

Pre-Nursing Fundamentals
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Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Fundamentals introduces students to the foundational concepts, skills, and professional behaviors essential for success in nursing education and practice. The course covers basic human anatomy and physiology, medical terminology, health and wellness concepts, and the fundamental principles of patient care and safety. Students gain insight into the healthcare system, the roles and responsibilities of nurses, and the importance of effective communication, critical thinking, and ethical decision-making in nursing. Practical skills such as vital sign measurement, infection control, patient mobility assistance, and documentation are emphasized to prepare students for more advanced nursing coursework and clinical experiences.
Recommended Textbook Body Structures and Functions 12th Edition by
Ann Senisi Scott
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Structural Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions would occur on the anterior part of the body?
A)injury to the bottom of the foot
B)ventral hernia
C)bruise on the back of the head
Answer: B
Q2) In the metric system, which of the following is used to measure weights?
A)grams
B)meters
C)liters
D)milliliters
Answer: A
Q3) The ____________ divides the ventral cavity into two parts: the upper thoracic and the lower abdominopelvic cavities.
Answer: diaphragm
Q4) The midsagittal plane divides the body into front and back halves.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The dorsal cavity contains the ____________ cavity and the ____________ cavity.
Answer: cranial, spinal

Page 3
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Living Things
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a lipid?
A)carbohydrate
B)protein
C)fat
D)enzyme
Answer: C
Q2) The smallest particles of elements that enter into chemical reactions are ____________.
Answer: atoms
Q3) Electrolytes are responsible for the acidity or alkalinity of solutions and can conduct an electrical charge.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q4) Another name for a base is alkali.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) A positively or negatively charged particle is called a(n)
Answer: ion
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Q1) Most of the cell's energy comes from spherical, or rod-shaped, organelles called mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) _____________________ is the diffusion of water or any other solvent molecule through a selective permeable membrane. Answer: Osmosis
Q3) When a cell increases in size, it is called _____________________. Answer: hypertrophy
Q4) The nucleus of a cell is contained with a nuclear membrane, which is impermeable.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q5) Osmosis is the movement of solutes across a semipermeable membrane. A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Tissues and Membranes
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Q1) prepares food for absorption and use by body cells through chemical and physical changes
A)skeletal
B)muscular
C)digestive
D)respiratory
E)circulatory
F)excretory
G)nervous
H)endocrine
I)reproductive
J)integumentary
Q2) Synovial membranes secrete synovial fluid, which prevents friction inside the joint cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Granulation occurs in the primary repair of wounds.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) ____________________ is the basic structural unit of the body.
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Chapter 5: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Certain medications can increase the risk of obtaining a sunburn.
A)True
B)False
Q2) also called carbuncles and are painful
A)acne vulgaris
B)athlete's feet
C)impetigo
D)psoriasis
E)herpes
F)basal cell carcinoma
G)rosacea
H)shingles (herpes zoster)
I)warts
J)boils
Q3) If a person is described as an albino, you would expect their skin to be unusually ruddy in color.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ is an inflammation of the skin that may be nonspecific.
Page 7
Q5) ____________________ are cells that form and contain black pigment.
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Chapter 6: Skeletal System
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Q1) synarthrosis
A)movable joint
B)immovable joint
C)area between two articular cartilages
D)partially movable joint
E)lining of the articular cartilage
F)example of a pivot joint
G)joint connected by tough fibrous tissue
H)elastic material between vertebrae
Q2) synovial cavity
A)movable joint
B)immovable joint
C)area between two articular cartilages
D)partially movable joint
E)lining of the articular cartilage
F)example of a pivot joint
G)joint connected by tough fibrous tissue
H)elastic material between vertebrae
Q3) The most common type of injury to a bone is a(n) ____________________.
Q4) The spine consists of small bones called ____________________.
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Chapter 7: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding fibromyalgia?
A)It is characterized by sudden acute pain.
B)The treatment is surgical.
C)The etiology is a bacterial infection.
D)It is a collection of symptoms (syndrome).
Q2) Skeletal muscles that are not used will hypertrophy, and those that are used excessively will atrophy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) gastrocnemius
A)muscle of facial expression
B)muscle of the trunk
C)muscle of the lower extremity
D)muscle of the upper extremity
Q4) orbicularis oculi
A)muscle of facial expression
B)muscle of the trunk
C)muscle of the lower extremity
D)muscle of the upper extremity
Q5) The major source of energy for muscles is
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Chapter 8: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____________________________ is made up of 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Q2) The neurotransmitter between muscle cells and the nervous system cells is _____.
A)epinephrine
B)acetylcholine
C)norepinephrine
Q3) The adult brain weighs about 1,400 grams (3 pounds).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Without oxygen, brain damage will occur within _____.
A)2 to 3 minutes
B)4 to 8 minutes
C)10 to 15 minutes
D)25 to 30 minutes
Q5) The substance that serves as a liquid shock absorber protecting the brain and spinal cord is called ________________________.
Q6) A lumbar puncture may be done to determine the effectiveness of the blood-brain barrier.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Peripheral and Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) The parasympathetic nervous system is referred to as the fight-or-flight system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____________________ and ____________________ nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system.
Q3) The spinal nerves are named in relation to their location on the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a provider taps the knee to determine the presence of a knee-jerk reflex, what is happening?
A)A message is sent to the brain to respond.
B)A message is sent to the spinal cord to respond.
C)The nerve being tapped responds locally and no message is transmitted.
Q5) A nerve composed of fibers carrying impulses to the brain or spinal cord from muscles or glands is called an efferent nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) ____________________ is composed of bundles of nerve fibers enclosed by connective tissue.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Special Senses
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Q1) irregular curvature of the cornea or lens
A)strabismus
B)astigmatism
C)rhinitis
D)tinnitus
E)hairiness of the tongue
F)glaucoma
G)sty
H)amblyopia
I)Ménière's disease
J)myopia
Q2) An inflammation of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid is known as a hordeolum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A condition in which the focal point is beyond the retina because the eyeball is shorter is called _____.
A)presbyopia
B)myopia
C)hyperopia
D)diplopia
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone secreted by the pineal gland is _____.
A)prostaglandins
B)melatonin
C)calcitonin
D)oxytocin
Q2) Which of the following glands is both a endocrine gland and lymphatic organ?
A)thymus
B)thyroid
C)pineal
D)pancreas
Q3) The sex glands include the ____________________ in the female and the ____________________ in the male.
Q4) The anterior pituitary gland secretes _____.
A)growth hormone
B)vasopressin
C)oxytocin
D)calcitonin
Q5) The secretion of hormones operate on a negative feedback system or under the control of the _________________________.
Q6) The ____________________ glands are located on the top of the kidneys.
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Chapter 12: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a blood disease in which there is a decrease in the number of platelets?
A)hemophilia
B)thrombocytopenia
C)leukemia
Q2) The clotting time for humans is ______________________________.
Q3) ____________________ is necessary for blood clotting.
Q4) A rupture, or bursting, of the red blood cell is called hemolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) producing
A)an
B)edema
C)emia
D)poiesis
E)leuko
F)thrombo
G)gen
H)patho
I)mono
J)poly

Page 14
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Chapter 13: Heart
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Q1) The heart is located in the ____________________ cavity.
Q2) Murmurs indicate some defects in the valves of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The blood vessels that bring deoxygenated blood back to the heart are called the _____.
A)aorta
B)pulmonary arteries
C)pulmonary veins
D)vena cava
Q4) The blood contains ____________________ and other fat substances called ____________________.
Q5) Hypotension is a risk factor for heart disease.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which of the following would contain deoxygenated blood?
A)left ventricle
B)aorta
C)pulmonary artery
D)pulmonary vein
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Chapter 14: Circulation and Blood Vessels
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Q1) Capillaries are the largest of the blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cerebral hemorrhage refers to bleeding from the blood vessels within the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Congenital heart defects occur when there is a malformation of the heart during fetal development.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Deoxygenated venous blood leaves the liver through the _____, which carries it to the inferior vena cava.
A)hepatic vein
B)pancreatic vein
C)mesenteric veins
Q5) The ______________________________ brings oxygenated blood to the heart muscle.
Q6) Hypertension is frequently called the "silent killer."
A)True
B)False
Q7) The ____________________ is the largest artery in the body.
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Chapter 15: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) The function of the thymus is to produce lymph fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ___________________________________ progressively destroys the body's T4-lymphocytes, the immune system's key infection fighters.
Q3) The general term for inflammation and swelling of a lymph node is _____.
A)mononucleosis
B)tonsillitis
C)adenitis
D)lupus
Q4) _________________________ are tiny, oval-shaped structures ranging in size from a pinhead to an almond.
Q5) If a person has been fully immunized as a child, there is no need for vaccines during adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A severe and sometimes fatal allergic reaction is called
Q7) Drugs are used to control the HIV virus by blocking
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Chapter 16: Infection Control and Standard Precautions
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Q1) athlete's foot
A)bacteria
B)fungi
C)protozoa
D)rickettsia
E)virus
F)helminths
Q2) pinworms
A)bacteria
B)fungi
C)protozoa
D)rickettsia
E)virus
F)helminths
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a host in the chain of infection?
A)insect bite
B)pathogen
C)human body
D)pesticide
Q4) ____________________ refers to the ability of an organism to produce disease.
18
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Chapter 17: Respiratory System
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Q1) ____________________ facilitates the release of energy stored in nutrient molecules.
Q2) provide(s) passage for air from trachea to lungs
A)anterior nares
B)turbinates
C)cilia
D)mucous membrane
E)pharynx
F)alveoli
G)pleural fluid
H)bronchi
I)larynx
J)diaphragm
Q3) An abnormally rapid and shallow rate of breathing is called _____.
A)apnea
B)dyspnea
C)tachypnea
D)hyperpnea
Q4) The ____________________ is a flap of cartilage that prevents food and liquids from entering the trachea.
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Chapter 18: Digestive System
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Q1) A(n) ____________________ is a sore, or lesion, that forms in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum.
Q2) The final preparation of food so that it can be absorbed by the body occurs in the _________________________.
Q3) Name the three major parts of the tooth: ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.
Q4) Bile is produced in the ____________________.
Q5) The structure that regulates the entrance of food into the duodenum is called the _____ sphincter.
A)cardiac
B)pyloric
C)anal
D)duodenal
Q6) Proteins are broken down into amino acids in the _________________________.
Q7) Each part of the alimentary canal contributes to the overall digestive process.
A)True
B)False

Page 20
Q8) ____________________ teeth start to erupt at about 6 months of age and continue emerging until about 2 years.
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Chapter 19: Nutrition
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Q1) synthesizes red blood cells
A)calcium
B)iodine
C)iron
D)potassium
E)zinc
F)vitamin A
G)vitamin B3
H)vitamin B12
I)vitamin E
J)vitamin K
Q2) Disaccharides are a type of _____.
A)protein
B)carbohydrate
C)vitamin
D)fat
Q3) ____________________ is/are the main source of energy for the body.
Q4) Nuts and seeds are good sources of protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Q1) The kidneys share one ureter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which range indicates normal urinary output for a 24-hour period?
A)1,000 to 1,500 ml
B)1,000 to 2,000 ml
C)1,500 to 2,000 ml
D)1,500 to 2,500 ml
Q3) How much of the fluid that comprises filtrate is reabsorbed into the bloodstream?
A)15 percent
B)80 percent
C)90 percent
D)99 percent
Q4) Individuals whose kidneys have failed are treated with a process called _____.
A)urinalysis
B)dialysis
C)percutaneous nephrolithotomy
Q5) The term used to describe the limit of reabsorption of a specific substance is the
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Chapter 21: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is relatively easy to surgically correct the condition in which the testes have not properly descended to the outside of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the only contraceptive method that also provides some protection against sexually transmitted diseases, including AIDS?
A)diaphragm
B)douching
C)latex condom
D)IUD
Q3) Sexually transmitted diseases are transmitted through the exchange of bodily fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Syphilis is a potentially life-threatening STD.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ is the term given to the process that ends the female's reproductive years.
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Chapter 22: Genetics and Genetically Linked Diseases
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Q1) impairment of skeletal muscles because their fibers are replaced with fat and connective tissue
A)phenylketonuria
B)sickle cell anemia
C)Tay-Sachs disease
D)Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
E)Huntington's disease
F)cystic fibrosis
G)thalassemia
H)hemophilia
I)Down syndrome
J)Turner's syndrome
Q2) _________________________ is a disease characterized by chronic bronchitis and pneumonia.
Q3) ______________________________ helps prospective parents make informed decisions about having children.
Q4) Most inherited mutated genes pass on a beneficial characteristic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Radiation and the chemical benzene are examples of
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