Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology is an introductory course designed for students planning to enter nursing programs. It provides a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body, emphasizing the interrelationships among major organ systems. Key topics include basic cell biology, tissues, the integumentary system, skeletal and muscular systems, nervous and endocrine systems, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Special attention is given to the physiological processes that underpin health, disease, and homeostasis, preparing students with the essential knowledge required for success in advanced nursing coursework.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Anatomy Physiology 7th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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20 Chapters
2274 Verified Questions
2274 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of living organisms include the ability to A) repair and completely restore itself during any type of injury.
B) respond and adapt to their environment.
C) control the external environment.
D) form positive feedback loops.
E) create a protective covering over themselves.
Answer: B
Q2) The kneecap is patellar,whereas the back of the knee is A) crural.
B) pedal.
C) manual.
D) popliteal.
E) pubic.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mixture of water and a salt would result in breaking down the salt into a mixture of cations and anions.This process is called
A) dehydration synthesis.
B) dissociation.
C) hydrolysis.
D) condensation reaction.
E) equilibrium.
Answer: B
Q2) The addition of energy to start a reaction is called the energy of A) endergonic control.
B) activation.
C) exergonic control.
D) release.
E) equilibrium.
Answer: B
Q3) How does the RNA molecule differ from a DNA molecule?
Answer: RNA is usually single stranded and DNA is double stranded.RNA contains ribose sugars and DNA contains deoxyribose sugars.DNA contains the nitrogenous bases A,G,C,and T,while RNA contains A,G,C,and U.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Due to exposure to a chemical,a compound other than the correct structure #3 has been inserted into the DNA strand during replication.This could result in
A) blocking mitotic division of the cells.
B) changing the protein coded for by the DNA segment.
C) inhibiting the cells from performing cell respiration.
D) preventing the cell from making ATP.
E) making the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following functions in the synthesis of secretory products,as well as intracellular storage and transport?
A) 9
B) 10
C) 4
D) 11
E) 6
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following consists of stratified squamous epithelial tissue,areolar tissue,and dense irregular connective tissue?
A) mucous membrane
B) synovial membrane
C) serous membrane
D) glandular membrane
E) cutaneous membrane
Q2) If you were looking at connective tissue in the microscope,you would notice
A) most of the cells in mitosis.
B) long, large, multinucleated cells.
C) goblet cells embedded in the tissue.
D) spaces between the cells.
E) the cells layered on top of each other and packed together.
Q3) Functions of connective tissue include
A) specialization for contraction.
B) the conduction of electrical impulses.
C) glandular secretion production.
D) storage of energy reserves.
E) control of permeability.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Through which cellular interactions are the cells of the stratum basale firmly attached to the plasma membrane?
A) gap junctions
B) CAMs
C) tight junctions
D) connexons
E) hemidesmosomes
Q2) As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis toward the surface,
A) they divide.
B) they die.
C) their nutrient supply increases.
D) they enter the dermis.
E) they produce daughter cells.
Q3) The structure composed of stratified squamous epithelium is A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) M.
E) L.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is found only in compact bone?
A) trabeculae
B) canaliculi
C) osteoblasts
D) osteons
E) marrow
Q2) A crest on a bone is defined as a(n)
A) low ridge.
B) small, rounded projection.
C) narrow groove.
D) elongated cleft.
E) prominent ridge.
Q3) The depression on the distal end of the anterior humerus is the A) olecranon fossa.
B) coronoid fossa.
C) intercondylar fossa.
D) intertubercular groove.
E) trochlear notch.
Q4) Billy is injured during a high school football game.His chest is badly bruised,and he is experiencing difficulty breathing.What might be the problem?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs when glycolysis produces pyruvate faster than it can be used by the mitochondria?
A) Pyruvate levels drop in the cytoplasm.
B) Lactic acid is produced.
C) Pyruvate is converted to sucrose.
D) Lactic acid dissociates into a water molecule and hydrogen.
E) Oxygen is produced.
Q2) A single stimulus-contraction-relaxation sequence in a muscle fiber is known as a(n)
A) incomplete tetanus.
B) latent period.
C) complete tetanus.
D) summation.
E) twitch.
Q3) Because Mary wants to enter a marathon,she decides to consult a trainer who happens to be a kinesiologist.The trainer advises her on what type of muscle fibers she needs to develop and how she should train for it.Which type of muscle fibers are involved? Briefly explain the anatomy and physiology of the trainer's advice.
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Chapter 8: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The all-or-none principle states that
A) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials.
B) all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.
C) the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the intensity of the action potential.
D) only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials.
E) only motor stimuli can activate action potentials.
Q2) Monosynaptic reflexes
A) are among the most complex reflex arcs.
B) involve two or more sequential synapses.
C) usually control slow motor responses.
D) do not control stereotyped responses of the nervous system.
E) are exemplified by the stretch reflex.
Q3) Structure J is the
A) midbrain.
B) medulla oblongata.
C) cerebellum.
D) basal ganglia.
E) pons.
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Chapter 9: The General and Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Olfactory receptors are examples of A) pain receptors.
B) thermoreceptors.
C) mechanoreceptors.
D) chemoreceptors.
E) proprioceptors.
Q2) The tympanic membrane vibrates to frequencies between
A) 2,000-3,000 Hz.
B) 20-2,000 Hz.
C) 2-200 Hz.
D) 200-200,000 Hz.
E) 20-20,000 Hz.
Q3) Structure B is the A) cornea.
B) lens.
C) choroid.
D) iris.
E) ciliary body.
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11
Chapter 10: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Structure J is
A) adipose tissue.
B) the thyroid gland.
C) the pancreas.
D) the parathyroid gland.
E) the adrenal gland.
Q2) Thyroid hormone insufficiency in infancy results in which of the following?
A) Addison's disease
B) goiter
C) Cushing disease
D) acromegaly
E) cretinism
Q3) Insulin causes
A) decreased rate of glucose transport into target cells.
B) decreased amino acid absorption.
C) conversion of glucose to glycogen in the liver and skeletal muscles.
D) increased breakdown of fats to fatty acids in adipose tissue.
E) increased blood glucose levels.
Q4) Explain the interactions of parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.
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Chapter 11: The Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium ions and ________ have an effect on nearly every aspect of the clotting process.
A) vitamin K
B) vitamin A
C) vitamin D
D) vitamin E
E) thiamin
Q2) ________ are the most abundant cell population of the formed elements of blood.
A) Erythrocytes
B) Platelets
C) Neutrophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes
Q3) The most abundant type of WBC in a normal blood sample is the A) basophil.
B) neutrophil.
C) lymphocyte.
D) eosinophil.
E) monocyte.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each cardiac muscle cell is bound to its neighboring cells at sites called A) intercalated discs.
B) myofibrils.
C) sarcomeres.
D) trabeculae.
E) fossa ovalis.
Q2) The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood directly into the A) superior vena cava.
B) inferior vena cava.
C) coronary sinus.
D) coronary sulcus.
E) aorta.
Q3) Atrioventricular valves prevent backflow into the A) ventricles.
B) atria.
C) venae cavae.
D) aorta.
E) pulmonary trunk.
Q4) Explain the significance of the thickness of the left ventricular wall.
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Chapter 13: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lumbar arteries are
A) paired and travel in the intercostal spaces.
B) paired and found in the aortic arch.
C) paired and found on the posterior surface of the aorta.
D) single branches of the anterior abdominal aorta.
E) a pair of muscular arteries that travel along the inner surface of the ilium.
Q2) Blood leaving the capillaries supplied by the celiac,superior mesenteric,and inferior mesenteric arteries flows to the liver through the
A) inferior vena cava.
B) dural sinuses.
C) hepatic portal system.
D) dual venous drainage.
E) dorsal venous arch.
Q3) In the short-term response to hemorrhage,________ occurs.
A) decreased vasomotor activity
B) increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart
C) increased venous return through venoconstriction
D) immediate erythropoietin activation
E) a recall of fluids from the interstitial spaces
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The portions of an antigen's exposed surfaces to which its specific antibody binds are regions called
A) opsonins.
B) the constant segments of the light and heavy chains.
C) antigenic-determinant sites.
D) complement-binding sites.
E) antigen-binding sites.
Q2) Virus-infected cells release
A) complement.
B) heparin.
C) interferon.
D) pyrogens.
E) perforins.
Q3) A foreign microorganism that may cause disease in humans is called a(n) A) pathogen.
B) antigen.
C) antibody.
D) pathology.
E) plaque.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The alveolar exchange surfaces of the lungs are approximately
A) 75 square kilometers.
B) 140 square meters.
C) 1400 square centimeters.
D) 7 square kilometers.
E) 14 square meters.
Q2) When at rest,the amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs in a normal respiratory cycle is the
A) total lung capacity.
B) vital capacity.
C) tidal volume.
D) residual volume.
E) inspiratory volume.
Q3) Choose the correct match.
A) Hypoxia/high tissue O levels in active tissues
B) Surfactant/oily secretion that keeps the bronchioles open
C) Pleura/mucous membrane
D) Vital capacity/sum of expiratory and inspiratory reserve volumes
E) Inflation reflex/prevents overinflation of lungs
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Chapter 16: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Label C represents which structure?
A) circular fold
B) submucosa
C) muscularis externa
D) serosa
E) mucosa
Q2) In the fundus and body of the stomach,gastric glands extend deep into the A) adventitia.
B) lamina propria.
C) serosa.
D) muscularis externa.
E) submucosa.
Q3) Which of the following is the primary digestive organ involved in regulating the composition of circulating blood?
A) pancreas
B) stomach
C) small intestine
D) large intestine
E) liver
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Metabolism and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ion(s)or molecule(s)labeled E is (are)
A) CO .
B) H O.
C) O .
D) H .
E) 2H.
Q2) This mineral is a cofactor of the carbonic anhydrase enzyme system.
A) chloride
B) calcium
C) copper
D) zinc
E) magnesium
Q3) Mucosal deterioration is a sign of hypovitaminosis for vitamins C,B ,and A) B .
B) A.
C) D.
D) K.
E) C.
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Chapter 18: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In response to respiratory alkalosis,
A) the respiratory rate increases.
B) the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies are further stimulated.
C) the kidneys conserve bicarbonate.
D) the kidneys secrete more hydrogen ions.
E) the respiratory rate decreases.
Q2) The hormone ANP
A) stimulates ADH secretion.
B) increases the rate of sodium ion reabsorption.
C) decreases glomerular filtration.
D) decreases urinary water loss.
E) promotes the dilation of glomerular capillaries.
Q3) Which component of the ECF is the largest in both males and females?
A) lymph
B) plasma
C) interstitial fluid
D) synovial fluid
E) cerebrospinal fluid
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Chapter 19: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ are produced at the end of the meiotic divisions in the seminiferous tubules.
A) Spermatogonia
B) Primary spermatocytes
C) Spermatids
D) Secondary spermatocytes
E) Spermatozoa
Q2) Slender,tightly coiled tubules originate at the seminiferous tubules and form a maze of passageways called the A) epididymis.
B) ductus deferens.
C) rete testis.
D) efferent ducts.
E) ejaculatory ducts.
Q3) Removal of the seminal glands would result in semen
A) that lacked sperm.
B) with a higher-than-normal pH.
C) with less fructose.
D) with no lubricating fluids.
E) that lacked androgens.
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Chapter 20: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The morula stage occurs during which process?
A) embryogenesis
B) placentation
C) gastrulation
D) implantation
E) cleavage
Q2) A blastocyst is
A) an extraembryonic membrane that forms blood vessels.
B) a solid ball of cells.
C) a hollow ball of cells.
D) a portion of the placenta.
E) the membrane that forms the urinary bladder.
Q3) The outer layer of cells separating the outside world from the blastocoele is called the
A) trophoblast.
B) chorion.
C) inner cell mass.
D) zona pellucida.
E) blastomere.
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Page 22