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Preclinical Medical Education encompasses the foundational coursework and laboratory experiences that form the basis of medical training prior to direct patient care. This phase typically covers the basic sciences, including anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, pathology, pharmacology, and microbiology. Through a combination of lectures, interactive sessions, cadaver dissection, simulation exercises, and problem-based learning, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the structure and function of the human body, mechanisms of disease, and principles of diagnostic reasoning. The knowledge and skills developed during preclinical education are essential for success in clinical rotations and the practice of medicine.
Recommended Textbook
ECGs Made Easy 5th Edition by Barbara J Aehlert
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515 Verified Questions
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Q1) The _____ are the heart chambers that receive blood. Answer: atria
Q2) Your patient is a 62-year-old woman complaining of a "racing heart." Your examination of the patient reveals a pulse rate of 192 beats/min.Briefly explain why recognition of a rapid heart rate is important when providing patient care.
Answer: Increases in heart rate shorten all phases of the cardiac cycle.The most important is that the time the heart spends relaxing is less.If the length of time for ventricular relaxation is shortened,there is less time for them to fill adequately with blood.If the ventricles do not have time to fill,the following occur: the amount of blood sent to the coronary arteries is reduced,the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricles will decrease (cardiac output),and signs of myocardial ischemia may be seen.
Q3) _____ is the period of relaxation during which a heart chamber is filling. Answer: Diastole
Q4) The right atrium receives blood low in oxygen from three vessels.Name them. Answer: Superior vena cava,inferior vena cava,and coronary sinus
Q5) Define systole.
Answer: Contraction or the ejection of blood from a chamber of the heart
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Q1) Each electrode placed in a "V" position is a(n)_____ electrode.
A)Electrolyte
B)Voltmeter
C)Chemical
D)Ectopic
E)Reciprocal changes
F)Atrial
G)Indicative changes
H)Amplitude
I)Repolarization
J)Supranormal
K)Ventricular
L)Reentry
M)Positive
N)Augmented
Answer: M
Q2) Depolarization is the same as contraction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may cause a sinus bradycardia?
A) Stress or anxiety
B) Increased sympathetic tone
C) Fever
D) Hypothermia
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following correctly reflects the ECG criteria for a sinus rhythm?
A) More P waves than QRS complexes
B) P waves that look alike and upright in lead II,one before each QRS complex
C) Irregular atrial and ventricular rhythm
D) PR interval exceeding 0.20 seconds
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following are possible causes of sinus tachycardia?
A) Hypothermia,hypovolemia
B) Hypoxia,calcium channel blocker overdose
C) Fever,pain,anxiety
D) Vomiting,vagal maneuvers
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Delivery of an electrical current timed for delivery during the QRS complex is called
Q2) Multifocal atrial tachycardia is another name for atrial fibrillation.
A)True B)False
Q3) Sometimes,when a premature atrial complex (PAC)occurs very prematurely and close to the T wave of the preceding beat,only a P wave may be seen with no QRS after it (appearing as a pause).This type of PAC is termed a _____ PAC.
Q4) Complete the following ECG criteria for Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW)syndrome: Rlythm_______________________________________________

Q5) Most patients with type I atrial flutter develop atrial fibrillation. A)True
B)False
Q6) An accessory pathway that has one end attached to normal conductive tissue is called a(n)_____ _____.
Page 6
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Q1) An escape rhythm is initiated by a lower pacemaker site when the sinoatrial (SA)node slows or fails to initiate an impulse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a junctional rhythm viewed in lead II,where is the location of the P wave on the ECG if atrial depolarization precedes ventricular depolarization?
A) Before the QRS complex
B) During the QRS complex
C) After the QRS complex
Q3) A junctional escape rhythm occurs because of _____.
A) severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B) multiple irritable sites firing within the AV junction
C) slowing of the rate of the heart's primary pacemaker
D) intrathoracic pressure changes associated with the normal respiratory cycle
Q4) Adenosine is the drug of choice when treating a symptomatic patient with a junctional rhythm at a rate of 40 beats/min.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following best describes an accelerated idioventricular rhythm (AIVR)?
A) Rapid,chaotic rhythm with no pattern or regularity
B) Gradual alteration in the amplitude and direction of the QRS; atrial rate indiscernible,ventricular rate 150 to 250 beats/min
C) Regular ventricular rhythm with QRS complexes measuring 0.10 seconds or less; P waves may occur before,during or after the QRS; ventricular rate 41 to 60 beats/min
D) Essentially regular ventricular rhythm with QRS complexes measuring 0.12 seconds or greater; atrial rate not discernible; ventricular rate 41 to 100 beats/min
Q2) The rate of an idioventricular rhythm is _____ beats/min.
A) 20 to 40
B) 41 to 60
C) 61 to 100
D) 101 to 180
Q3) List three potential sites of origin of ectopic beats.
Q4) Medications to suppress an idioventricular rhythm should generally be avoided.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A _____ bundle branch block produces a RSR pattern in lead V?.
Q2) Complete the following ECG criteria for second-degree AV block type II: Rhythm__________________________
P waves__________________________
PR interval_________________________________
QRS duration______________________________
Q3) An ECG rhythm strip shows a regular ventricular rhythm at a rate of 30 beats/min,more P waves than QRS complexes (the P waves occur regularly),a variable PR interval,and a QRS duration of 0.14 seconds.This rhythm is _____.
A) 2:1 AV block
B) third-degree AV block
C) second-degree AV block type I
D) second-degree AV block type II
Q4) In 2:1 AV block,the PR interval _____.
A) shortens
B) lengthens
C) is absent
D) remains constant
Q5) A _____ bundle branch block produces a QS pattern in lead V?.
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Q1) Explain the difference between electrical capture and mechanical capture.
Q2) Capture is _____.
A) the electrical stimulus delivered by a pacemaker's pulse generator
B) a vertical line on the ECG that indicates the pacemaker has discharged
C) the time measured between a sensed cardiac event and the next pacemaker output
D) the ability of a pacing stimulus to successfully depolarize the cardiac chamber that is being paced
Q3) Explain the benefits of a dual-chamber pacemaker.
Q4) The first letter of the pacemaker identification code represents _____.
A) the chamber sensed
B) the chamber paced
C) the mode of response
D) programmable functions
Q5) Your patient has a VVI pacemaker.Briefly explain the meaning of each of these letters.
Q6) A(n)_____ _____ is a vertical line on the ECG that indicates the artificial pacemaker has discharged.
Q7) A demand pacemaker is also known as a _____ pacemaker.
Q8) Describe what is meant by the term overdrive pacing.
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Q1) Which leads look at adjoining tissue in the inferior region of the left ventricle?
A) I,aVL
B) V<sub>1</sub>,V<sub>2</sub>
C) V<sub>3</sub>,V<sub>4</sub>,V<sub>5</sub>
D) II,III,aVF
Q2) When you read a 12-lead ECG from left to right,the ECG tracing is continuous.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A standard 12-lead ECG provides views of the heart in _____.
A) the frontal plane only
B) the sagittal plane only
C) the horizontal plane only
D) both the frontal and the horizontal planes
Q4) An ECG machine's sensitivity must be calibrated so that a 1-millivolt electrical signal will produce a deflection measuring exactly _____ mm tall.
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 5
D) 10
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Q1) The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the _____ _____ _____ (which carries blood from the head and upper extremities),the _____ _____ _____ (which carries blood from the lower body),and the _____ _____ (which receives blood from the intracardiac circulation).
Q2) A(n)_____ _____ is a vertical line on the ECG that indicates the pacemaker has discharged.
Q3) The anterior surface of the heart consists primarily of the _____.
A) left atrium
B) right atrium
C) left ventricle
D) right ventricle
Q4) List five signs or symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
Q5) Which of the following correctly reflects the ECG indicators of ischemia?
A) Pathologic Q waves,ST-segment elevation
B) ST-segment elevation,T wave inversion
C) ST-segment depression,T wave inversion
D) Pathologic Q waves,ST-segment depression
Q6) The area supplied by an obstructed coronary artery goes through a characteristic sequence of events that have been identified as zones of _____,_____,and _____.
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