Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology provides foundational knowledge essential for students preparing to enter nursing programs. This course covers the structure and function of the human body, exploring major organ systems such as the circulatory, respiratory, digestive, nervous, and musculoskeletal systems. Emphasis is placed on the relationship between anatomical structures and physiological processes, as well as how these are affected by health and disease. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical applications, students will develop a comprehensive understanding of the human body, equipping them with the scientific basis needed for subsequent nursing coursework and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ system transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, and defense cells?
A) cardiovascular
B) digestive
C) muscular
D) respiratory
E) urinary
Answer: A
Q2) Identify the branch of biological science that studies the external and internal structure of the body and the physical relationship among body parts.
A) genetics
B) physiology
C) embryology
D) anatomy
E) cytology
Answer: D
Q3) Name the organs found in the thoracic cavity.
Answer: lungs, heart, trachea, esophagus, thymus, major blood vessels connected to the heart
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many lipids are composed of fatty acids and A) glycerol.
B) amino acids.
C) sugars.
D) monosaccharides.
E) polypeptides.
Answer: A
Q2) When placed in water, an inorganic compound dissociates 99 percent, forming hydrogen ions and anions. Thiscompound would be a
A) strong base.
B) weak base.
C) strong acid.
D) weak acid.
E) salt.
Answer: C
Q3) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none. This suggeststhat
A) cells with large numbers of mitochondria are short-lived.
B) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand.
C) cells with small numbers of mitochondria have a large ATP supply.
D) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a low energy demand.
E) some cells are older than others.
Answer: B
Q2) If a hole is torn in a cell's plasma membrane, the cell will die because
A) it will not be able to maintain differences between the cytoplasm and extracellular fluid.
B) germs are attracted toward cytoplasm leaking from a cell.
C) it will not be able to undergo cell division.
D) its chromosomes will not be held in place.
E) cells can only make more plasma membrane during cell division.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which formed element of the blood contains a nucleus? (Figure 4-14)
A) red blood cells
B) platelets
C) white blood cells
Q2) During the inflammatory process, blood vessels dilate. What does this accomplish?
Q3) The term transudate describes fluid associated with
A) mucus membranes.
B) mammary glands.
C) cutaneous membranes.
D) serous membranes.
E) endocrine glands.
Q4) Tendons and ligaments attach to the ________ of bone.
A) osteocytes
B) lacunae
C) periosteum
D) calcium phosphate
E) central canals
Q5) Why is cardiac muscle tissue that has been damaged by injury or disease incapable of regeneration?
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The layer of epidermis where keratohyalin crosslinks keratin fibers is the
A) stratum spinosum.
B) stratum corneum.
C) stratum granulosum.
D) stratum lucidum.
E) stratum basale.
Q2) While assessing a patient, you discover that after pinching the skin on the back of the hand, it remainspeaked. This is a sign of A) hydration intoxication.
B) water intoxication.
C) dehydration.
D) advanced skin cancer.
E) malfunctioning elastin.
Q3) The type of cells that form the strata in the epidermis are A) adipocytes.
B) keratinocytes.
C) fibroblasts.
D) melanocytes.
E) dendritic cells.
Q4) Explain how to use the mnemonic ABCD when checking for signs of skin cancer.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone.
A) comminuted
B) greenstick
C) compression
D) transverse
E) spiral
Q2) After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called the
A) epiphyseal plate.
B) external callus.
C) dense tuberosity.
D) condyle.
E) fracture facet.
Q3) The lacunae of osseous tissue contain
A) blood cells.
B) osteocytes.
C) chondroblasts.
D) bone marrow.
E) capillaries.
Q4) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the ________ gland.
A) lacrimal
B) pituitary
C) olfactory
D) nasal
E) sellar
Q2) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull except between
A) the mandible and the cranium.
B) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone.
C) the occipital bone and the parietal bone.
D) the vomer and the zygomatic bone.
E) the sphenoid bone and the ethmoid bone.
Q3) The primary spinal curves
A) are also called compensation curves.
B) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera.
C) develop several months after birth.
D) are the lumbar and cervical curves.
E) help shift the weight to permit an upright posture.
Q4) Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in breathing. What might the problem be?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scapula is roughly triangular in shape. Which of the following are correct terms for the borders?
A) superior, medial, and lateral borders
B) dorsal and costal borders
C) anterior, posterior, and superior borders
D) scapular, sternal, and clavicular borders
E) pectoral borders
Q2) A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet.
A) larger
B) longer
C) narrower
D) wider
E) deeper
Q3) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoralgirdle?
Q4) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?
Q5) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.
Q6) To settle a bet, you need to measure the length of your lower limb (head of femur to distal end of tibia). What landmarks would you use to make the measurement?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints?
A) freely movable
B) lined by a secretory epithelium
C) covered by a serous membrane
D) contain synovial fluid
E) covered by a capsule
Q2) Which of the following movements is a good example of supination?
A) opening the mouth
B) turning the hand palm upward
C) extreme bending of the head backwards
D) moving the hand toward the shoulder
E) spreading the fingers
Q3) The most common type of joint inflammation is called
A) rheumatism.
B) degenerative joint disease.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) osteoporosis.
E) gouty arthritis.
Q4) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?
Q5) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the term Z line?
A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils
C) storage site for calcium ions
D) thin filaments are anchored here
E) largely made of myosin molecules
Q2) At rest, the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by
A) actin molecules.
B) myosin molecules.
C) troponin molecules.
D) ATP molecules.
E) calcium ions.
Q3) Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers
A) lack a plasma membrane.
B) have many nuclei.
C) are very small.
D) lack mitochondria.
E) have large gaps in the cell membrane.
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thick, flat sheet of tendon deep to the scalp is called the A) retinaculum.
B) calcaneal tendon.
C) linea alba.
D) plantar aponeurosis.
E) epicranial aponeurosis.
Q2) In assessing a stroke patient, you ask her to stick out (protract) her tongue. You note that it deviatestoone side. You suspect that damage to the neural control of the ________ muscle has occurred.
A) hyoglossus
B) genioglossus
C) palatoglossus
D) styloglossus
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q3) The origin of the frontalis muscle is the A) mandible.
B) frontal bone.
C) occipital bone.
D) epicranial aponeurosis.
E) forehead.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin haveon the function of neurons?
A) Neurons would depolarize more rapidly.
B) Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase.
C) The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal.
D) The axon would be unable to generate action potentials.
E) None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function.
Q2) Sensory neurons of the PNS are
A) unipolar.
B) bipolar.
C) anaxonic.
D) multipolar.
E) tripolar.
Q3) Which area of the graph shows when membrane potential approaches the potassium equilibrium potential?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles. The virus attacks the dorsal roots of spinal nerves and sensory ganglia of cranial nerves. What are the characteristic symptoms of shingles and where are they localized on the body?
Q2) A complex, interwoven network of nerves is called a A) dermatome.
B) ramus.
C) plexus.
D) ganglion.
E) tract.
Q3) The layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual axons within a peripheral nerve is termed the A) endoneurium.
B) perineurium.
C) epineurium.
D) metaneurium.
E) subneurium.
Q4) What is a reflex arc? What components must be present to qualify?
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a property of the blood-brain barrier?
A) The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions.
B) It is very permeable to many water and lipid-soluble compounds.
C) Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries.
D) It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus.
E) It is intact except in areas known as circumventricular organs.
Q2) The dorsal/posterior nuclei of the thalamus includes the A) basal nuclei.
B) lateral and medial geniculate nuclei.
C) mammillary body.
D) interthalamic adhesion.
E) red nucleus.
Q3) Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with
A) control of autonomic function.
B) regulation of body temperature.
C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck.
D) conscious control of skeletal muscles.
E) control of breathing.
Q4) Bell's palsy is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve (VII). What signs and symptoms would you expect in this condition? Is it permanent?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) We are constantly bombarded by a variety of stimuli inside and outside of our bodies. Why are we not overwhelmed by sensory information?
A) We do not have receptors for most stimuli.
B) Stimuli are blocked from the receptors by our immune systems.
C) Most stimuli are external to our bodies and we have very few exteroceptors on the outside of the body.
D) A particular receptor type can have different sensitivities to different stimuli.
E) A very tiny percentage of incoming sensory information is received by the cerebral cortex.
Q2) The third-order neuron in this pathway synapses in what structure labeled "7"?
A) cerebellum
B) thalamus
C) primary sensory cortex
D) pons
E) medulla oblongata
Q3) What are the four types of sensory receptors for the general senses? What is the nature of the stimuli thatexcite each type?
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that block nicotinic receptors would be
A) sympathomimetic.
B) parasympathomimetic.
C) parasympathetic blocking agents.
D) sympathetic blocking agents.
E) autonomic blocking agents.
Q2) The celiac, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric ganglia are collectively called ________ ganglia.
A) chain
B) collateral
C) intramural
D) paravertebral
E) terminal
Q3) Blocking ________ receptors in the ________ prevents long-term memory formation.
A) serotonin; hypothalamus
B) NMDA; hippocampus
C) NMDA; midbrain
D) serotonin; midbrain
E) norepinephrine; hippocampus
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The taste sensation that is triggered by the amino acid glutamate is known as A) sweet.
B) umami.
C) salty.
D) peppery.
E) sour.
Q2) Our inner ear is protected from very loud noises by
A) the tensor tympani stiffening the tympanic membrane.
B) the stapedius reducing movement of the stapes.
C) the tensory tympani stiffening the tympanic membrane and the stapedius reducing movement of the stapes.
D) cerumen in the auditory canal.
E) contraction of the auditory tube.
Q3) The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of A) photoreceptors in the eye.
B) mechanoreceptors in the ear.
C) olfactory receptors.
D) lamellar corpuscles.
E) proprioceptors.
Q4) What six basic steps are involved in the process of hearing?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which problem is related to untreated diabetes mellitus?
A) damage to the retina
B) neuropathy
C) gastric ulcers
D) goiter
E) retinal problems and nerve problems
Q2) This hormone is released in response to PTH and its actions are synergistic to PTH.
A) calcitriol
B) calcitonin
C) inhibin
D) cholecystokinin
E) pancreatic polypeptide
Q3) The heart secretes the hormone
A) progesterone.
B) oxytocin.
C) thymosin.
D) thyroxine.
E) atrial natriuretic peptide.
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following descriptions best matches the function of platelets?
A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium
B) helper cells are one type
C) produce antibodies in response to antigens
D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
E) often elevated in allergic individuals
Q2) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor?
A) adheres to collagen beneath endothelium
B) helper cells are one type
C) hormone that regulates white blood cell formation
D) kills bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
E) often elevated in allergic individuals
Q3) In an emergency situation when you have no time to wait for cross-matched blood you could give a patienttype ________ until the cross-match is available.
A) A positive
B) O negative
C) B negative
D) AB positive
E) AB negative
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is called A) depolarization.
B) systole.
C) diastole.
D) hyperpolarization.
E) asystole.
Q2) A fine tubular wire mesh called a ________ may be inserted into a coronary vessel, holding it open.
A) angioplast
B) stent
C) angiogram
D) keyhole
E) catheter
Q3) Identify the structure(s) labeled "8."
A) moderator band
B) pectinate muscles
C) papillary muscles
D) trabeculae carneae
E) chordae tendineae
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Points where a muscular artery can be compressed against a bone to control severe bleeding are called
A) decompression points.
B) palpation points.
C) diastolic points.
D) regulation points.
E) pressure points.
Q2) Which part of the vascular system functions as a blood reservoir and contains over 60% of the body's blood?
A) pulmonary arteries
B) capillaries
C) systemic arterioles
D) veins
E) arteries
Q3) Blood flow through a capillary is controlled by the
A) vasa vasorum.
B) plexus.
C) precapillary sphincter.
D) thoroughfare channel.
E) venule.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which class of cells is particularly abundant in the red pulp of the spleen?
A) T lymphocytes
B) macrophages
C) B lymphocytes
D) neutrophils
E) Natural Killer cells
Q2) B cells are primarily activated by the activities of A) antigens.
B) antibodies.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) plasma cells.
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "6."
A) medulla
B) cortex
C) capsule
D) trabeculae
E) cortical sinus
Q4) Explain what MALT is and give a couple of examples? What role does it play in the body's defenses?
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contraction of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles can
A) move the cricoid cartilage.
B) close the glottis.
C) constrict the trachea.
D) move food from the larynx to the esophagus.
E) assist in breathing during exercise.
Q2) Air flows between nasal conchae through the A) dorsum nasi.
B) apex.
C) external nares.
D) nasal vestibule.
E) superior, middle, and inferior nasal meatuses.
Q3) An acute infection of the throat that can lead to swelling and closure of the glottis and cause suffocationis known as A) laryngitis.
B) laryngospasm.
C) acute epiglottitis.
D) strep throat.
E) acute pharyngitis.
Q4) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would
A) increase intestinal motility.
B) decrease intestinal motility.
C) increase gastric secretion.
D) decrease gastric secretion.
E) interfere with both intestinal motility and gastric secretion.
Q2) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term cholecystokinin (CCK)?
A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenum
B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids
C) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid
D) causes gallbladder to contract
E) stimulates gastric secretion
Q3) Motility in the small intestines is controlled in part by all of the following except
A) VIP.
B) motilin.
C) vagus nerve.
D) myenteric reflexes.
E) gastroenteric reflexes.
Q4) What role do hormones play in hunger and satiety?
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Q1) The sum of all of the biochemical processes going on within the human body at any given time is called
A) glycolysis.
B) oxidative phosphorylation.
C) catabolism.
D) anabolism.
E) metabolism.
Q2) The major cation in cytoplasm is A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) calcium.
D) magnesium.
E) iron.
Q3) The vitamin that is a constituent of coenzyme A is A) folic acid (folate).
B) pantothenic acid.
C) pyridoxine (B6).
D) riboflavin.
E) niacin.
Q4) List and briefly describe the body's five metabolic components.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) The majority of glomeruli are located in the ________ of the kidney.
A) vasa recta
B) medulla
C) cortex
D) pelvis
E) calyces
Q2) Chloride ion is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb by
A) simple diffusion.
B) facilitated diffusion.
C) active transport.
D) cotransport with Na and K ions.
E) countertransport for bicarbonate ion.
Q3) What structure connects the proximal convoluted tubule to the distal convoluted tubule? (Figure 26-6)
A) renal corpuscle
B) collecting duct
C) papillary duct
D) glomerular capsule
E) nephron loop
Q4) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) How do the lungs respond to metabolic acidosis? (Figure 27-16)
A) lungs increase respiratory rate
B) lungs decrease respiratory rate
C) lungs secrete H+
D) lungs conserve H+
E) lungs convert carbonic acid to water
Q2) A chemical that minimizes changes in the pH of a body fluid by releasing or binding hydrogen ion is calleda(n)
A) electrolyte.
B) acid.
C) alkali.
D) compensation.
E) buffer.
Q3) ________ acid is an acid that can leave solution and enter the atmosphere.
A) respiratory
B) volatile
C) metabolic
D) inorganic
E) fixed
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which structure does gestation occur?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 9
D) 11
E) 13
Q2) The organ that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is the A) ductus deferens (vas deferens).
B) epididymis.
C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle).
D) ejaculatory duct.
E) corpus cavernosum.
Q3) The fold of peritoneum that extends out from the ovary to the wall of the pelvis is called the
A) suspensory ligament.
B) tunica albuginea.
C) ovarian ligament.
D) ovarian hilum.
E) uterovesical ligament.
Q4) Explain how estrogen and progesterone control each phase of the uterine cycle.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) A patient comes in the clinic expressing concern over changes in her body. She says she has been experiencing axillary and genital hair growth, breast growth, acne and she is going through a growth spurt. You reassure her these are all a normal part of maturation and inform her that she has begun A) menarche.
B) menopause.
C) peri-menopause.
D) prenatal development.
E) puberty.
Q2) The goal of labor is childbirth, also termed A) gestation.
B) development.
C) parturition.
D) abortion.
E) senescence.
Q3) Outline the events that take place between exposure of the oocyte to spermatozoa and formation of the firstblastomere pair.
Q4) What activity during oocyte activation prevents penetration by additional sperm?
Q5) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation.
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