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Pre-Nursing is an introductory course designed for students preparing to enter nursing programs. The course provides a foundational overview of essential topics such as human anatomy and physiology, medical terminology, basic nutrition, and health care ethics. Students also explore key concepts in microbiology, chemistry relevant to health sciences, and the roles and responsibilities within the nursing profession. Emphasis is placed on developing effective communication, critical thinking, and study skills necessary for success in subsequent nursing education. By the end of the course, students will have a solid understanding of the academic requirements and personal attributes needed to pursue a rewarding career in nursing.
Recommended Textbook
The Phlebotomy Textbook 3rd Edition by Susan King Strasinger
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16 Chapters
1205 Verified Questions
1205 Flashcards
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59 Verified Questions
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Q1) Traditional duties of the phlebotomist include all of the following except:
A) correct labeling of all specimens with the required information.
B) selection of the appropriate specimen containers for the specified tests.
C) perform tests on patient samples in the laboratory.
D) collection of the appropriate amount of blood by venipuncture or dermal puncture.
Answer: C
Q2) Critical care unit (CCU)
A)Acute cardiac disorders
B)Children
C)Newborns experiencing difficulty
D)Postoperative patients
E)Renal disorders
Answer: A
Q3) The oncology patient care area treats patients with cancer.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) The laboratory department responsible for frozen sections is:
A) microbiology.
B) cytology.
C) cytogenetics.
D) histology.
Answer: D
Q2) Sickledex
A)Blood bank
B)Chemistry
C)Coagulation
D)Hematology
E)Microbiology
F)Serology
Answer: D
Q3) The two major areas of the clinical laboratory are:
A) chemistry and hematology.
B) cytology and histology.
C) anatomical and clinical.
D) urinalysis and microbiology.
Answer: C
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The document written by the American Hospital Association that describes what a patient has a right to expect during medical treatment is the:
A) medical constitution.
B) Hippocratic Oath.
C) Patient's Bill of Rights.
D) hospital insurance document.
Answer: C
Q2) Phlebotomists may be required to fax test results to a health-care provider.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) An unexpected patient death that is not related to the patient's illness is termed a: A) root cause.
B) human error.
C) sentinel event.
D) professional liability.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paper
A)Class A
B)Class B
C)Class C
D)Class D
E)Class E
Q2) Combustible metal
A)Class A
B)Class B
C)Class C
D)Class D
E)Class E
Q3) Antibody titers are performed on phlebotomists to detect immunity to all of the following except:
A) tetanus.
B) hepatitis B.
C) rubella.
D) chicken pox.
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Sample Questions
Q1) patell/o
A)Blood
B)Blue
C)Death
D)Intestine
E)Joint
F)Knee cap
G)Muscle
H)Pus
I)Stone
J)Uterus
Q2) Which of the following is plural?
A) Appendix
B) Hematoma
C) Bacillus
D) Thrombi
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kidneys are responsible for all of the following except:
A) filtering waste products of metabolism.
B) regulating body fluids.
C) removing protein from the blood.
D) producing erythropoietin.
Q2) The major white blood cell associated with the immune system is the:
A) lymphocyte.
B) neutrophil.
C) eosinophil.
D) basophil.
Q3) Joint fluid is called:
A) peritoneal.
B) cerebrospinal.
C) pleural.
D) synovial.
Q4) The breakdown of food is called:
A) digestion.
B) absorption.
C) elimination.
D) peristalsis.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymphocyte
A)Antibody production
B)Becomes a macrophage
C)Increased in allergies
D)Increased in bacterial infections
E)Releases histamine
Q2) The function of hemoglobin in the red blood cell (RBC) is to:
A) maintain the RBC membrane.
B) transport oxygen to cells.
C) remove carbon dioxide from cells.
D) both B and C
Q3) The blood vessel with the thickest walls is the:
A) capillary.
B) artery.
C) venule.
D) vein.
Q4) A transfusion reaction will occur if a person with type A blood is given donor blood that is type A.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most acceptable order of tube draw?
A) Yellow, glass red, and light blue
B) Lavender, plastic red, and yellow
C) Plastic red, light blue, and lavender
D) Yellow, green, and light blue
Q2) Yellow stopper tubes are used for all of the following except:
A) blood cultures.
B) lead testing.
C) human leukocyte antigen (HLA) typing.
D) paternity testing.
Q3) Tubes containing powdered anticoagulant do not require mixing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A properly tied tourniquet:
A) permits arterial flow and blocks venous flow.
B) blocks arterial and venous flow.
C) prevents backflow.
D) permits venous flow and blocks arterial flow.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The veins that are the easiest to anchor are the:
A) hand veins.
B) cephalic veins.
C) basilic veins.
D) median cubital veins.
Q2) Which of the following is performed first when the last tube is collected?
A) Gauze is placed over the needle.
B) Filled tube is removed from adapter.
C) Needle is removed.
D) Pressure is applied to the site.
Q3) Which specimen should be collected last?
A) STAT specimen
B) Specimen requiring special handling
C) Clotted specimen
D) Fasting specimen
Q4) The most important purpose of a requisition form is:
A) authorization to perform the procedure.
B) providing a system to report results.
C) location of the patient.
D) monitoring test result turnaround time.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When encountering a patient who is sleeping, the phlebotomist should:
A) return at another time.
B) try to collect the specimen without waking the patient.
C) notify the nursing station.
D) awaken the patient before collecting the specimen.
Q2) The nurse shuts off the intravenous line in patient B for 2 minutes so that blood can be collected from the line. List the order of the syringes used and what is done with the blood.
Q3) Hematomas can be caused by all of the following except:
A) having the patient bend the elbow.
B) inserting the needle partially into the vein.
C) drawing below an intravenous line.
D) removing the tourniquet after removing the needle.
Q4) How can the phlebotomist collect a specimen from patient A?
Q5) Which of the following patient conditions will prolong the time it takes to stop the bleeding from a venipuncture site?
A) Low blood pressure
B) Low blood sugar
C) Patient taking Coumadin
D) Patient taking vitamin K

Page 12
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the response that lists the major steps of the 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) in the proper order.
A) Patient drinks a 75-g glucose solution within 5 minutes, a fasting glucose specimen is collected, and patient returns for an additional glucose test in 2 hours.
B) Patient drinks a 75-g glucose solution within 5 minutes, patient returns for an additional glucose test in 1 hour, and patient returns for an additional glucose test in 2 hours.
C) A fasting glucose specimen is collected, patient returns for an additional glucose test in 2 hours, and patient drinks a 75-g glucose solution within 5 minutes.
D) A fasting glucose specimen is collected, patient drinks a 75-g glucose solution within 5 minutes, and patient returns for an additional glucose test in 2 hours.
Q2) A postprandial glucose test requires the patient to fast for 3 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is best to address geriatric patients using their first names.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specimens for newborn filter paper tests are collected from the:
A) plantar area of the heel.
B) volar surface of the arm.
C) back of the heel.
D) arch of the foot.
Q2) Plastic beads are present in some microcollection tubes to facilitate:
A) clotting.
B) mixing.
C) serum and cell separation.
D) plasma and cell separation.
Q3) When performing a blood smear from a finger stick, two smears are made.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When performing a bleeding time on an infant, the incision is made parallel to the antecubital crease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Is it important to collect the bilirubin at 1100? Why or why not?
Q6) Are both types of tubes needed on the phlebotomy tray?
Q7) What is the first mistake made by the phlebotomist?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preexamination variables associated with specimen processing include all the following except:
A) centrifugation time and speed.
B) storage conditions including temperature and evaporation of samples.
C) availability of electronic test report generation instead of paper reports.
D) length of time between collection and processing.
Q2) After collecting several evacuated tubes from a patient, the phlebotomist receives a pager message to go to the intensive care unit (ICU) immediately and draw several stats. Because of this page, he or she forgets to properly invert the tubes just collected. Which of the following tests is most likely to be affected by this action?
A) Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) in a sodium citrate tube
B) Glucose in a plain red top tube
C) Ionized calcium in a plain red top tube that remains sealed
D) CO<sub>2</sub> in a plain red top tube that remains sealed
Q3) The Lean System utilizes a tool called "6S" that includes the words:
A) sigma, solo, sanitize, standard, sort, and spending.
B) study, sort, sigma, spend, study again and script.
C) sort, straighten, scrub, safety, standardize. and sustain.
D) sequence, sort, spend, solubilize, study. and sustain.
Page 15
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Sample Questions
Q1) An alternate pathway capable of supplying blood to an area if the main pathway is obstructed is referred to as:
A) circulatory bypass.
B) collateral circulation.
C) shunt circulation.
D) an arterial fistula.
Q2) Which of the following tests requires anaerobic conditions?
A) Glucose
B) Blood gases
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D) Sodium
Q3) To achieve a steady state in a patient prior to collection of arterial blood gases, the patient should:
A) empty the bladder.
B) fast for 12 hours.
C) cough 5 to10 times to clear lungs.
D) rest for 30 minutes.
Q4) The color of arterial blood is dark red.
A)True
B)False

Page 16
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quality control of point-of-care testing (POCT) should be performed by:
A) the POCT supervisor.
B) the person performing patient testing.
C) a POCT performer and a supervisor.
D) a medical technologist.
Q2) Aspirin should be avoided for a week prior to collection of an occult blood sample because it:
A) may cause a false-positive result.
B) neutralizes guaiac reagent.
C) causes discoloration of the stool.
D) may cause a false-negative reaction.
Q3) The purpose of enzyme immunoassay tests for pregnancy is the:
A) detection of human chorionic gonadotropin.
B) reaction of placental cells with enzymes.
C) conjugation of antibodies and urine or serum.
D) reaction of human chorionic gonadotropin with antibody to produce a color.
Q4) Point-of-care testing (POCT) is performed as part of patient-focused care.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temperature of a urine drug specimen must be taken within 4 minutes of collection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The technique for collecting a throat culture does not include:
A) use of a tongue depressor.
B) swabbing the inside of the cheek.
C) swabbing the back of the throat.
D) releasing transport media into the swab container.
Q3) The technique used to collect sweat electrolytes is called:
A) electrophoresis.
B) sweat chloride.
C) electrolyte stimulation
D) pilocarpine iontophoresis.
Q4) Midstream clean-catch urine specimens are delivered to:
A) hematology.
B) microbiology.
C) chemistry.
D) urinalysis.
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