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Prehospital Care Exam Solutions - 507 Verified Questions

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Prehospital Care Exam Solutions

Course Introduction

Prehospital Care is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary to deliver medical assistance in emergency situations before patients reach the hospital. The course covers a range of topics including patient assessment, trauma management, airway and respiratory care, cardiac emergencies, medical legal issues, and safe patient transport. Emphasis is placed on rapid decision-making, teamwork, and the use of advanced equipment to stabilize critically ill or injured individuals. By integrating theory with hands-on simulations and real-world scenarios, students learn to effectively manage emergencies and collaborate with multidisciplinary teams in prehospital settings such as ambulances and disaster sites.

Recommended Textbook

ECGs Made Easy 6th Edition by Barbara J Aehlert

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507 Verified Questions

507 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Anatomy and Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) List two factors that may affect the heart's efficiency as a pump.

Answer: Abnormalities of cardiac muscle, the valves, or the conduction system.

Q2) Blood flows from the right atrium through the _____ valve into the right ventricle.

A) mitral

B) aortic

C) pulmonic

D) tricuspid

Answer: D

Q3) Blood leaves the left ventricle through the _____ valve to the aorta and its branches and is distributed throughout the body.

A) mitral

B) aortic

C) pulmonic

D) tricuspid

Answer: B

Q4) What effects can be expected from sympathetic stimulation of the heart?

Answer: Sympathetic stimulation of the heart results in increased heart rate, force of contraction, conduction velocity, blood pressure, and cardiac output.

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Chapter 2: Basic Electrophysiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) The period during the cardiac cycle when cells cannot respond to a stimulus, no matter how strong, is called the _____ period.

A) depolarized

B) supranormal

C) relative refractory

D) absolute refractory

Answer: D

Q2) In most ECG leads, a normal Q wave is less than 0.04 second in duration and less than one third the amplitude of the R wave in that lead.

A)True

B)False

Answer: TRUE

Q3) Tall, peaked T waves observed on the ECG are most commonly seen in patients with _____.

A) hypokalemia

B) hyperkalemia

C) hyponatremia

D) hypernatremia

Answer: B

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Sinus Mechanisms

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Sample Questions

Q1) In sinus arrhythmia, a gradual increasing of the heart rate is usually associated with

A) expiration

B) inspiration

C) excessive caffeine intake

D) early signs of heart failure

Answer: B

Q2) The rate of a sinus bradycardia is _____ beats/min.

A) slower than 60

B) 60 to 100

C) 80 to 120

D) faster than 100

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following are possible causes of sinus bradycardia?

A) Elevated temperature, pain

B) Increased intracranial pressure, beta-blocker overdose

C) Hypoxia, fright, caffeine-containing beverages

D) Hypovolemia, administration of sympathomimetics

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Atrial Rhythms

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most patients with type I atrial flutter develop atrial fibrillation.

A)True

B)False

Q2) To determine whether the ventricular rhythm on an ECG tracing is regular or irregular, compare _____ intervals.

A) PR

B) R-R

C) TP

D) P to P

Q3) A 77-year-old woman is complaining of a sudden onset of palpitations. The cardiac monitor reveals atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response of 144 to 210 beats/min while the patient is at rest. In this situation, the ventricular rate associated with this rhythm is considered to be _____.

A) controlled

B) uncontrolled

Q4) Delivery of an electrical current timed for delivery during the QRS complex is called defibrillation.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Junctional Rhythms

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following medications increases heart rate by accelerating the SA node discharge rate and blocking the vagus nerve?

A) Digitalis

B) Atropine

C) Amiodarone

D) Beta-blocker

Q2) The pacemaker cells in the AV junction are located near the nonbranching portion of the bundle of His.

A)True

B)False

Q3) An escape rhythm is initiated by a lower pacemaker site when the sinoatrial (SA) node slows or fails to initiate an impulse.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Adenosine is the drug of choice when treating a symptomatic patient with a junctional rhythm at a rate of 40 beats/min.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Ventricular Rhythms

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best describes an idioventricular rhythm?

A) Rapid, chaotic rhythm with no pattern or regularity

B) Gradual alteration in the amplitude and direction of the QRS; atrial rate indiscernible; ventricular rate 150 to 250 beats/min

C) Essentially regular ventricular rhythm with QRS complexes measuring 0.12 second or greater; atrial rate not discernible; ventricular rate 20 to 40 beats/min

D) Regular ventricular rhythm with QRS complexes measuring less than 0.10 second; P waves may occur before, during, or after the QRS; ventricular rate 40 to 60 beats/min

Q2) What is meant by the term pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?

A) A chaotic rhythm that is likely to degenerate into cardiac arrest

B) An organized rhythm on the cardiac monitor (other than VT), although a pulse is not present

C) A slow rhythm with a wide QRS complex

D) A flat line on the cardiac monitor

Q3) List four common causes of premature ventricular complexes.

Q4) What is the name given to polymorphic VT that occurs in the presence of a long QT interval?

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8

Chapter 7: Atrioventricular Blocks

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Sample Questions

Q1) Indicate the ECG criteria for the following dysrhythmias.

\[\begin{array} { | l | l | l }

\hline & \begin{array} { l }

\text { Second-Degree AV } \\

\text { Block Type I }

\end{array} & \begin{array} { l }

\text { Third-Degree AV } \\

\text { Block }

\end{array} \\

\hline \text { Ventricular } & & \\

\hline \text { Rhythrm } & & \\

\hline \text { PR Irteryal } & & \\

\hline \text { RRS Width } & & \\

\hline \end{array}\]

Q2) A 2:1 AV block is characterized by _____ intervals.

A) irregular P to P

B) irregular R to R

C) regular P to P intervals and regular R to R

D) irregular P to P intervals and regular R to R

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Pacemaker Rhythms

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Sample Questions

Q1) In pacing, sensitivity refers to _____.

A) the ability of a pacemaker to recognize and respond to intrinsic electrical activity

B) a pacing lead with a single electrical pole at the distal tip of the pacing lead through which the stimulating pulse is delivered

C) the successful conduction of an artificial pacemaker's impulse through the myocardium, resulting in depolarization

D) the length of time between an atrial sensed or atrial paced event and the delivery of a ventricular pacing stimulus

Q2) The first letter of the pacemaker identification code represents _____.

A) the chamber sensed

B) the chamber paced

C) the mode of response

D) programmable functions

Q3) Your patient has a DDD pacemaker. Briefly explain the meaning of each of these letters.

Q4) A demand pacemaker is also known as a _____ pacemaker.

Q5) Explain the difference between electrical capture and mechanical capture.

Q6) Describe what is meant by the term overdrive pacing.

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Chapter 9: Introduction to the 12-Lead Electrocardiogram

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Sample Questions

Q1) Lead V? views the _____.

A) septum

B) inferior wall of the left ventricle

C) lateral wall of the right ventricle

D) anterior wall of the right ventricle

Q2) The coronary arteries originate at the base of the _____.

Q3) An ECG machine's sensitivity must be calibrated so that a 1-millivolt electrical signal will produce a deflection measuring exactly _____ mm tall.

A) 0.5

B) 1

C) 5

D) 10

Q4) Explain the meaning of the letters in aVR, aVL, and aVF.

Q5) A standard 12-lead ECG provides views of the heart in _____.

A) the frontal plane only

B) the sagittal plane only

C) the horizontal plane only

D) both the frontal and the horizontal planes

Q6) Describe the appearance of a pathologic Q wave.

Q7) List six leads that view the heart in the frontal plane.

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Chapter 10: Posttest

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Sample Questions

Q1) When is the term intraventricular conduction delay used?

Q2) In an adult, the normal duration of the QRS complex is _____ seconds.

A) 0.12 to 0.20

B) 0.06 to 0.11

C) 0.04 to 0.14

D) 0.20 to 0.38

Q3) Myocardial ischemia delays the process of repolarization; therefore the ECG changes characteristic of ischemia include _____.

A) widening of the QRS complex

B) prolongation of the PR interval

C) changes in the ST segment and T wave

D) changes in the QRS complex and ST segment

Q4) Where is the positive electrode placed in lead III?

A) Right arm

B) Left arm

C) Left leg or foot

D) Right leg or foot

Q5) A QRS measuring 0.10 to 0.12 second is called a(n) _____ right or left bundle branch block.

Q6) What is a biphasic waveform?

Page 12

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