thready, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. When addressing his airway and breathing, the EMT must immediately:
A) administer oxygen at 15 lpm with a nonrebreather face mask.
B) perform the jaw-thrust and begin artificial ventilations with the bag-valve mask.
C) immobilize him to a long spine board, and then start positive pressure ventilation.
D) open the airway using the head-tilt, chin-lift and begin ventilations with the bag-valve mask.
Q2) A paramedic has asked you to place the patient on a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute. To administer oxygen at this flow rate, you should:
A) attach a high-pressure regulator to the oxygen cylinder.
B) adjust the tank pressure to 15 pounds per square inch (psi).
C) slowly decrease the tank pressure valve until 15 psi is achieved.
D) select 15 on the oxygen therapy regulator.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Baseline Vital Signs, Monitoring Devices, and History Taking
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123 Verified Questions
123 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42695
Sample Questions
Q1) When obtaining a blood pressure, the EMT listens for a pulse over what blood vessel?
A) Radial artery
B) Antecubital vein
C) Carotid vessels
D) Brachial artery
Q2) Medical command has asked that you obtain orthostatic vital signs for a 54-year-old female complaining of dizziness and weakness. Her baseline vitals obtained while she was sitting in a chair were: pulse 84, respirations 26, blood pressure 118/62 mmHg, and SpO 95%. Which one of the following would indicate that the patient has a positive orthostatic test?
A) Supine blood pressure of 100/64 mmHg and respirations of 22
B) Standing blood pressure of 92/54 and heart rate of 106
C) Standing pulse of 88 with the additional complaint of nausea
D) Standing SpO 88% and heart rate of 96 beats per minute
Q3) Which piece of equipment would the EMT need to obtain a patient's vital signs?
A) Glucometer
B) Stethoscope
C) Oxygen
D) Automated defibrillator

Page 13
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Chapter 12: Scene Size-Up
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42696
Sample Questions
Q1) To best determine the type and extent of injuries sustained by a patient who has fallen, the EMT should consider which of the following pieces of information?
A) The reason that the patient fell
B) Distance fallen and type of surface landed on
C) The patient's past medical history
D) Vital signs obtained during the assessment
Q2) On scene, frantic family members direct you into the basement where their 67-year-old mother has shot herself in the chest with a small handgun. She is unresponsive and breathing six times a minute. The gun remains in her hand by her side. What action should you take immediately?
A) Pick up the gun by the edge of the grip and carefully remove it.
B) Do not touch the patient or gun until the police arrive on scene.
C) Leave the gun in her hand and start providing emergency care.
D) Determine if the gun contains ammunition and remove it only if loaded.
Q3) What is the most common potential hazard an EMT faces on scene?
A) Blood and body fluids
B) Aggressive patients
C) Upset family members
D) Unfamiliar settings
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Page 14

Chapter 13: Patient Assessment
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42697
Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old boy has been vomiting profusely for two days. Your assessment indicates that his airway is open, respirations adequate, and radial pulse fast and weak. His skin is cool and capillary refill time is 5 seconds. The EMT should understand that the patient is:
A) hypoxic.
B) malnourished.
C) poorly perfused.
D) feverous.
Q2) A 69-year-old male called 911 because of the sudden onset of pain and numbness to his left leg. He states that he has a history of blood clots that form in the leg and the pain feels exactly as it did the last time that this occurred. He denies any trauma to the extremity. You perform the primary assessment and find him to be alert and oriented with no life-threatening conditions to the airway, breathing, or circulation. When performing the secondary assessment on this patient, which one of the following is most appropriate?
A) Rapid head-to-toe exam
B) Immediate transport
C) Placement of a nasal airway
D) Physical exam of the leg
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Page 15

Chapter 14: Pharmacology Medication and Administration
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42698
Sample Questions
Q1) A beta medication benefits a patient by:
A) diminishing the need for oxygen.
B) slowing the respiratory and heart rate.
C) eliminating chest pain.
D) dilating the small airways.
Q2) After assisting a patient with her EpiPen, she tells you that it is much easier for her to breathe. However, her heart rate has increased from 92 to 118 beats per minute. Regarding the epinephrine, the EMT recognizes the increased heart rate as a(n):
A) therapeutic effect.
B) side effect.
C) contraindication.
D) allergy.
Q3) You are assisting a patient with her metered-dose inhaler (MDI). In an effort to determine the exact name of the medication, it would be best for the EMT to:
A) ask the patient the name of the medication.
B) contact and describe the MDI to medical direction.
C) look up the medication using the Physician's Desk Reference (PDR).
D) find the medication name on the label on the metered dose inhaler.
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Page 16

Chapter 15: Shock and Resuscitation
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42699
Sample Questions
Q1) Your ambulance service director has given you the go ahead to replace an old AED with a new AED produced by a different manufacturer. Before making the purchase, you must receive authorization to do so by the:
A) shift supervisor.
B) old manufacturer.
C) American Heart Association.
D) AED medical director.
Q2) What cardiac arrest rhythm is the AED designed to shock?
A) Asystole
B) Pulseless electrical activity
C) Ventricular fibrillation
D) Bradycardia
Q3) The AED should never be applied to a patient who is not in cardiac arrest because some patients in:
A) ventricular tachycardia may have a pulse.
B) ventricular fibrillation may be conscious and alert.
C) ventricular fibrillation may have a pulse.
D) asystole may still have a pulse.
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17

Chapter 16: Respiratory Emergencies
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42700
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT is correctly assessing a patient for subcutaneous emphysema when he:
A) palpates the anterior and posterior chest.
B) listens posteriorly for breath sounds.
C) observes the chest for abnormalities.
D) examines the neck veins for distention.
Q2) Medical direction has ordered you to assist a patient in taking his metered-dose inhaler (MDI). After placing his lips on the mouthpiece, which one of the following instructions would be most appropriate?
A) "Please hold your breath and I will administer the medication."
B) "Please inhale, then hold your breath, and I will give you the medication."
C) "Please inhale slowly and I will administer the medication."
D) "Please exhale, hold your breath, and I will administer the medication."
Q3) The EMT indicates that he is properly assessing the patient's breath sounds when he gives which one of the following instructions to the patient?
A) "Please take a deep breath and gently cough as I listen to your lungs."
B) "Please sit upright and take a deep breath through your nose as I listen to your lungs."
C) "Please breathe slowly through your mouth as I listen to your lungs."
D) "I need to listen to your right lung first and then compare it to your left."
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18

Chapter 17: Cardiovascular Emergencies
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42701
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best indicates the pathway of blood through the heart?
A) Aorta, left atrium, left ventricle, pulmonary capillary
B) Pulmonary vein, pulmonary capillary, pulmonary artery, right ventricle
C) Vena cava, pulmonary artery, left ventricle, aorta
D) Right atrium, left atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle
Q2) The primary control or automaticity of the heart rate originates in the:
A) brainstem.
B) heart.
C) nervous system.
D) endocrine system.
Q3) You are treating a 67-year-old male with chest pain and a history of prior heart attacks as well as diabetes and hypertension. The patient has taken three nitroglycerin tablets which have decreased the pain from 7 to 4/10; however, the pain persists. Initially, his SpO was 91% on room air. Oxygen was applied by nasal cannula and now, on 3 lpm O , his SpO is 97%. How would you address the oxygen, given that he still has chest pain?
A) Increase the oxygen to 4 lpm
B) Decrease the oxygen to 2 lpm
C) Leave the oxygen unchanged
D) Discontinue oxygen therapy
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Page 19

Chapter 18: Altered Mental Status, Stroke, and Headache
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42702
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following questions would the EMT ask when performing the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen?
A) "Do you take blood thinners?"
B) "Is your hand grip weak?"
C) "Do you smoke cigarettes?"
D) "Have you ever had a seizure?"
Q2) What statement indicates that an EMT understands the appropriate use of supplemental oxygen regarding care of a stroke patient?
A) "In the short time that we provide care to a stroke patient, the benefits of high-concentration oxygen outweigh the risks."
B) "If positive pressure ventilation is required, it should be given with room air and not supplemental oxygen."
C) "Since stroke decreases oxygen delivery to the brain, high-concentration oxygen should always be geared toward achieving an SpO as near to 100% as possible."
D) "Oxygen should be administered at a minimal amount, just enough to get the SpO at or above 94%."
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Chapter 19: Seizures and Syncope
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42703
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who suffered an apparent syncopal episode refuses transport to the hospital. Prior to the patient signing a refusal, you should make which one of the following statements?
A) "Syncope indicates a serious underlying condition, so please follow up with a doctor."
B) "The most common cause of syncope is diabetes, so follow up with your doctor."
C) "People who experience a syncopal episode are not allowed to drive unless they go on medication."
D) "Syncope is not dangerous and affects almost everyone, but it is still important to follow up with your doctor."
Q2) Which one of the following patient medications is most consistent with a history of seizures?
A) Celexa
B) Prozac
C) Xopenex
D) Depakote
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21

Chapter 20: Acute Diabetic Emergencies
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64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42704
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary reason to administer oral glucose to a patient?
A) Help sugar get into the brain cells
B) Increase the amount of circulating glucose
C) Stimulate the body to release insulin
D) Improve the patient's level of consciousness
Q2) For which patient would the EMT have the strongest suspicion of a diabetic emergency?
A) Confused patient with a blood glucose of 58 mg/dL
B) Alert and oriented diabetic patient with generalized weakness
C) Combative patient with a blood glucose level of 122 mg/dL
D) Diabetic patient complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath
Q3) A diabetic patient is alert but confused. You have decided to administer oral glucose. Which one of the following describes how to administer the glucose properly?
A) Squeeze the glucose under the patient's tongue.
B) Place the glucose between the patient's cheek and gum.
C) Use a tongue depressor to place the glucose on the back of the tongue.
D) Have the patient slowly swallow the glucose.
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Chapter 21: Anaphylactic Reactions
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42705
Sample Questions
Q1) You have assisted an adult patient with his epinephrine auto-injector. When giving a report to the emergency department nurse, you should inform her that ________ mg of epinephrine was administered.
A) 0.15
B) 0.25
C) 0.30
D) 1
Q2) You have been called for a male patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction. The patient is very confused and having great difficulty breathing. He has an epinephrine auto-injector; however, your service does not have protocols related to its use. In EMT class, you went over and passed a test on the use of an epinephrine auto-injector for allergic reactions. In this case, you should:
A) assist the patient with his epinephrine auto-injector.
B) provide oxygen and respiratory support followed by immediate transport.
C) assist the patient with his epinephrine using implied consent as justification.
D) contact the physician prescribing the medication for permission to use the auto-injector.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Toxicologic Emergencies
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42706
Sample Questions
Q1) A 17-year-old female was at a party where she tried a Percocet pill (narcotic pain reliever). After taking the pill, she became scared she was going to die and is crying. At the present time, she feels slightly nauseated, but has no other complaints. There are no life threats and her vital signs are: pulse 88, respirations 14, blood pressure 108/68, and SpO 98% on room air. She has no medical history but is allergic to peanuts for which she has a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector. Appropriate care for her would include:
A) nonemergent transport.
B) talk-down technique.
C) asking if she has an epinephrine auto-injector with her.
D) high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask.
Q2) A 42-year-old patient weighs 154 pounds (70 kg). How much activated charcoal would you administer to him?
A) 70 grams
B) 100 grams
C) 154 grams
D) 500 grams
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24
Chapter 23: Abdominal, Hematologic, Gynecologic, Genitourinary, and Renal Emergencies
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42707
Sample Questions
Q1) Pelvic inflammatory disease is best described as a(n):
A) infection of the female reproductive organs.
B) ovarian cyst that has ruptured.
C) particularly painful menstrual period.
D) pain experienced as a female ovulates.
Q2) Your medical director is providing an in-service on abdominal pain. He states there are several different categories of pain and asks if anyone can identify and describe visceral pain. Which response made by the EMT would be correct?
A) "Visceral pain is typically described as 'sharp' and occurs when a hollow organ has become infected."
B) "The exact site of visceral pain is easily located by the patient and is typically associated with nausea and vomiting."
C) "Visceral pain occurs when the peritoneum lining the abdomen becomes infected and causes a rapid increase in body temperature."
D) "A patient with visceral pain typically describes the pain as 'aching' and has a hard time identifying its exact location."
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25

Chapter 24: Environmental Emergencies
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42708
Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding snakebites, the EMT would recognize which statement as true?
A) Over half of all snake bites involve intoxicated males.
B) The majority of snakebites involve nonpoisonous snakes.
C) Over 75% of all poisonous snakebites involve the injection of venom.
D) The majority of snakebites result in death of the patient.
Q2) Which one of the following signs would present earliest in the hypothermic patient?
A) Confusion
B) Hypotension
C) Shivering
D) Bradycardia
Q3) A patient has been bitten by what appears to be a black widow spider. The bite to her left hand is dull and achy and she states that the muscles in her shoulders and back are starting to hurt. After ensuring that no life-threatening conditions are present and administering oxygen, the EMT should:
A) pour a vinegar solution over the bite.
B) keep the hand below the level of the heart.
C) massage the muscles of the back and shoulders.
D) apply hot packs to the bite.
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Chapter 25: Submersion Incidents: Drowning and Diving Emergencies
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42709
Sample Questions
Q1) You are assessing a young child who was briefly submerged after falling approximately 20 feet from an observation platform into the shallow portion of a lake. Family members jumped into the lake immediately and pulled the girl to safety. She is confused and begins to vomit water. Which one of the following should you do immediately?
A) Suction, using a rigid-tip catheter.
B) Place her in a side-lying position.
C) Check her breath sounds.
D) Perform the head-tilt, chin-lift.
Q2) A 24-year-old intoxicated female patient was pulled from a pool by hotel personnel. The primary assessment reveals her airway to be open and her breathing adequate. Her radial pulse is strong but fast and she is persistently coughing. Vital signs are pulse 144, respirations 24, blood pressure 166/100; and SpO2 93%. Which one of the following would be considered appropriate in the care of this patient?
A) Abdominal thrusts to remove water from the lungs
B) Supplemental oxygen through a nasal cannula
C) Deep oral suctioning to remove water from the airway
D) Precautionary application of the automated external defibrillator
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Chapter 26: Behavioral Emergencies
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42710
Sample Questions
Q1) You are at a community crisis center with a male patient who is depressed. What is the most important question you must ask first in the care of this patient?
A) "Have you been taking your medications?"
B) "Do you feel suicidal or homicidal?"
C) "What behavioral disorders have you been diagnosed with?"
D) "Have your medications been changed?"
Q2) You have been dispatched to transfer a patient with schizophrenia from a hospital emergency department to a behavioral health unit at another hospital. While en route, your partner states that he cannot remember what schizophrenia is. You should tell him that schizophrenia is a behavioral disorder commonly characterized by:
A) multiple personalities.
B) the need to be around others.
C) delusions and hallucinations.
D) feelings of worthlessness.
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Chapter 27: Trauma Overview: the Trauma Patient and the
Trauma System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42711
Sample Questions
Q1) An unrestrained female driving a small car is involved in a rollover-type collision. Why is her risk for serious injury and death significantly increased?
A) Rollovers are the result of high speeds.
B) Smaller and lighter cars tend to roll multiple times.
C) The risk for ejection is lessened, increasing injuries suffered in the car.
D) There are more impacts in a rollover.
Q2) A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision is complaining of neck pain. Which of the following pieces of information would cause the EMT to have a high index of suspicion that the patient may have suffered more significant injuries beyond isolated neck pain?
A) Lack of air bags in the car
B) Difficulty turning is head to the right
C) History of heart problems
D) Death of the car's driver
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Chapter 28: Bleeding and Soft Tissue Trauma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42712
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient sustained a crush injury after being struck with a baseball bat in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Assessment shows bruising to that area with instability noted to the rib cage. The EMT's highest concern regarding this injury should be:
A) fractured ribs.
B) abdominal contusion.
C) injury to the spleen.
D) abdominal evisceration.
Q2) Which statement demonstrates an understanding of shock caused by internal bleeding?
A) "Internal bleeding is not as much of a life threat as external bleeding since the blood remains in the body."
B) "The EMT can control internal bleeding by applying direct pressure to the skin, over the top of the area of suspected internal bleeding."
C) "If a patient is bleeding internally, the signs of shock-such as a rapid heart rate and pale, cool, and clammy skin-are not as obvious."
D) "You should always suspect internal bleeding in a patient with the signs and symptoms of shock but no external bleeding."
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Chapter 29: Burns
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42713
Sample Questions
Q1) You are assessing a patient who was burned when she dropped a hot iron on her bare foot. Her foot is red and has a small partial-thickness burn near the ankle. When completing the prehospital care report, what mechanism would you document?
A) Scald burn
B) Flame burn
C) Electrical burn
D) Contact burn
Q2) You have been called for an intoxicated male who sustained a full-thickness burn to his leg after passing out against a kerosene heater. After ensuring that his airway, breathing, and circulation are intact, you cool the burn with water and then:
A) carefully remove smoldering fabric that is adhered to the skin.
B) cover the burn with a burn sheet soaked in warm sterile water.
C) carefully wrap the burn with a dry sterile dressing.
D) apply ice packs and secure in place with a sterile dressing.
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Chapter 30: Musculoskeletal Trauma and Nontraumatic
Fractures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42714
Sample Questions
Q1) What statement regarding voluntary muscles is true?
A) Voluntary muscles are primarily located on the torso.
B) Voluntary muscles comprise less mass in the body than involuntary muscles.
C) Voluntary muscles produce movement by extending.
D) Voluntary muscles connect to the bones of the skeletal system.
Q2) A young man riding a motorcycle was hit head on and ejected from the bike. Your scene size-up reveals him to be lying supine in the roadway with obvious deformity to his right thigh and left ankle, with blood noted on his pants in these areas. Patient assessment reveals he is unresponsive with snoring respirations and is breathing irregularly at 16 times per minute. His radial pulse is moderate in strength, and his skin is warm and dry. Which one of the following actions should be performed first?
A) Open the airway using the head-tilt, chin-lift.
B) Expose and splint both legs to prevent further injury.
C) Check for distal pulses in both lower extremities.
D) Take and maintain manual in-line spinal stabilization.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 32
Chapter 31: Head Trauma
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42715
Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing a head-injured patient, what finding is most indicative of increasing pressure within the skull?
A) Blood pressure of 192/106 mmHg
B) Heart rate of 132 beats per minute
C) Respirations of 24 to 28 per minute
D) Constriction of the right pupil to light
Q2) Which statement is true regarding linear skull fractures?
A) Linear skull fractures are rare and infrequently encountered.
B) Linear skull fractures are identifiable by a mild depression in the skull.
C) Linear skull fractures place the patient at risk for blood loss.
D) Linear skull fractures cannot be identified with palpation.
Q3) The normal response of the pupils while examined with a penlight is described as:
A) dilative.
B) diploplia.
C) dysconjugate.
D) consensual.
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33

Chapter 32: Spinal Column and Spinal Cord Trauma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42716
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following signs or symptoms best indicates the patient has suffered an injury to the thoracic spine?
A) Bruising to the back
B) Paralysis of the arms
C) Tingling in the legs
D) Cool and diaphoretic skin
Q2) Which injury is possible based on the anatomy of the spine?
A) Fracture to the ninth cervical vertebra
B) Dislocation of lumbar vertebra number 6
C) Disk injury between thoracic vertebrae 11 and 12
D) Compression fracture to lumbar vertebra 12
Q3) An Emergency Medical Responder reports that a male patient, injured while playing football, has bruising to the lumbar area of the back. Based on this statement, the EMT should expect to find bruising in which area?
A) Upper back
B) Neck
C) Lower back
D) Buttocks
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Chapter 33: Eye, Face, and Neck Trauma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42717
Sample Questions
Q1) A young girl complains of eye pain after having sand thrown in her face by another girl at the park. When assessing her eyes, you note large particles of sand in the right eye. The sand appears to be on the conjunctiva, which also seems to be scratched and irritated. Your initial action would be:
A) stop the tearing by applying gentle pressure to the eye.
B) attempt to remove the larger pieces of sand using a cotton swab.
C) flush the eye with clean water from a nearby sink.
D) gently wipe the inner eye with sterile pieces of gauze.
Q2) While running in a parking lot, a young boy tripped and fell. He hit his face and mouth on a curb, knocking one of his top front teeth from its socket. Bleeding has been controlled and the tooth found. What instructions would you give your partner when caring for the tooth?
A) "Wrap the tooth in dry gauze and put it in a plastic bag placed in cool water."
B) "Scrub the tooth first to get the dirt off of it and then we will put it back in the socket."
C) "Make sure to only touch it by its root when scrubbing the dirt off it."
D) "Rinse the tooth first then put it in a cup of saline for transport."
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35

Chapter 34: Chest Trauma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42718
Sample Questions
Q1) On follow-up, the ED physician informs you that a patient you transported earlier was found to have a hemothorax. You would understand this is a condition in which:
A) the trachea was torn.
B) fluid and blood collected around the heart.
C) the pleural membranes were punctured by a rib.
D) blood collected in the chest.
Q2) Assessment findings of a patient ejected from a motorcycle indicate that he has a flail chest wall segment to his right anterior chest. He exhibits labored breathing and an SpO at 94%. Breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. The segment has been stabilized, and you are prepared to start positive pressure ventilation. Given these assessment findings, what type of injury underlying the flail segment is your primary concern?
A) Pulmonary contusion
B) Pneumothorax
C) Hemothorax
D) Rib fractures
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 35: Abdominal and Genitourinary Trauma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42719
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called for a male patient who has been shot. Assessment reveals an entrance wound to the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. An exit wound to the left upper back is also located. Which of the following should you do immediately?
A) Cover the abdominal wound with saline-soaked gauze.
B) Auscultate the patient's breath sounds.
C) Cover the exit wound with a gloved hand.
D) Place a cervical collar on the patient.
Q2) A 45-year-old female was at a family reunion and fell off a trampoline. She hit a picnic table with the left side of her lower rib cage and is now very anxious and confused. Her airway is open and her breathing adequate. Her radial pulse is rapid and weak and her skin is cool and diaphoretic. Vital signs are: pulse 132, respirations 20, blood pressure 102/78 mmHg, and SpO 97%. She has ecchymosis to the left lower rib area as well as tenderness and instability. She also has a superficial abrasion to her forehead. Given these findings, you would suspect and treat her for what condition?
A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Hypoxia
C) Spinal shock
D) Closed head injury
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 37
Chapter 36: Multisystem Trauma and Trauma in Special Patient Populations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42720
Sample Questions
Q1) A 78-year-old male pedestrian was struck by a car at a convenience store. The patient is conscious but confused and is suffering from multisystem trauma. Which of the following represents the best sequence of care for this patient?
A) Primary assessment, oxygen, secondary assessment, immobilization, and all other care en route to the hospital
B) Primary assessment, immobilization, and all other care en route to the hospital
C) Primary assessment, oxygen, secondary assessment, and all other care en route to the hospital
D) Primary assessment, oxygen, secondary assessment, cervical collar, and all other care en route to the hospital
Q2) How would you tell a pregnant woman to restrain herself when traveling in a car?
A) Wear all seat belts normally, as you would if not pregnant.
B) Use the shoulder restraint but not the lap belt to prevent abdominal injury.
C) Avoid the belt system as long as your car has front and side air bags in place.
D) The lap belt by itself should be adequate, as long as the car is equipped with air bags.
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Page 38

Chapter 37: Obstetrics and Care of the Newborn
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42721
Sample Questions
Q1) While delivering a baby, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby's neck. You would:
A) clamp and cut the cord.
B) stop the delivery and transport.
C) slip the cord over the baby's shoulders.
D) contact medical direction.
Q2) A woman informs you that she is eight months pregnant and fatigues easily. She is apprehensive because when she lies down, she gets dizzy and feels as though she is going to vomit. Which one of the following is the best response?
A) "We really need to get to the hospital right away to make sure that your baby is okay. This does not sound good."
B) "As long as the baby is still moving you are okay. Just try to get through one more month."
C) "Check with your obstetrician, but you may want to rest and sleep on your left or right side."
D) "You should really call your doctor. During the eighth month of pregnancy energy levels usually increase."
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Chapter 38: Pediatrics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42722
Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing to provide positive pressure ventilation to a child, what will be an acceptable tidal volume if the child weighs 22 kg?
A) 200 mL
B) 154 mL
C) 246 mL
D) 104 mL
Q2) An Emergency Medical Responder asks you why you should not overextend the airway on a pediatric patient when performing a head-tilt, chin-lift. Your reply would be:
A) "The pediatric cervical spine is delicate and can be injured if the neck is hyperextended."
B) "The trachea of the pediatric patient is very short and can be injured by extension."
C) "The cartilage of the trachea is very soft and can 'kink' if the neck is extended too far."
D) "The pediatric esophagus is very thick and will occlude the airway if the neck is hyperextended."
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 39: Geriatrics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42723
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cataracts would most likely complain of:
A) cloudy vision.
B) color blindness.
C) loss of peripheral vision.
D) intermittent blindness.
Q2) To best communicate with a geriatric patient with diminished eyesight, the EMT should:
A) write questions in large print on paper.
B) increase both the pitch and volume of his voice.
C) stand in front of the patient and talk normally.
D) obtain needed information from family members.
Q3) An 89-year-old female is short of breath and has a fever. Her SpO is low and she has crackles and coarse breath sounds to both lungs. When getting history from her family caregivers, which of the following would make you suspicious that the patient has aspiration pneumonia?
A) Her legs and ankles seem more swollen today.
B) She was fine until just after eating lunch.
C) Her doctor prescribed an antibiotic for her sinus infection.
D) She has not been feeling well for three days.
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Page 41

Chapter 40: Patients With Special Challenges
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42724
Sample Questions
Q1) While assessing a patient on a home mechanical ventilator, the low pressure alarm sounds. Your immediate action would be to:
A) start positive pressure ventilation with high-concentration oxygen.
B) increase the rate of ventilation on the ventilator.
C) check the ventilator tubing for kinking or obstruction.
D) check the connection between the tubing and tracheostomy.
Q2) To find an implanted port on a patient, the EMT should:
A) examine the patient's arm.
B) check the lower abdomen.
C) palpate the anterior chest.
D) look at the lateral neck.
Q3) The fundamental reason a patient uses BiPAP when sleeping is to:
A) provide high-concentration oxygen.
B) keep the small airways open.
C) lower the amount of exhaled CO .
D) decrease the incidence of lower airway infection.
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Chapter 41: The Combat Veteran
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42725
Sample Questions
Q1) You are assessing a military veteran complaining of a headache, visual disturbances, and generalized anxiety. You suspect that he may be suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). What questions would be most appropriate in getting additional information regarding the possibility of PTSD?
A) "Were you forced to kill anyone?"
B) "What branch of the military did you serve?"
C) "Where did you see combat?"
D) "Do you need alcohol to get through the day?"
Q2) You have been dispatched to a Veteran's Administration (VA) clinic for a male patient with a behavioral emergency. On scene, the VA physician tells you that the patient is a returning veteran with newly diagnosed post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Based on this, you would realize:
A) the veteran was involved in active combat while in the service.
B) the veteran may have been in the military but never involved in combat.
C) the veteran most likely had a prior history of mental health issues.
D) the veteran has sustained physical injury to his brain.
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43

Chapter 42: Ambulance Operations and Air Medical Response
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42726
Sample Questions
Q1) When an EMT is driving an ambulance in emergency mode (lights and sirens), most states do not permit the EMT to:
A) proceed through a red light without stopping.
B) drive in the wrong direction down a one-way street.
C) turn in any direction at an intersection.
D) pass other vehicles in a no-passing zone.
Q2) You are the third ambulance to arrive at the scene of a nighttime motor vehicle collision on a busy road. As you approach the scene, which one of the following observations should cause you to alert the incident commander of a problem?
A) One ambulance acting as a physical barrier between the wrecked car and oncoming traffic.
B) Traffic cones and an EMT are being used to divert and monitor traffic.
C) One ambulance has been positioned with its lights facing oncoming traffic.
D) The closest ambulance is parked 200 feet from the wrecked car.
Q3) For routine disinfection of a stethoscope after each call, the EMT should:
A) clean it thoroughly with soap and water.
B) spray it with a solution of one part peroxide and 100 parts bleach.
C) soak it for 1 hour in a solution of hot water and bleach.
D) wipe it with a solution of one part water and 10 parts bleach.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Gaining Access and Patient Extrication
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42727
Sample Questions
Q1) Rescue workers are preparing to remove the windshield and roof from a car to extricate a patient who is trapped. Before the rescue commences, which of the following should the EMT do first?
A) Cover the patient with a heavy tarp for protection.
B) Explain to the patient what is taking place.
C) Lock all four doors and roll up the windows.
D) Wet the car down with a fire hose to prevent an accidental fire.
Q2) A car has struck a utility pole at a high rate of speed. The male driver appears to be unresponsive with snoring respirations. The vehicle has just been stabilized, and you have donned the appropriate personal protective equipment. Which one of the following should you do next?
A) Perform a jaw-thrust airway maneuver.
B) Place a tarp over some spilled antifreeze.
C) Take manual spinal stabilization.
D) Apply a cervical collar to his neck.
Q3) Which one of the following situations represents simple access to a patient?
A) Unlocking a car door by breaking the window using a screwdriver
B) Forcing entry into a house
C) Climbing stairs to gain access to a patient on a porch
D) Extrication of a patient from a car after removing one door
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Chapter 44: Hazardous Materials
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42728
Sample Questions
Q1) You are on a scene in which a radioactive material is emitting alpha rays. As a knowledgeable EMT, you recognize that the most appropriate shielding for this material is:
A) clothing.
B) aluminum.
C) concrete.
D) lead.
Q2) You are the first emergency personnel on the scene of an overturned tanker truck. The driver appears motionless in the cab of the vehicle. You also note liquid leaking from the rear-valve assembly of the tanker. After properly positioning your ambulance, your immediate priority is to:
A) assess the driver for life-threatening conditions.
B) determine what chemical is contained in the tanker.
C) evacuate people from cars near the tanker.
D) take manual in-line spinal stabilization on the driver.
Q3) The EMT would best describe a hazardous material as:
A) any material capable of injuring >50 people.
B) any material that poses a threat to life.
C) any material that is explosive in nature.
D) any material that can contaminate the environment.
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Chapter 45: Multiple-Casualty Incidents and Incident Management
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42729
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT correctly defines a multiple-casualty incident (MCI) when he states:
A) "It is any event that places an excessive demand on rescue personnel and equipment."
B) "It occurs when the number of patients requiring care is greater than 10."
C) "It occurs any time the incident requires the medical director to leave the hospital and direct activities on scene."
D) "It occurs any time that five or more people are injured and require transport to different hospitals."
Q2) A problem with the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system of triage is it:
A) is difficult to apply to young children.
B) requires at least 10 rescuers.
C) is only used for traumatic injuries.
D) can be complex and difficult to use.
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Chapter 46: Ems Response to Terrorism Involving Weapons
of Mass Destruction
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42730
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following chemical agents will kill a person most quickly?
A) Liquid vesicant that is splashed on the arm
B) Solid agent that contacts the patient's torso
C) Aerosolized agent inhaled into the lungs
D) Liquid agent that is splashed into the eyes
Q2) A chemical agent used by terrorists is described as having a high volatility. You should recognize this as meaning that the chemical is:
A) highly radioactive.
B) easily evaporated.
C) very explosive.
D) in liquid form.
Q3) Which type of radiation will travel the farthest and penetrate the human body with the greatest ease?
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Blast
D) Gamma
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Page 48

Chapter 47: ALS-Assist Skills
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42731
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following intravenous catheter sizes is best when you must quickly infuse a large amount of fluid on a trauma patient?
A) 14 gauge
B) 16 gauge
C) 20 gauge
D) 22 gauge
Q2) While assisting a paramedic to start an IV on a critical patient, he asks you to set up the IV bag with a "mini drip" administration set. Which one of the following administration sets should you use?
A) 10 drop/mL set
B) 15 drop/mL set
C) 20 drop/mL set
D) 60 drop/mL set
Q3) When helping a paramedic apply a 3-lead ECG, what action would demand immediate and corrective intervention?
A) Cleaning the skin with alcohol prior to adhering an electrode
B) Placing an electrode on the lower right chest
C) Attaching the electrode to the cable prior to placing it on the patient
D) Using antiperspirant to dry the moist and clammy skin of the patient
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Page 49

Chapter 48: Advanced Airway Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42732
Sample Questions
Q1) The Pharyngeo-tracheal Lumen (PtL) airway is most similar in design and function as what other airway device?
A) Esophageal Tracheal Combitube
B) King LT airway
C) Oropharyngeal airway
D) Endotracheal tube airway
Q2) A 6-year-old requires immediate intubation. To rapidly determine the proper-sized tube, use the tube that is the same:
A) size as the patient's age.
B) length as the distance from the patient's mouth to his earlobe.
C) size as 2 + (age in years divided by 4).
D) diameter as the patient's little finger.
Q3) Your paramedic partner is having difficulty placing an endotracheal tube in an unresponsive trauma patient. He asks you to get the King LT airway prepared. As such, you would gather:
A) King airway device.
B) King airway and laryngoscope.
C) King airway and a malleable stylet.
D) King airway, 7.0 endotracheal tube, and laryngoscope.
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Page 50