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Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology Solved Exam Questions - 2056 Verified Questions

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Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology

Solved Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology introduces foundational concepts essential for students preparing to enter nursing programs. The course covers the structure and function of the human body, focusing on major organ systems such as the circulatory, respiratory, musculoskeletal, digestive, nervous, and urinary systems. Emphasis is placed on the interrelationships between body systems, normal physiological processes, and terminology relevant to healthcare settings. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical case studies, students develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills necessary for advanced nursing coursework and clinical practice. This preparatory course establishes the biological principles required for understanding health, disease, and the human body's response to medical interventions.

Recommended Textbook

Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin

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Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a woman is giving birth,the head of the baby pushes against her cervix and stimulates the release of the hormone oxytocin.Oxytocin travels in the blood and stimulates the uterus to contract.Labor contractions become more and more intense until the baby is expelled.This is an example of __________.

A) negative feedback

B) positive feedback

C) dynamic equilibrium

D) integration control

E) set point adjustment

Answer: B

Q2) Lou Gehrig disease is the eponym for amyotropic lateral sclerosis,made famous by the "ice bucket challege."

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) An individual scientific fact has more information than a theory.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Page 3

Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Amylase is a digestive enzyme that breaks starches down into sugars through __________ reactions.

A) hydrolysis

B) dehydration synthesis

C) anabolic

D) endergonic

Answer: A

Q2) The most abundant element in the human body,by weight,is __________.

A) nitrogen

B) hydrogen

C) carbon

D) oxygen

E) calcium

Answer: D

Q3) The opposite of a dehydration synthesis reaction is a hydrolysis reaction.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cellular membranes are permeable to _________,but impermeable to

A) nutrients;wastes

B) proteins;nutrients

C) phosphates;wastes

D) nutrients;proteins

E) wastes;nutrients

Answer: D

Q2) Water flows through a selectively permeable membrane in a process called __________,but water molecules cross the membrane more easily through channels of transmembrane proteins called __________.

A) osmosis;water pumps

B) osmosis;aquaporins

C) osmosis;uniport

D) filtration;aquaporins

E) filtration;water pumps

Answer: B

Q3) The greater the concentration gradient,the faster the diffusion rate.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these is the correct sequence from simple to more complex?

A) Chromatin,carbon,nucleotide,nitrogenous base,DNA

B) Carbon,nitrogenous base,nucleotide,chromatin,DNA

C) Chromatin,DNA,nucleotide,nitrogenous base,carbon

D) Carbon,nucleotide,nitrogenous base,chromatin,DNA

E) Carbon,nitrogenous base,nucleotide,DNA,chromatin

Q2) The alleles possessed by all members of a population collectively are called the __________.

A) species DNA

B) population DNA

C) gene pool

D) genetic drift

E) phenotype

Q3) Sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of a cell during __________ of the cell cycle.

A) the S phase

B) the G<sub>2</sub> phase

C) prophase

D) metaphase

E) anaphase

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Chapter 5: Histology

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Sample Questions

Q1) The pseudostratified columnar epithelium of the bronchi in smokers may transform into stratified squamous epithelium.This is an example of __________.

A) neoplasia

B) metaplasia

C) atrophy

D) differentiation

E) hyperplasia

Q2) The histological section that divides a specimen along its long axis is called a(n)__________ section.

A) cross

B) oblique

C) transverse

D) sagittal

E) longitudinal

Q3) Fibrocartilage is found in intervertebral discs.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the skin layers below is the most superficial?

A) Basal lamina

B) Epidermis

C) Papillary layer

D) Reticular layer

E) Hypodermis

Q2) Mammary glands are modified __________ glands that develop within the female breasts.

A) merocrine

B) apocrine

C) ceruminous

D) sebaceous

E) eccrine

Q3) Merocrine sweat glands are associated with hair follicles in the pubic and anal regions,axilla,areola,and beard.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Debridement is not necessary to infection control.

A)True

B)False

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Bone Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) Red bone marrow is important in the production of new bone cells.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Chondrocytes multiply in the zone of __________ of the metaphysis.

A) reserve cartilage

B) cell proliferation

C) cell hypertrophy

D) calcification

E) bone deposition

Q3) Which one of the following bone cells would have the greatest number of lysosomes?

A) Osteoblasts

B) Osteoclasts

C) Osteocytes

D) Osteogenic cells

E) Stem cells

Q4) A vertebra is considered a long bone.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why does an adult not have as many bones as a child?

A) Osteoporosis leads to bone loss with age.

B) Some separate bones gradually fuse with age.

C) Many bones are replaced by cartilage with age.

D) Bones are reabsorbed with age.

E) Osteoclast activity overcomes osteoblast activity with age.

Q2) The __________ is a U-shaped bone that sits above the larynx yet does not articulate with any other bone.

A) hyoid bone

B) mandible

C) maxilla

D) zygomatic bone

Q3) In a herniated disc,the ring of fibrocartilage called the __________ ruptures and the __________ oozes out.

A) nucleus pulposus;anulus fibrosus

B) lamina;nucleus pulposus

C) anulus fibrosus;nucleus pulposus

D) anulus fibrosus;body

E) nucleus pulposus;lamina

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Chapter 9: Joints

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Sample Questions

Q1) The jaw joint is the articulation of the __________ and the __________.

A) mandible;temporal bone

B) mandible;sphenoid bone

C) mandible;zygomatic bone

D) mandible;maxilla

E) maxilla;zygomatic

Q2) Raising your hand and placing it on the shoulder of a person standing in front of you,requires __________ of the shoulder.

A) abduction

B) adduction

C) extension

D) flexion

E) elevation

Q3) What do sutures,gomphoses,and syndesmoses have in common?

A) These are joints found only in the appendicular skeleton.

B) These are joints found only in the axial skeleton.

C) These are all bony joints.

D) These are all fibrous joints.

E) These are cartilaginous joints.

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Page 11

Chapter 10: The Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ________ attaches to the zygomatic arch and also to the angle of the mandible.

A) masseter

B) buccinator

C) temporalis

D) genioglossus

E) stylohyoid

Q2) Tennis elbow is a common term describing injury to the attachment of which of the following?

A) Extensor hallucis longus

B) Pronator quadratus

C) Extensor carpi radialis longus

D) Subscapularis

E) Flexor digitorum profundus

Q3) An __________ muscle is contained within a region whereas an __________ muscle acts upon one region but has an attachment elsewhere.

A) intrinsic;extrinsic

B) extrinsic;intrinsic

C) innate;extraneous

D) extraneous;innate

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Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) Where is dystrophin,the protein that is defective in muscular dystrophy,normally found?

A) Between the outermost myofilaments and the sarcolemma of a muscle fiber

B) As a transmembrane protein of the sarcolemma

C) In the Z discs of skeletal and cardiac muscle

D) In the dense bodies of smooth muscle

E) Bridging the gap between the sarcolemma and axon terminal

Q2) If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber has only partially relaxed from the previous twitch,the most likely result will be __________.

A) fatigue

B) spasm

C) incomplete tetanus

D) complete tetanus

E) flaccid paralysis

Q3) A dark band formed by parallel thick filaments that partly overlap the thin filaments is known as an H band.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the absolute refractory period which of the following is true?

A) If a neuron reaches threshold,the action potential goes to completion.

B) The neuron fires at its maximum voltage if a stimulus depolarizes the neuron to threshold.

C) The signal grows weaker with distance.

D) It is possible to trigger a new action potential,but only with an unusually strong stimulus.

E) No stimulus of any strength will trigger a new action potential.

Q2) While both systems maintain homeostasis,how does the nervous system differ from the endocrine system?

A) The nervous system releases neurotransmitters between cells,while the endocrine system releases hormones into the blood.

B) The nervous system releases neurotransmitters into the blood,while the endocrine system releases hormones between cells.

C) The nervous system releases hormones between cells,while the endocrine system releases neurotransmitters into the blood.

D) The nervous system releases hormones into the blood,while the endocrine system releases neurotransmitters between cells.

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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic

Reflexes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Nerve fibers in a given white matter tract are similar in origin,destination,and function.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A reflex in which the sensory input and motor output are on opposite sides of the spinal cord,is called a(n)_________ reflex arc.

A) intersegmental

B) contralateral

C) ipsilateral

D) polysynaptic

E) monosynaptic

Q3) A typical reflex contains a sensory neuron attached directly to an effector.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Neurosomas of the anterior root are located in the __________.

A) gray matter

B) posterior root ganglion

C) white matter

D) anterior rootlets

E) anterior root ganglion

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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the largest part of the hindbrain?

A) Cerebellum

B) Cerebrum

C) Brainstem

D) Pons

E) Hypothalamus

Q2) Which of the following is not associated with the pons?

A) Sensory information from the middle region of the face

B) Sensory information from the inferior region of the face

C) Sensory information from the superior region of the face

D) Lateral eye movements

E) Neck movement

Q3) Which lobe is deep to the lateral sulcus and can only be seen by removing some of the overlying cerebrum?

A) Frontal lobe

B) Occipital lobe

C) Parietal lobe

D) Temporal lobe

E) Insula

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Page 16

Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral

Reflexes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sympathetic fibers do not release __________.

A) acetylcholine

B) nitric oxide (NO)

C) substance P

D) neuropeptide Y

E) norepinephrine

Q2) The parasympathetic division arises from the __________ regions of the spinal cord.

A) brain,thoracic,and lumbar

B) brain,sacral,and coccygeal

C) brain,lumbar,sacral,and coccygeal

D) sacral and lumbar

E) brain and sacral

Q3) Preganglionic fibers run from the _________ to the __________.

A) posterior root ganglia;gray matter

B) posterior root ganglia;autonomic ganglia

C) gray matter;posterior root ganglia

D) gray matter;autonomic ganglia

E) autonomic ganglia;visceral effectors

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Sense Organs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which organ does not have nociceptors?

A) Brain

B) Heart

C) Kidney

D) Liver

E) Stomach

Q2) Which of the following structures belong to the inner ear?

A) Tympanic membrane

B) Helix

C) Incus

D) Semicircular duct

E) Tensor tympani muscle

Q3) Which of the following is not considered an accessory structure of the eye?

A) Conjunctiva

B) Palpebra

C) Lacrimal apparatus

D) Superior oblique

E) Cornea

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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Diabetes insipidus is caused by __________.

A) epinephrine hypersecretion

B) cortisol hypersecretion

C) aldosterone hypersecretion

D) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)hyposecretion

E) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)hypersecretion

Q2) Glucagon increases blood glucose concentration and insulin decreases it.This is an example of _____.

A) hormone clearance

B) the cascade effect

C) the synergistic effect

D) the permissive effect

E) the antagonistic effect

Q3) The infundibulum is a ___________.

A) mass of endocrine and neural cells

B) portal system between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland

C) bulky nucleus composed of the paraventricular nucleus and the supraoptic nucleus

D) depression of the sphenoid bone that protects the pituitary gland

E) projection of the hypothalamus from which the pituitary gland hangs

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Page 19

Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hemostasis is the production of formed elements of blood.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following proteins is not normally found in plasma?

A) Albumin

B) Hemoglobin

C) Transferrin

D) Prothrombin

E) Fibrinogen

Q3) The most important components in the cytoplasm of RBCs are hemoglobin and carbonic anhydrase.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Leukopoiesis begins with the differentiation of __________.

A) pluripotent stem cells

B) precursor cells

C) colony-forming units

D) myeloblasts

E) lymphoblasts

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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart

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Sample Questions

Q1) Atrial hypertrophy would probably cause an enlarged P wave on an electrocardiogram.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is the most superficial layer enclosing the heart?

A) Parietal pericardium

B) Visceral pericardium

C) Endocardium

D) Epicardium

E) Myocardium

Q3) The long absolute refractory period of cardiomyocytes _________.

A) ensures a short twitch

B) prevents tetanus

C) makes the heart prone to arrhythmias

D) prevents the occurrence of ectopic focuses

E) causes the pacemaker potential

Q4) Desmosomes form channels that allow each cardiomyocyte to electrically stimulate its neighbors.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hypertension is commonly considered to be a chronic resting blood pressure higher than __________.

A) 180/90

B) 130/60

C) 120/75

D) 140/90

E) 200/90

Q2) Where is the greatest volume of blood found in the body?

A) Pulmonary circuit

B) Heart

C) Arteries

D) Veins

E) Capillaries

Q3) The radial artery is lateral to the ulnar artery.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Increased capillary filtration,reduced reabsorption,or obstruction of lymphatic drainage can lead to edema.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Complement fixation cannot lead to __________.

A) enhanced inflammation

B) opsonization

C) endogenous pyrexia

D) bacterial phagocytosis

E) cytolysis

Q2) Cytotoxic T (T<sub>C</sub>)cells are like natural killer (NK)cells because they both

A) secrete interferons

B) secrete granzymes and perforin

C) participate in the immune response

D) participate in innate immunity

E) secrete tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

Q3) Memory T cells can be up to __________ old.

A) weeks

B) days

C) decades

D) years

E) months

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Page 23

Chapter 22: The Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the term for a deficiency of oxygen or the inability to utilize oxygen in a tissue?

A) Apoxia

B) Hypoxia

C) Anoxia

D) Cyanosis

E) Eupnea

Q2) Which of the following is a lung disease marked by a reduced number of cilia,reduced motility of the remaining cilia,goblet cell hypertrophy and hypersecretion,and thick sputum?

A) Asthma

B) Oat-cell carcinoma

C) Atelectasis

D) Chronic bronchitis

E) Emphysema

Q3) What is the least common but most dangerous form of lung cancer?

A) Mesothelioma

B) Adenocarcinoma

C) Squamous cell carcinoma

D) Small-cell carcinoma

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Chapter 23: The Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the thick segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop,K<sup>+</sup> reenters the cell from the interstitial fluid via the _________.K<sup>+</sup> is then secreted into the tubular fluid.

A) Na<sup>+</sup>-K<sup>+</sup> pump

B) countercurrent multiplier

C) countercurrent exchange

D) vasa recta

E) juxtaglomerular apparatus

Q2) Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the

A) renal corpuscle

B) proximal convoluted tubule

C) distal convoluted tubule

D) glomerular capillaries

E) collecting duct

Q3) Ethyl (drinking)alcohol stimulates the secretion of ADH,thereby reducing reabsorption by the collecting duct.

A)True

B)False

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance

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Q1) Fluid intake is governed mainly by hypothalamic neurons called .

A) baroreceptors

B) proprioceptors

C) nociceptors

D) osmoreceptors

E) mechanoreceptors

Q2) Hypovolemia refers to a reduction in total body water while maintaining normal osmolarity.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The kidneys secrete ADH in response to dehydration.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What determines osmosis from one fluid compartment to another?

A) The temperature difference between compartments

B) The relative concentration of solutes in each compartment

C) The relative volume in each compartment

D) The relative size of each compartment

E) The blood pressure

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Chapter 25: The Digestive System

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Q1) Most fat is digested by pancreatic lipase.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The three most abundant classes of nutrients are __________.

A) carbohydrates,proteins,and minerals

B) fats,proteins,and carbohydrates

C) proteins,nucleic acids,and carbohydrates

D) triglycerides,starches,and proteins

E) proteins,fats,and minerals

Q3) Which of the following occurs in response to chemical irritants or sensory stimuli?

A) vomiting

B) mechanical digestion

C) segmentation

D) mass movement

Q4) Both chemical and mechanical digestion start in the mouth and continue in the stomach.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism

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Q1) Which of the following constitutes the so-called "bad cholesterol?"

A) Triglycerides

B) Chylomicrons

C) Low-density lipoproteins

D) High-density lipoproteins

E) Very-low-density lipoproteins

Q2) __________ are short term regulators of appetite,whereas __________ is a long-term regulator.

A) Insulin and cholecystokinin (CCK);peptide YY (PYY)

B) Peptide YY (PYY)and insulin;cholecystokinin (CCK)

C) Peptide YY (PYY)and cholecystokinin (CCK);insulin

D) Leptin and insulin;cholecystokinin (CCK)

E) Leptin and insulin;peptide YY (PYY)

Q3) Glycolysis and aerobic respiration collectively produce up to ____________ ATP per glucose,whereas anaerobic fermentation produces __________.

A) 2;about the same,varying from one tissue to another

B) 32;none

C) 32;2

D) 32;36

E) 36;about the same,varying from one tissue to another

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Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System

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Q1) By volume,most of the semen is produced in the __________.

A) testes

B) penis

C) prostate

D) seminal vesicles

E) bulbourethral glands

Q2) Sperm travels to the ampulla of the ductus deferens before reaching the spermatic cord.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The gene that codes for the testis-determining factor (TDF)is found in or on the

A) Y chromosome

B) X chromosome

C) gonadal ridges

D) fetal testes

E) mesonephros

Q4) Sperm make up just 10% of semen volume.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a part of the internal female genitalia?

A) Vagina

B) Clitoris

C) Labia majora

D) Labia minora

E) Mammary gland

Q2) Which uterine layer is composed of a simple columnar epithelium containing tubular glands?

A) Fimbrium

B) Myometrium

C) Endometrium

D) Cervix

E) Perimetrium

Q3) The ovarian cycle typically lasts about 28 days,with day 1 considered to be the first day after ovulation.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Women with morning sickness tend to prefer spicy and pungent foods.

A)True

B)False

Page 30

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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging

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Q1) The _________ begins to develop about 11 days after conception,and is the sole source of fetal nutrition from the end of week 12 until birth.

A) yolk sac

B) placenta

C) amnion

D) trophoblast

E) blastocyst

Q2) A teratogen is most likely to cause __________.

A) a deformity of the limbs

B) aneuploidy

C) trisomy

D) nondisjunction

E) a mutation

Q3) The __________ encloses all the rest of the membranes and the embryo.

A) chorion

B) allantois

C) yolk sac

D) amnion

E) zona pellucida

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Page 31

Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human

Anatomy

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Q1) The __________ system regulates blood volume and pressure,stimulates red blood cell formation,and controls fluid,electrolyte,and acid-base balance.

A) urinary

B) respiratory

C) digestive

D) muscular

E) circulatory

Q2) Most of the stomach is located in the _________ of the abdomen.

A) right upper quadrant (RUQ)

B) right lower quadrant (RLQ)

C) left upper quadrant (LUQ)

D) left lower quadrant (LLQ)

E) left middle quadrant (LMQ)

Q3) The cranial cavity contains the brain.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The liver is proximal to the diaphragm.

A)True

B)False

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