Pre-Nursing Biology Final
Exam
Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Biology provides a foundational understanding of the biological concepts essential for students pursuing a nursing career. The course covers cell structure and function, genetics, human anatomy and physiology, microbiology, and basic biochemistry, with an emphasis on how these topics relate to human health, disease, and the practice of nursing. Students will explore the fundamentals of the human body systems, gain insight into common pathogens and their implications in healthcare settings, and develop scientific literacy and critical thinking skills necessary for future coursework and clinical experiences in nursing programs.
Recommended Textbook
Body Structures and Functions 12th Edition by
Ann Senisi Scott
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Structural Units
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Q1) includes cytology and histology
A)gross anatomy
B)microscopic anatomy
C)developmental anatomy
D)comparative anatomy
E)systematic anatomy
Answer: B
Q2) The _____ plane divides the body into front and back portions.
A)coronal
B)sagittal
C)transverse
Answer: A
Q3) The stomach is located ____________ to the diaphragm.
Answer: inferior
Q4) The midsagittal plane divides the body into front and back halves.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The term ____________ is used to reference the ventral surface of the body.
Answer: anterior
3
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Living Things
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Q1) Ca
A)calcium
B)carbon
C)hydrogen
D)iron
E)oxygen
F)sodium
G)potassium
H)nitrogen
I)magnesium
J)phosphorus
Answer: A
Q2) Fructose found in fruit and honey is an example of a disaccharide.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Molecules known as ______________ ____________ are the building blocks of protein.
Answer: amino acids
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Q1) Cancer is the most common cause of death in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) also called a plasma membrane
A)chromatin
B)chromosomes
C)phospholipids
D)cells
E)nuclear membrane
F)nucleoplasm
G)cell membrane
H)organelles
I)endoplasmic reticulum
J)cilia
Answer: G
Q3) When a cell increases in size, it is called _____________________.
Answer: hypertrophy
Q4) The process of cell division of the gamete is called ____________________.
Answer: meiosis
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Chapter 4: Tissues and Membranes
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Q1) The mucous membrane that lines the interior cavities of the body is called the visceral membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ tissue makes up the skeleton of the body.
A)Dense, fibrous
B)Hyaline
C)Osseous
D)Cartilage
Q3) Elastic cartilage is located within the intervertebral discs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ helps in the process of blood coagulation.
Q5) Synovial membranes secrete synovial fluid, which prevents friction inside the joint cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Organs are held in place and body parts are bound together by _____________________ tissue.
Q7) A(n) ____________________ is the basic structural unit of the body.
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Chapter 5: Integumentary System
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding skin cancer and ultraviolet (UV) light?
A)The skin needs exposure to the sun to manufacture vitamin K.
B)Tanning beds are safe, as they do not emit UV rays.
C)Wait until after 1 p.m. to be in the sun, when it is less intense.
D)The incidence of basal and squamous cell carcinoma is on the rise.
Q2) solid, elevated lesion less than 1 cm in diameter
A)papule
B)bulla
C)pustule
D)nodule
E)macule
Q3) A pressure ulcer (decubitus) that has a skin break through all layers of the skin is classified as stage _____.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q4) A burn that involves only the epidermal layer is classified as a(n)
Q5) Malignant ____________________ is commonly known as skin cancer.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Skeletal System
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Q1) Name the four types of bones: ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and
Q2) radius and ulna
A)movable joint
B)immovable joint
C)area between two articular cartilages
D)partially movable joint
E)lining of the articular cartilage
F)example of a pivot joint
G)joint connected by tough fibrous tissue
H)elastic material between vertebrae
Q3) An osteocyte is a mature bone cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bursitis means _____.
A)inflammation of a joint
B)inflammation of a small sac
C)wrist
D)kyph
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Q5) The most common type of injury to a bone is a(n) ____________________.
Chapter 7: Muscular System
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Q1) ____________________ diagnose and treat patients whose health problems are associated with the body's muscular, nervous, or skeletal systems.
Q2) gastrocnemius
A)muscle of facial expression
B)muscle of the trunk
C)muscle of the lower extremity
D)muscle of the upper extremity
Q3) Exercise and training will alter the ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________ of a muscle.
Q4) Muscular dystrophy occurs when the connection between the nerves and muscle is lost.
A)True B)False
Q5) The masseter and temporalis muscles are representative of the muscles of ____________________.
Q6) the prefix a- means _____.
A)process of B)without C)excessive
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Central Nervous System
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Q1) Name the three divisions of the nervous system: ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.
Q2) ____________________ may be short-term or long-term.
Q3) The substance that serves as a liquid shock absorber protecting the brain and spinal cord is called ________________________.
Q4) Neuroglia is the type of cell that _____.
A)is able to react when stimulated
B)insulates, supports, and protects neurons
C)is able to pass the nerve impulse generated by other cells
Q5) Another name for a nerve cell is _____.
A)neuron
B)neurilemma
C)myelin sheath
D)neuroglia
Q6) The ________________________ is the most highly organized system in the body.
Q7) The adult brain weighs about 1,400 grams (3 pounds).
A)True
B)False
Q8) The ____________________ is the largest part of the brain.
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Chapter 9: Peripheral and Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) Which plexus supplies motor movement to the shoulder, wrist, and hand?
A)cervical
B)brachial
C)lumbar
D)sacral
Q2) ________________________________________ is a condition that affects the median nerve and the flexor tendons that attach to the bones of the wrist.
Q3) Sciatica is a form of neuritis that affects the sciatic nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A nerve composed of fibers carrying impulses to the brain or spinal cord from muscles or glands is called an efferent nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The simplest type of nervous response is the _________________________.
Q6) ____________________ is a measurement of physiological responses that yields information about the relationships between the mind and the body and helps people learn how to manipulate those responses through mental activity.
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Chapter 10: Special Senses
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Q1) Tears are secreted by
A)conjunctiva
B)lacrimal glands
C)sclera
D)choroid
Q2) A sensation of ringing, or buzzing perceived in the ear in the absence of a stimulus is called ____________________.
Q3) Receptors on the taste buds send their stimuli through three cranial nerves to the cerebral cortex for interpretation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Another name for a bone of the middle ear is the hammer, or malleus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The innermost, or third coat, of the eye is called the ____________________.
Q6) Peripheral vision decline may lead to falls and mobility problems as one ages.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The ____________________ is a mass of muscle tissue with structures called papillae.
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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Q1) Hyperfunction of the pituitary gland in preadolescence results in _____.
A)gigantism
B)dwarfism
C)Cushing syndrome
D)diabetes mellitus
Q2) glucagon
A)pituitary - anterior lobe
B)pituitary - posterior lobe
C)thyroid
D)parathyroid
E)adrenal medulla
F)adrenal cortex
G)pancreas
H)thymus
I)ovaries
J)testes
Q3) ______________________________ results from hypersecretion of the glucocorticoid hormones from the adrenal cortex.
Q4) The ____________________ glands are located on the top of the kidneys.
Q5) A(n) ____________________ is any organ that produces a secretion.
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Chapter 12: Blood
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Q1) An example of a cellular response to tissue injury is _____.
A)vasodilation
B)swelling
C)neutrophil diapedesis
D)vascular permeability
Q2) _____ are formed in the bone marrow and the spleen.
A)Neutrophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Monocytes
D)Granulocytes
Q3) A rupture, or bursting, of the red blood cell is called hemolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a blood vessel.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Another term for blood clotting is coagulation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The clotting time for humans is ______________________________.
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Chapter 13: Heart
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Q1) The heart sounds heard through a stethoscope are caused by the impact of the blood churning in the chambers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A rapid heartbeat is most accurately called _____.
A)arrhythmia
B)bradycardia
C)tachycardia
D)fibrillation
Q3) Invasive procedures are those that do not penetrate the skin or a body cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The term used to describe a slow heart rate is____________________.
Q5) _________________________ is the total volume of blood ejected from the heart per minute.
Q6) The adult human heart weighs less than one pound.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The double layer of fibrous tissue surrounding the heart is the
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Chapter 14: Circulation and Blood Vessels
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Q1) The pulse point behind the knee is from the _____ artery.
A)temporal
B)radial
C)dorsalis pedis
D)popliteal
Q2) Instead of using its own lungs, the fetus obtains oxygen and nutrients from the mother's blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ______________________________ takes deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs where carbon dioxide is exchanged for oxygen.
Q4) The most common symptom of heart disease is _____.
A)hypertension
B)hypotension
C)cyanosis
D)fatigue
Q5) The ____________________ is the largest artery in the body.
Q6) Hypertension is frequently called the "silent killer."
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) recommends the use of ______________________________ when engaging in sex to reduce the chance of transmitting HIV.
Q2) infectious disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus
A)acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
B)anaphylactic shock
C)asthma
D)Hodgkin's disease
E)hypersensitivity
F)infectious mononucleosis
G)lupus
H)lymphadenitis
I)scleroderma
J)tonsillitis
Q3) An important function of the spleen is to destroy and remove worn out red blood cells while preserving the hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are three pairs of tonsils named ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.
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Chapter 16: Infection Control and Standard Precautions
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Q1) If transmission-based precautions are used, it is not necessary to use standard precautions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The virus that causes measles can be transmitted through the air from one person to another.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following microorganisms must live inside the cell of another organism in order to secure nourishment and reproduce?
A)bacteria
B)fungi
C)protozoa
D)viruses
Q4) Research scientists working in the field of infectomics are studying _____.
A)biological agents most likely to be used in bioterrorism.
B)new drugs to treat infections.
C)how diseases are spread between geographical locations.
D)the genes and functions of microorganisms.
Q5) ____________________ refers to the ability of an organism to produce disease.
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Chapter 17: Respiratory System
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Q1) The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs, body, and outside environment is called _____.
A)external respiration
B)internal respiration
C)cellular respiration
D)oxidation
Q2) External respiration involves the use of oxygen to release energy stored in nutrient molecules such as glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most difficult part of breathing for individuals with emphysema is inhaling sufficient amounts of air.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During ____________________, the external intercostals lift the ribs upward and outward; during ____________________, the ribs are pushed downward and inward.
Q5) ____________________ is the physical and chemical process by which the body supplies its cells and tissues with oxygen.
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Chapter 18: Digestive System
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Q1) Name the three major parts of the tooth: ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.
Q2) The ____________________ is an accessory organ of digestion consisting of skeletal muscles that lie in many different planes.
Q3) The digestive juice that breaks down protein into amino acids is _____.
A)trypsin
B)amylase
C)lipase
D)bile
Q4) The sensation of taste is coupled with the sense of touch.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A chronic, progressive inflammatory disease that permanently damages the liver is _____.
A)hepatitis
B)cirrhosis
C)ulcer
D)colitis
Q6) Bile is produced in the ____________________.
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Chapter 19: Nutrition
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Q1) ____________________ is/are an essential component of all body tissues.
Q2) The abbreviation for the type of cholesterol that removes fat from cells is _____.
A)LDL
B)VLDL
C)HDL
D)VHDL
Q3) It is essential to eat some form of meat, fish, or poultry each day to receive the proper amounts of protein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A normal adult usually requires between 1,600 and 3,000 calories a day, depending on age, sex, body weight, and degree of physical activity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most common nutritional disorder in the United States today is ____________________.
Q6) ____________________ has/have twice as many calories as the other calorie-containing nutrients.
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Q1) The second step in urine formation is ____________________.
Q2) The upper end of each ureter flares into a funnel-shaped structure known as the _____.
A)renal pelvis
B)renal pyramid
C)renal papilla
D)renal column
Q3) Which process is the first step in the formation of urine in the nephrons?
A)absorption
B)filtration
C)reabsorption
D)secretion
Q4) The ______________________________ stores urine until about 1 pint is accumulated.
Q5) Urine is moved down the ureters by means of gravity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ______________________________ is the outside opening through which urine leaves the body.
Q7) The laboratory examination of urine is called ____________________.
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Chapter 21: Reproductive System
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Q1) Syphilis is a potentially life-threatening STD.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Benign growths that occur in the wall of the uterus are called _________________________.
Q3) A group of symptoms sometimes exhibited prior to the menstrual cycle is called
A)premenstrual syndrome
B)endometriosis
C)amenorrhea
D)dysmenorrhea
Q4) Most cases of male impotence have psychological causes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ is the term given to the process that ends the female's reproductive years.
Q6) Some sexually transmitted infections can be passed from the mother to her child during the birth process.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Genetics and Genetically Linked Diseases
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Q1) ____________________ is a sex-linked blood disorder passed on the X chromosome.
Q2) The modification of genes outside an organism's natural reproductive process is called ______________________________.
Q3) ____________________ is the branch of biology that studies how the genes are transmitted from parents to offspring.
Q4) What is the purpose of a genotype?
A)finding possible cures for genetic disorders
B)mapping all the genes of the human body
C)predicting the possibility of a genetic disorder
D)locating common sites of genetic mutations
Q5) Interferons are proteins that interfere with virus replication.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ____________________ is a small package of DNA that carries instructions for cellular synthesis of a specific protein.
Q7) ____________________ is the term for a change that occurs in the nucleus of gametes, and it is passed on to the next generation.
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Q8) Radiation and the chemical benzene are examples of _________________________.