Pre-Nursing Studies Exam
Review
Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Studies is an introductory course designed to prepare students for entry into professional nursing programs. The curriculum covers foundational topics such as human anatomy and physiology, basic microbiology, nutrition, and medical terminology, as well as principles of patient care and health assessment. Emphasis is placed on developing essential skills in communication, critical thinking, and ethical decision-making. Students are also introduced to the roles and responsibilities of nurses in various healthcare settings, equipping them with the academic knowledge and practical insight needed for a successful transition to nursing school.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 5th Edition by Herlihy
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following refers to the lower back region?
A) Groin
B) Axillary
C) Umbilical
D) Lumbar
Answer: D
Q2) What is the branch of science that studies how the body functions?
A) Anatomy
B) Histology
C) Pathology
D) Physiology
Answer: D
Q3) The ventral cavity is the anterior cavity; the ________ is the posterior cavity.
A) thoracic cavity
B) dorsal cavity
C) pleural cavity
D) mediastinum
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) [H ] refers to
A) an isotope of hydrogen.
B) heavy hydrogen.
C) hydrogen bonding.
D) hydrogen ion concentration.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following are located in the orbits surrounding the nucleus?
A) Isotopes
B) Protons
C) Electrons
D) Neutrons
Answer: C
Q3) ATP
A) is a buffer, removing H<sup>+</sup> from solution.
B) is an energy transfer molecule.
C) is a radioactive isotope of phosphate.
D) ionizes to H<sup>+</sup>, thereby lowering pH.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the process in which an intracellular protein-containing vesicle fuses with the cell membrane and expels the protein to the outside of the cell?
A) Endocytosis
B) Pinocytosis
C) Exocytosis
D) Phagocytosis
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is considered the control center of the cell?
A) Mitochondrion
B) Nucleus
C) Lysosome
D) Centriole
Answer: B
Q3) Mitosis
A) occurs only within sex cells.
B) produces two genetically identical cells.
C) occurs only within red blood cells.
D) causes a 50% reduction in chromosome number.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a monosaccharide that is measured as the "blood sugar"?
A) Glycerol
B) Glycogen
C) Glucose
D) Lactose
Q2) Which of the following is descriptive of mitochondrial function?
A) Lactic acid production
B) Glycolysis
C) Aerobic catabolism
D) Protein synthesis
Q3) Which of the following is a waste product of the aerobic glucose metabolism?
A) ATP
B) CO2
C) Urea
D) Glycogen
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amebic dysentery and giardiasis are
A) mycotic infections.
B) caused by Salmonella.
C) worm infestations.
D) caused by protozoan parasites.
Q2) Clostridium tetani and Clostridium difficile
A) are gram-negative bacilli.
B) are anaerobic.
C) are always pathogenic.
D) cause the "tineas," such as athlete's foot and ringworm.
Q3) Infections such as athlete's foot and ringworm are referred to as A) systemic.
B) mycotic.
C) parasitic.
D) bacterial.
Q4) Rhinoviruses
A) are sensitive to penicillin.
B) are capable of causing infection only in an immunosuppressed individual.
C) cause the common cold.
D) are gram-positive.
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most related to mucous membrane?
A) Forms the dermis
B) Lines all the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body
C) Is also called the skin
D) Is the same as the epidermis
Q2) The epithelium is described as being avascular,meaning that it
A) is single-layered.
B) has no blood supply of its own.
C) is colorless.
D) contains sudoriferous glands but not sebaceous glands.
Q3) Skeletal,cardiac,and smooth are
A) all striped or striated.
B) types of connective tissue.
C) all concerned with the movement of bones.
D) types of muscle.
Q4) Damaged skeletal muscle,cardiac muscle,and nervous tissue are replaced by A) the same tissue type.
B) scar tissue.
C) epithelial tissue.
D) adhesions.
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonshivering thermogenesis is accomplished by
A) involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles.
B) constriction of the dermal blood vessels.
C) metabolism associated with brown fat.
D) involuntary contraction of the arrector pili muscles.
Q2) A person feels warmer on a humid day because
A) the decrease in evaporation of water from the skin surface decreases the loss of heat.
B) the body produces more heat on a humid day.
C) a person breathes slower on a humid day and exhales less heated air.
D) All of the above are true.
Q3) Who or what is covered with vernix caseosa?
A) A pregnant woman
B) A toddler
C) A fetus
D) The pregnant uterus
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bones articulate at a suture?
A) Occipital and atlas
B) Temporal and mandible
C) Frontal and parietal
D) Atlas and axis
Q2) The coronal suture forms an immovable joint between the parietal bones and which bone?
A) Occipital
B) Frontal
C) Temporal
D) Sphenoid
Q3) The humerus
A) contains the olecranon process.
B) articulates distally with the ulna.
C) forms a ball-and-socket joint where the olecranon process articulates with the olecranon fossa.
D) articulates with the scapula at the sternomanubrial joint.
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure is an extension of the sarcolemma or cell membrane,which penetrates the interior of the muscle and carries the electrical signal to the deepest part of the muscle?
A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) T tubule
C) Z line
D) Tendon
Q2) Which of the following "slide" in the sliding filament hypothesis?
A) Calcium and ATP
B) Sarcoplasm and T tubules
C) Actin and myosin
D) Epimysium and perimysium
Q3) This muscle group has four muscles: two oblique,one rectus,and one transverse.
A) Quadriceps femoris
B) Hamstrings
C) Adductors
D) Abdominal
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which word best describes the precentral gyrus?
A) Olfactory
B) Visual
C) Motor
D) Language
Q2) Which of the following best illustrates cerebral lateralization?
A) Narcotics depress medullary respiratory activity.
B) In most people speech is a left hemisphere function.
C) The precentral gyrus is motor, while the postcentral gyrus is sensory.
D) The occipital lobe receives sensory information from both eyes.
Q3) Which group is incorrect?
A) Lobes of the cerebrum: frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal
B) Parts of the brain stem: cerebrum, pons, medulla oblongata
C) Divisions of the nervous system: central nervous system, peripheral nervous system
D) Electrical events: depolarization, repolarization, action potential
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral
Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the disorder: clusters of vesicles develop along cranial or spinal dermatomes; herpes zoster; postherpetic neuralgia.
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Shingles
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Trigeminal neuralgia
Q2) The gag reflex is mediated by which nerve?
A) Optic nerve
B) Oculomotor nerve
C) Cranial nerve VIII
D) Glossopharyngeal nerve
Q3) Damage to which nerve prevents extension of the hip and flexion of the knee?
A) Axillary
B) Phrenic
C) Sciatic
D) Median cubital
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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscarinic receptors are
A) activated by norepinephrine.
B) located on the effector organs of the sympathetic nervous system.
C) activated by catecholamines such as adrenalin and dopamine.
D) activated by ACh.
Q2) Which of the following is an effect of postganglionic parasympathetic discharge?
A) Slowed heart rate
B) Increased blood pressure
C) Dilation of the pupil of the eye
D) Stronger contraction of the heart
Q3) Atropine is classified as a muscarinic antagonist or blocker and therefore is A) parasympathomimetic.
B) sympatholytic.
C) vagolytic.
D) sympathomimetic.
Q4) Alpha and beta receptors are
A) associated with the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) associated with craniosacral outflow.
C) located on the paravertebral ganglia.
D) activated by norepinephrine.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which ossicle picks up vibrations from the tympanic membrane?
A) Stapes
B) Malleus
C) Stirrup
D) Incus
Q2) The conjunctiva
A) covers the cornea.
B) is a mucous membrane.
C) contains blood vessels that nourish the retina.
D) secretes aqueous humor.
Q3) Astigmatism,myopia,and hyperopia are or create
A) errors of refraction.
B) due to defects within the primary visual cortex.
C) consequences of vitamin A deficiency.
D) types of blindness.
Q4) What is the effect of contraction and relaxation of the ciliary muscle?
A) Dilated pupil
B) Change in the shape of the lens
C) Raised eyelid
D) Blinking
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of both prolactin and oxytocin? Both
A) are concerned with lactation.
B) are secreted by the adenohypophysis.
C) stimulate the mammary glands to make milk.
D) are concerned only with lactation.
Q2) Which gland secretes TSH,ACTH,and growth hormone?
A) Neurohypophysis
B) Pancreas
C) Adrenal medulla
D) Anterior pituitary gland
Q3) Epinephrine (adrenalin)increases blood glucose by
A) increasing transport of glucose into the cell.
B) stimulating gluconeogenesis.
C) stimulating the hepatic conversion of glycogen into glucose.
D) converting fatty acids into glucose.
Q4) Which of the following is true of the hypothalamus?
A) Secretes releasing hormones into the portal capillaries
B) Composed of glandular tissue
C) Called the adenohypophysis
D) Connected to the neurohypophysis by the portal capillaries
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause erythroblastosis?
A) The baby is Rh- and the mother is Rh-.
B) The baby is Rh+ and the mother is Rh+.
C) The baby is Rh+ and the mother is Rh-.
D) The baby is Rh- and the mother is Rh+.
Q2) Petechiae formation
A) is characteristic of sickle cell anemia.
B) is most often prevented by a diet that is high in vitamin K.
C) refers to pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin.
D) is caused by a deficiency of reticulocytes.
Q3) Which of the following blood cells is myelocytic and immature?
A) Megakaryocyte
B) Platelet
C) Neutrophil
D) Reticulocyte
Q4) Leukocytosis and leukopenia are
A) increased numbers of white blood cells.
B) decreased numbers of white blood cells.
C) abnormal numbers of white blood cells.
D) the result of myelosuppression.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least descriptive of the myocardium?
A) Cardiac muscle composed of actin and myosin arranged in sarcomeres
B) Thicker in the ventricles than the atria
C) Thicker in the left ventricle than the right ventricle
D) Thicker in the left atrium than the right ventricle
Q2) Which group is incorrect?
A) Semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic
B) Structures that carry oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta
C) Layers of the heart: epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
D) Abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia, normal sinus rhythm
Q3) A vessel(s)that carry(ies)blood from the pulmonary capillaries to the left atrium is (are)the
A) aorta.
B) pulmonary artery.
C) pulmonary veins.
D) vena cava.
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the sequence of events that occur during one heartbeat?
A) Stroke volume
B) Cardiac output
C) Cardiac cycle
D) Systole
Q2) Digoxin exerts a (-)chronotropic effect and (+)inotropic effect.Which of the following describes these effects?
A) Slows heart rate and decreases cardiac output
B) Increases heart rate and increases systemic vascular resistance
C) Decreases heart rate and decreases stroke volume
D) Decreases heart rate and strengthens myocardial contraction
Q3) Which of the following elicits the same effect as vagomimetic activity?
A) Beta1 blockade
B) Activation of the alpha1-adrenergic receptors by ACh
C) Activation of the muscarinic receptors by NE
D) Use of a muscarinic agonist
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a function of the hepatic veins?
A) Supply oxygenated blood to the hepatic sinusoids
B) Receive blood from the organs of digestion and deliver it to the portal vein
C) Drain blood from the liver and deliver it to the inferior vena cava
D) Carry blood from the vena cava to the liver
Q2) Which blood vessel name means "slumber"? If pressure is exerted over this vessel,the patient may lose consciousness.
A) Carotid artery
B) Portal vein
C) Subclavian vein
D) Dorsalis pedis
Q3) The characteristic of the arteriole that allows it to function as a resistance vessel is its
A) thin membrane.
B) porous membrane.
C) valves.
D) smooth muscle.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most responsible for the plasma oncotic pressure?
A) Albumin
B) Cl<sup>-</sup>
C) Na<sup>+</sup>
D) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q2) The characteristic of the arteriole that allows it to function as a resistance vessel is its
A) thin membrane.
B) porous membrane.
C) valves.
D) smooth muscle.
Q3) With which phrase is afterload most associated?
A) Heart rate
B) Arteriolar vasoconstriction
C) (+) Inotropic effect
D) Venous return
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Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymphatic capillaries
A) absorb tissue fluid and transport it toward the heart.
B) are close to and parallel the distribution of arterioles.
C) are composed of smooth muscle and determine SVR (systemic vascular resistance).
D) transport protein-free interstitial fluid.
Q2) Which of the following is true about lymph? It is
A) absorbed by lymphatic capillaries from the interstitium.
B) filtered by the lymphatic capillaries into the interstitium.
C) secreted by the subclavian veins into the large lymphatic ducts.
D) synthesized and stored within the lymph nodes.
Q3) Which of the following is (are)described as partially encapsulated lymph nodes located in the throat area?
A) Spleen
B) Tonsils
C) Thymus gland
D) Lacteal
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Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plasma cells are least related to A) interferons.
B) B lymphocytes.
C) antibodies.
D) IgG, IgA, IgM, and IgE.
Q2) Agglutination is the consequence of
A) antigen-antibody interaction.
B) the binding of IgG antibodies to mast cells.
C) the effect of histamine on the smooth muscle of the lungs and blood vessels.
D) activation of blood coagulation factors.
Q3) Inflammation is
A) a reaction that is classified as a specific immune response.
B) characterized by redness, heat, swelling, and pain.
C) known as cell-mediated immunity.
D) initiated only by a pathogen.
Q4) An allergen is a(n)
A) antibody.
B) macrophage.
C) lymphokine.
D) antigen.
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The trachea is
A) "the problem" in asthma.
B) the site of gas exchange.
C) composed primarily of smooth muscle.
D) a large airway that splits into two bronchi.
Q2) The water molecule is polar,meaning that each end of the molecule has an electrical charge.Because of this characteristic,water
A) has a high surface tension.
B) can only dissolve lipids.
C) is a poor solvent.
D) is lipid-soluble.
Q3) Laryngospasm is most likely to cause A) emphysema.
B) pneumothorax.
C) acute respiratory obstruction.
D) asthma.
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lactose intolerance is a _____ problem.
A) disaccharidase
B) HCl
C) bile
D) cholecystokinin (CCK)
Q2) Which of the following is least related to fat digestion?
A) Trypsin
B) Bile
C) Cholecystokinin
D) Lipase
Q3) Enamel,dentin,and cementum are related to which structure?
A) Tooth
B) Liver
C) Colon
D) Villi
Q4) What is the site of absorption for most end products of digestion?
A) Duodenum and jejunum
B) Ileum
C) Colon
D) Stomach
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with stenosis (narrowing)of the renal artery is most likely to present with A) uremia.
B) hypertension.
C) albuminuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema.
D) glucosuria.
Q2) In the process of secretion,a substance moves from the peritubular capillaries into what structure?
A) Glomeruli
B) Calyces
C) Renal pelvis
D) Renal tubules
Q3) Which of the following is handled by the kidneys as either urea or ammonia?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Creatinine
C) Nitrogen
D) Glucose
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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Which of the following is most apt to cause a hypocalcemic tetany?
A) Hyperventilation
B) Rapid and excess fat catabolism
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) pH < 7.35
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to occur when output exceeds intake?
A) Diuresis
B) Polyuria
C) Hematuria
D) Dehydration
Q3) Which of the following is an example of metabolic acidosis with a respiratory compensation?
A) Morphine overdose and diuresis
B) Persistent vomiting and hypoventilation
C) Ketoacidosis and Kussmaul respirations
D) Hypocalcemic tetany and hyperventilation
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which group is correct?
A) Uterine layers: perimetrium, myometrium, cervix
B) Gonads: zygote, ovaries, testes,
C) Steroids: testosterone, estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin
D) Uterine parts: fundus, body, cervix
Q2) What is the primary secretion of the corpus luteum?
A) FSH
B) hCG
C) Progesterone
D) Androgen
Q3) Which structure surrounds the upper portion of the urethra and contributes to the formation of semen?
A) Cowper's glands
B) Adenohypophysis
C) Seminal vesicles
D) Prostate gland
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Q1) Which of the following is the first event?
A) Parturition
B) Implantation
C) Placental development
D) Secretion of vernix caseosa
Q2) The fimbriae sweep the ovum into which structure immediately following ovulation?
A) Uterus
B) Fallopian tube
C) Vagina
D) Ovary
Q3) What term describes the ectoderm,mesoderm,and endoderm?
A) Inner cell mass
B) Extraembryonic membranes
C) Primary germ layers
D) Blastomeres
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