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The Pre-Nursing course is designed to prepare students for entry into professional nursing programs by equipping them with foundational knowledge in the biological, physical, and social sciences. Emphasizing core concepts in human anatomy and physiology, microbiology, chemistry, nutrition, and psychology, the course lays the groundwork for advanced studies in nursing. Students also gain an introduction to the healthcare system, medical terminology, and basic patient care principles, while developing essential academic skills such as critical thinking, communication, and ethical decision-making relevant to the nursing profession. This preparatory course supports students in meeting prerequisite requirements and building a strong academic foundation for a successful transition into nursing school.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Language Immerse Yourself 4th Edition by Susan M. Turley
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19 Chapters
4656 Verified Questions
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296 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prefixes anti- and dys- belong to a category that describes ________.
A)degree or quality
B)amount,number,or speed
C)location or direction
D)all of the above
Answer: A
Q2) The prefix poly- means "five."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The abbreviation PMH might be seen in ________.
A)an EHR
B)a paper medical record
C)an EPR
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q4) A suffix can be a single letter.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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483 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disease that is ________ (resistant)is one that does NOT respond to treatment.
Answer: refractory
Q2) Using the coronal plane to divide the body,the back of the body is the posterior or ________ section.
Answer: dorsal
Q3) The combining form later/o- means ________.
A)"back"
B)"front"
C)"middle"
D)"side"
Answer: D
Q4) A patient cannot recover from an illness that is ________.
A)therapeutic
B)terminal
C)chronic
D)infectious
Answer: B
Q5) Using the transverse plane,the upper half of the body is the ________ section. Answer: superior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form umbilic/o- means "________."
A)center
B)hernia
C)abdomen
D)navel
Answer: D
Q2) The combining form cheil/o- means "________."
Answer: lip
Q3) The combining form appendic/o- means "appendicitis."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A patient with obstipation has ________.
A)intestine blockage
B)obstructed colon
C)severe constipation
D)a sialolith
Answer: C
Q5) What is the adjective form for mouth?
Answer: oral
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inferior end of the trachea splits to become the right and left primary
A)alveoli
B)bronchi
C)larynx
D)bronchus
Q2) The combining form hal/o- means "________."
Q3) The process of measuring the FEV and FVC and the amount of air that the lungs can forcefully exhale is known as ________.
A)culture and sensitivity
B)spirometry.
C)chest radiography
D)oximetry
Q4) The combining form cost/o- means "________."
Q5) The percussion method of assessment is performed by ________ on the patient's back over the lung.
Q6) The purpose of an endotracheal intubation is to establish an airway for a patient.
A)True
B)False
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347 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) During angiography,a radiopaque dye is injected into a blood vessel to fill and outline it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the four valves in the heart?
A)coronary
B)mitral
C)pulmonary
D)tricuspid
Q3) In the word arteriosclerosis,the combining form scler/o- means "________;sclera of the eye."
A)heart chamber
B)narrowness
C)hard
D)artery
Q4) ________ is the study of the heart and related structures.
Q5) The ________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
Q6) A silent MI is a heart attack that is associated with no symptoms.
A)True
B)False

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207 Verified Questions
207 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most abundant plasma protein?
A)albumin
B)ferritin
C)bilirubin
D)bicarbonate
Q2) When clotting factors in the plasma are activated to form a blood clot,the fluid portion of plasma that remains is then known as ________.
Q3) ________ is the medical procedure to remove a sample of venous blood for testing.
A)Crossmatch
B)Immunization
C)Phlebotomy
D)Splenectomy
Q4) ________ is the medical specialty that studies the anatomy and physiology of the blood.
Q5) When erythrocytes are mature,they do NOT have a nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When a thrombus moves and travels through the blood,it is known as a/an
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ is the thin,outermost layer of the skin.
Q2) ________ is the medical specialty that studies the skin.
Q3) Spandex,latex gloves,soaps,and detergents all can produce ________.
A)actinic keratoses
B)contact dermatitis
C)squamous cell carcinoma
D)alopecia
Q4) The procedure that removes acne scars,wrinkles,or tattoos by means of chemical peel,dermabrasion,or laser treatments is called ________.
A)skin resurfacing
B)suturing
C)biopsy
D)skin graft
Q5) The meaning of "guarding;protecting" refers to the combining form ________.
A)phylact/o-
B)sensitiv/o-
C)cutane/o-
D)lip/o-
Q6) The acronym ________ stands for "light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation."
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surface of a bone is covered with ________,a thick,fibrous membrane.
Q2) Each ankle contains seven ________ bones.
Q3) Which word parts do you need to build a medical word that means "instrument used to examine (a)joint"?
A)-ic,arthr/o-,scop/oB)-graft,aut/oC)-scopy, arthr/oD)-scope,arthr/o-
Q4) Which is a degenerative condition of the spine in which one vertebra moves anteriorly and slips out of proper alignment?
A)kyphosis
B)ossification
C)spondylolisthesis
D)ankylosing spondylitis
Q5) Blood in a joint cavity is called ________.
Q6) Which of the following bones is NOT in the thorax?
A)manubrium
B)rib
C)ulna
D)xiphoid process

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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form ________ means to "introduce;put in."
Q2) Explain how muscle pairs produce movement.
Q3) The combining form ________ means "tear."
Q4) A muscle that produces eversion is part of a muscle pair in which the other muscle produces ________.
Q5) The intercostal muscles assist with what activity?
A)raising the shoulder
B)moving the arm
C)breathing, coughing, or sneezing
D)moving the neck
Q6) Inflammation with tenderness and swelling of a skeletal muscle is known as ________.
A)muscular dystrophy
B)myopathy
C)myositis
D)avulsion
Q7) The combining form pod/o- means "________."
Q8) The masseter muscle is found in the area of the face.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of dementia is ________.
A)Alzheimer's disease
B)senile
C)receptive
D)multi-infarct
Q2) All of the following are true about the Romberg test EXCEPT ________.
A)it is also known as the station test
B)it asks the patient to recall objects or words
C)it is a test of balance
D)it is done with the feet together and the eyes closed
Q3) The posterior or dorsal nerve roots of the spinal cord are categorized as what type of nerves?
A)afferent nerves
B)ventral nerves
C)efferent nerves
D)cranial nerves
Q4) There are four types of normal brain waves seen on an EEG: alpha,beta,delta,and theta.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The abbreviation ARF means ________.
A)acid resistant factor
B)acute renal factor
C)acute renal failure
D)albumin renin factor
Q2) A urinometer or a refractometer is used to measure the ________ of urine.
A)sediments
B)specific gravity
C)pH
D)color
Q3) Which is the correct order for the process of producing urine?
A)filtration,collection of filtrate,reabsorption,excretion of urine
B)collection of filtrate,filtration,reabsorption,excretion of urine
C)reabsorption, filtration, collection of filtrate, excretion of urine
D)excretion of urine,filtration,collection of filtrate,reabsorption
Q4) Which of the following is FALSE regarding chronic renal failure?
A)It begins with renal insufficiency.
B)There is gradual worsening and progressive damage to the kidneys.
C)It may lead to end-stage renal disease.
D)It develops rapidly,sometimes due to trauma.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The long,tightly coiled tube that is attached to the outer wall of each testis is the
A)epididymis
B)vas deferens
C)seminiferous tubule
D)spermatic cord
Q2) Which structure is NOT involved in the process of an erection of the penis?
A)corpora cavernosa
B)corpus spongiosum
C)prepuce
D)erectile tissue
Q3) All of the following combining forms mean testis EXCEPT ________.
A)orchi/o-
B)didym/o-
C)testicul/o-
D)morph/o-
Q4) The word testis has a different meaning from the word testicle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of producting many mature spermatozoa is called ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of women is called ________.
Q2) A neonate born at ________ weeks would be considered a term newborn.
A)30
B)35
C)40
D)45
Q3) What is the difference between the perineum and the perimetrium?
Q4) A normal presentation of the fetus at the time of delivery would be ________.
A)transverse
B)vertex
C)footling
D)breech
Q5) All of the following are types of assisted reproductive technology EXCEPT ________.
A)GIFT
B)IVF
C)EGA
D)ZIFT

Page 16
Q6) The general category of any type of head-down presentation of the fetus in the birth canal is called a ________ presentation.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form pituit/o- and ________ both mean pituitary gland.
A)adren/o-
B)hypophys/o-
C)andr/o-
D)glandul/o-
Q2) Hypoglycemia can cause ________.
A)elevated blood pressure,flushing of the skin,and increased sensitivity to pain
B)slow heart rate,dry skin,and constipation
C)headache, sweating, and shakiness
D)decreased thirst,urination,and appetite
Q3) Diabetes mellitus in the mother resolves once the pregnancy is delivered.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is TRUE of the hormone oxytocin?
A)It causes contractions of the uterus during labor.
B)It causes the breasts to release milk for breastfeeding.
C)It causes the uterus to contract after birth to prevent hemorrhaging.
D)all of the above
Q5) Endocrinologists who only treat patients with diabetes mellitus are known as ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ cavity is a large space between the lens and the retina.
Q2) Which of the following is a test for color blindness?
A)Snellen chart
B)tonometry
C)Ishihara plates
D)PERRL
Q3) The structure of the eye that is colored is the ________.
A)lens
B)iris
C)optic chiasm
D)orbit
Q4) The ________ is a dark,round,central opening that allows light rays to enter the internal eye.
Q5) The formation of new,fragile blood vessels in the retina is caused by uncontrolled ________.
A)macular degeneration
B)diabetes mellitus
C)uveitis.
D)astigmatism
Q6) Describe the conjunctiva and its function.
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182 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plural spelling that means both nostrils is naris.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A radical neck dissection for cancer would include partial removal of the ________.
A)pharynx
B)mandible
C)epiglottis
D)maxillary sinus
Q3) The bone that divides the nasal cavity from the oral cavity and forms the roof of the mouth is known as the ________.
A)soft palate
B)nasal septum
C)hard palate
D)buccal mucosa
Q4) Glue ear,a thick accumulation of secretions,is associated with ________.
A)cerumen impaction
B)labyrinthitis
C)otitis externa
D)otitis media

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Q1) A man was arrested after secretly peeping into his neighbor's bedroom window so that he could be sexually aroused.His condition is called ________.
A)exhibitionism
B)sadism
C)voyeurism
D)transvestism
Q2) Briefly explain hypochondriasis and include the meaning of the word parts found in the word.
Q3) Thanatophobia is the fear of ________.
A)spiders
B)snakes
C)strangers
D)death
Q4) Which category of drugs is also known as anxiolytic drugs?
A)antidepressant drugs
B)antipsychotic drugs
C)antianxiety drugs
D)Antabuse
Q5) The most common type of psychosis is ________.
Q6) Describe the causes and characteristics of posttraumatic stress disorder.
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Q1) A surgical procedure that excises a tumor as well as all of the nearby organs is called an exenteration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A cell is the smallest,independently functioning structure in the body that can reproduce itself by division.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Debulking is a procedure in which a surgeon removes only part of a large tumor in order to reduce its size.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Reed-Sternberg cell appears in a biopsy from which cancer?
A)adenocarcinoma
B)Hodgkin's lymphoma
C)multiple myeloma
D)chronic myelogenous leukemia
Q5) ________ assays are cytology tests that measures the number of ERs or PRs on the cell membrane.
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Q1) Which is the unit of measurement for radiation exposure?
A)rem
B)gram
C)frequency
D)positron
Q2) ________ is the trade name for the combination of indium-111 and monoclonal antibodies.
A)OncoScint
B)Ventilation/perfusion scan
C)Multiple-gated acquisition scan
D)Radioactive iodine uptake
Q3) In this test,liquid barium contrast medium is swallowed.It outlines the esophagus and stomach to show ulcers or areas of blockage.
A)oral cholecystography
B)upper gastrointestinal series
C)pyelography
D)lymphangiography
Q4) Obtaining radiographs requires the patient to be placed in different positions known as ________,or views.
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