

Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology
Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology is an introductory course designed to provide foundational knowledge of the human bodys structure and function, with a focus on systems most relevant to nursing practice. Students will explore basic anatomical terminology, the organization of the body, cellular processes, and the major body systems, including the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, circulatory, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding normal physiological processes, how the systems interact, and the application of this knowledge to patient care and clinical scenarios in preparation for advanced nursing courses.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 5th Edition by
Elaine N. Marieb
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26 Chapters
3257 Verified Questions
3257 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Uterus.
A)Thoracic
B)Crania
C)Abdominopelvic
Answer: C
Q2) Arteries, veins, heart.
A)Respiratory
B)Cardiovascular
C)Digestive
D)Endocrine
E)Urinary
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region?
A) appendix
B) stomach
C) liver
D) intestines
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrically charged particle due to loss of an electron. Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a factor in influencing a reaction rate?
A) temperature
B) concentration
C) particle size
D) time
Answer: D
Q3) Thymine
Answer: D
Q4) You notice that you cannot read your book through a test tube of patient fluid held against the print, making it so blurred as to be unreadable. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days in a rack. What type of liquid is this?
A) solution
B) suspension
C) colloid
D) mixture
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crenation (shrinking) is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in ________.
A) an isotonic solution
B) a hypotonic solution
C) a hypertonic solution
D) blood plasma
Answer: C
Q2) Passive membrane transport processes include ________.
A) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
B) movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low concentration
C) consumption of ATP
D) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration
Answer: A
Q3) Centrioles move to opposite ends of the cell.
Answer: D
Q4) The RNA that has an anticodon and attaches to a specific amino acid is ________ RNA.
Answer: transfer
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tissue that forms the framework for the lamina propria of mucous membranes is ________ connective tissue.
Q2) Areolar connective tissue.
Q3) Which of the following is True about epithelia?
A) Simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high abrasion.
B) Stratified epithelia are associated with filtration.
C) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs.
D) Pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized.
Q4) Simple cuboidal epithelium.
Q5) Squamous cells are flattened and scalelike when mature.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Cardiac muscle.
Q7) Which of the following is True about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands?
A) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.
B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion.
C) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves.
D) These glands are ductless.
Q8) Forms tendons and ligaments.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?
A) infection
B) catastrophic fluid loss
C) unbearable pain
D) loss of immune function
Q2) What are the most important factors influencing hair growth?
A) sex and hormones
B) age and glandular products
C) the size and number of hair follicles
D) nutrition and hormones
Q3) When a patient is said to have "third-degree burns," this indicates that the patient has burns that cover approximately one-third or more of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The coarse hair of the eyebrows and scalp is called ________ hair.
Q5) Balding men have tried all kinds of remedies, including hair transplants, to restore their lost locks. Explain the cause of male pattern baldness.
Q6) Responsible for shock absorption and located in the hypodermis.
Q7) Why is skin not considered an absolute heat barrier for the body?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ossification of the ends of long bones ________.
A) is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation
B) involves medullary cavity formation
C) is produced by secondary ossification centers
D) takes twice as long as diaphysis ossification
Q2) What causes osteoporosis?
A) poor posture
B) Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries.
C) heritage such as African or Mediterranean
D) abnormal PTH receptors
Q3) Bones are porous and thin but bone composition is normal.
Q4) Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?
A) parathyroid hormone
B) calcium
C) growth hormone
D) thyroid hormone
Q5) What are multinucleated cells that destroy bone called?
Q6) What is found in a Haversian canal?
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the bones of the skull, except the mandible, are united by sutures and are therefore immovable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transverse foramina present.
Q3) How might low back pain be related to poor abdominal muscle tone?
Q4) After having a severe cold accompanied by nasal congestion, Jamila complained that she had a headache just above her eyes and that the right side of her face ached. What specific bony structures probably became infected by the bacteria or viruses causing the cold?
Q5) Receive the most stress.
Q6) The styloid process of the ________ points to the thumb.
Q7) You are a school nurse in a middle school. You are responsible for screening the children for scoliosis. What is involved in this screening?
Q8) Coronal suture.
Q9) The sella turcica is a portion of this bone.
Q10) Lordosis affects the thoracic vertebrae.
Page 9

A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joint 3.
Q2) Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________.
A) menisci
B) bursae
C) ligaments
D) tendons
Q3) Articular cartilage.
Q4) While the fingers can exhibit flexion and extension and other angular motions, the thumb has much greater freedom. Why?
Q5) Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Identify the saddle joint of the skeleton.
A) Interphalangeal joint of the finger.
B) Meatcarpophalangeal joint of the finger.
C) Carpometacarpal joint of the phalanges.
D) Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.
Q6) Joint 4.
Q7) Joint 6.
Q8) Joint 1.
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a geriatric patient is admitted to the postsurgical unit, an important nursing measure is to prevent the loss of muscle mass. What is the term used for loss of muscle mass and how can the patient prevent it?
Q2) A sarcomere is the distance between two ________.
Q3) Both actin and myosin are found in the ________.
Q4) What is muscle tension?
Q5) Rigor mortis occurs because ________.
A) the cells are dead
B) sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions
C) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
D) proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions
Q6) The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
B) the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past
C) actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other
D) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments
Q7) The myosin filaments are located in the ________.
Q8) Connective tissue sheath surrounding individual muscle fibers
Q10) Only ________ muscle cells are always multinucleated. Page 11
Q9) Diffusion across the cell membrane results in depolarization.
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ helps keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth during chewing.
Q2) Pectoralis minor.
Q3) Muscle that stabilizes the origin of another muscle.
Q4) Muscles that help to maintain posture are often called synergists.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?
A) the length
B) the shape
C) the number of neurons innervating it
D) the total number of muscle cells available for contraction
Q6) Damage to the ischiocavernosus muscle would have what effect?
Q7) The major head flexors are the sternocleidomastoid muscles, with the help of the muscles attached to the hyoid bone.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Retract scapula.
Q10) ________ is a powerful forearm extensor. Page 13
Q9) What are the components of a lever system? Describe the role of each component.
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Page 14
Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous
Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specific period during which potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron due to a change in membrane permeability.
Q2) Any stimulus below this intensity will result in no response in a neuron.
Q3) A postsynaptic potential is a graded potential that is the result of a neurotransmitter released into the synapse between two neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During depolarization, the inside of the neuron's membrane becomes less negative.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Reflexes are rapid, automatic responses to stimuli.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A patient is admitted to the hospital with exacerbation of multiple sclerosis (MS). She asks the nurse, "Why did this have to happen to me again? I was doing so well." Explain why some forms of MS are characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation.
Q7) Define synaptic delay.

Page 15
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which white matter tracts connect the cerebrum to the lower brain areas?
Q2) Theta and delta waves begin to appear.
Q3) Pons.
Q4) The ________ is the main switch station for memory; if the right and left areas are damaged, the past is lost.
Q5) A patient was admitted to the medical/surgical unit with a stroke that affected the motor neurons in the pyramidal pathway. This affected the loss of voluntary movement to his left side. What other problems would the patient experience?
Q6) The two longitudinal ridges on the medulla oblongata where many descending fibers cross over are called the ________.
Q7) A temporary cessation of breathing during sleep found most commonly in the elderly is called sleep ________.
Q8) What cells line the ventricles of the brain?
A) ependymal cells
B) neurons
C) epithelial cells
D) astrocytes
Q9) A 24-hour cycle of sleep and wakefulness is called a ________ rhythm.
Page 16
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fluid contained within the membranous labyrinth is called perilymph.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Central pattern generators.
Q3) Partial or total loss of smell is known as ________.
Q4) Receptors located in epithelium of the nasal cavity.
Q5) Horizontal cell.
Q6) Dermatomes are skin segments that relate to sensory innervation regions of the spinal nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx.
Q8) Helps to regulate blood pressure and digestion.
Q9) A condition of deafness that may result from otosclerosis.
Q10) How is a receptor potential similar to an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) generated at a synapse?
Q11) A possible side effect of medications such as aspirin. Page 17
Q12) Formed by the union of a cranial and a spinal root.
Q13) Define tendon organs and muscle spindles relative to the stretch reflex.
Q14) Damage to this nerve would cause dizziness, nausea, and loss of balance.
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Richard has been under great stress and has complained of migraine headaches for weeks. He tried all kinds of drugs, with little effect. When he was at the end of his rope, a friend suggested yoga and meditation. Having nothing to lose, he tried them and after several months, felt like a new person. How could these practices help him?
Q2) The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________.
A) lumbar splanchnic nerves
B) cephalic plexus
C) pelvic nerves
D) tenth cranial nerve
Q3) Because the ANS is a visceral motor system, afferent pathways are of no importance and actually are rarely found.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ________.
A) constriction of most blood vessels
B) dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles
C) increase of heart rate and force
D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
Q5) Postganglionic parasympathetic.
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Chapter 15: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The endocrine gland that is probably malfunctioning if a person has a high metabolic rate is the parathyroid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.
A) synthesizing more than one hormone at a time
B) increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ
C) altering gene expression in the nuclear DNA
D) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
Q3) ACTH ________.
A) is secreted by the posterior pituitary
B) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic regulatory hormone
C) causes the release of hormones from the adrenal medulla
D) is not a tropic hormone
Q4) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Q5) The ________ gland is especially large in early childhood, then declines in size and function with age.
Q6) Produces glucocorticoids.
Q7) Briefly discuss target cell activation by hormone-receptor interaction.
Page 20
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) What determines whether blood is bright red or a dull, dark red?
Q2) Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?
A) vascular spasm
B) fibrinolysis
C) platelet plug formation
D) coagulation
Q3) Natural anticoagulant found in basophils.
Q4) Blood is a ________.
A) colloid
B) homogeneous compound
C) heterogeneous compound
D) suspension
Q5) White blood cell without cytoplasmic granules
Q6) Lymphocyte.
Q7) Makes up most of plasma protein.
Q8) Type B.
Q9) Basophils increase in number when parasitic invasion occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q10) Cancerous condition involving white blood cells. Page 21
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Page 22

Chapter 17: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) AV valve with three flaps.
Q2) Purkinje fibers.
Q3) Ventricular repolarization.
Q4) A man enters the hospital complaining of chest pain. His history includes smoking, a stressful job, a diet heavy in saturated fats, lack of exercise, and high blood pressure. Although he is not suffering from a heart attack, his doctor explains to him that a heart attack is quite possible. What did the chest pain indicate? Why is this man a prime candidate for a heart attack?
Q5) An older woman complains of shortness of breath and intermittent fainting spells. Her doctor runs various tests and finds that the AV node is not functioning properly. What is the suggested treatment?
Q6) Junctional rhythm.
Q7) Heart murmurs or rubs are considered to be ________ sounds.
Q8) A patient takes a nitroglycerin tablet sublingually for chest pain. Nitroglycerin acts directly on smooth muscle, producing relaxation and vessel dilation. How would this relieve chest pain?
Q9) The outermost layer of the serous pericardium.
Q11) Prevents backflow into the right atrium. Page 23
Q10) The ________ layer of the serous pericardium covers the heart.
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Page 24

Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) A family of peptides called ________ are released by the endothelium and are among the most potent vasoconstrictors known.
Q2) A pregnant patient comes into a clinic and asks about a small painless dark compressible bulge that is becoming more apparent on her leg. What is it and what caused it?
Q3) Arteriolar blood pressure increases in response to all but which of the following?
A) increasing stroke volume
B) increasing heart rate
C) rising blood volume
D) falling blood volume
E) all of these
Q4) Supplies pelvic structures.
Q5) An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Results from heart inability to sustain adequate circulation due to myocardial damage
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Chapter 19: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because lymph vessels are very low-pressure conduits, movements of adjacent tissues are important in propelling lymph through the lymphatics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the consequence of obstruction of the lymphatics?
Q3) The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?
A) pancreas
B) spleen
C) tonsils
D) Peyer's patches of the intestine
Q6) Medulla.
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Chapter 20: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive
Body Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antibody molecule is held together by ________ bonds.
A) disulfide
B) hydrogen
C) amino acid
D) sodium
Q2) Forms antibody producing cells
A)Helper T cell
B)B cell
C)Cytotoxic T cell
D)Regulatory T cell
E)Memory cell
Q3) A young girl requires a liver transplant due to failure of her liver to function. What is required for her to have a good prognosis and why?
Q4) Delayed hypersensitivities ________.
A) are mediated by B cells
B) include allergic contact dermatitis
C) include anaphylactic shock, a systemic vasodilation that results in inadequate blood delivery to all tissues
D) do not involve T cells
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Chapter 21: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because the ________.
A) temperature is lower at higher altitudes
B) basal metabolic rate is higher at high altitudes
C) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is higher at higher altitudes
D) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes
Q2) Define anatomical dead space. What is the relationship between anatomical and alveolar dead space? Which value is likely to increase during lung pathology?
Q3) Changes in arterial pH can modify respiration rate and rhythm even when carbon dioxide and oxygen levels are normal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Intrapleural pressure is normally about 4 mm Hg less than the pressure in the alveoli.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is True concerning the number and type of permanent teeth?
A) There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge.
B) There are 27 permanent teeth, and the first molars are usually the last to emerge.
C) The number of permanent teeth is always equal to the number of primary teeth.
D) The number of upper permanent teeth is not equal to the number of lower permanent teeth.
Q2) Select the correct statement about absorption.
A) Eighty percent of ingested materials have been absorbed by the end of the large intestine.
B) Carbohydrates diffuse across the villus epithelium and are then actively transported into blood capillaries.
C) If intact proteins are transported across the villus epithelium, an immune response may be generated.
D) Amino acid transport is linked to chloride transport.
Q3) The protective outermost layer of the esophagus is the ________.
Q4) Produces enzymes that break down all categories of foodstuffs.
Q5) Bacteria process undigested chyme from the small intestine.
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Page 29

Chapter 23: Nutrition, Metabolism, and Body Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Where the hydrogen atoms removed during the oxidation of food fuels are combined with O .
Q2) The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is ________.
A) fat
B) glucose
C) acetyl CoA
D) protein
Q3) Formation of glucose from proteins or fats.
Q4) High levels of HDLs are considered good.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Produces the CO involved during glucose oxidation.
Q6) Which of the following nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized?
A) fats
B) vitamins and minerals
C) foods and beverages high in caffeine
D) proteins
Q7) Breakdown of glycogen to release glucose. Page 30
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Chapter 24: The Urinary System
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Q1) Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?
A) helps maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition, volume, and pressure of blood
B) regulates blood glucose levels and produces hormones
C) maintains blood osmolarity
D) eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat
Q2) Which of the following is not True regarding tubular reabsorption?
A) It occurs via transcellular or paracellular routes.
B) It is a reclamation process.
C) It involves hormonal signals in the collecting ducts.
D) It is a purely passive transport process.
Q3) Tubular secretion is effective in controlling blood pH.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The urinary bladder is composed of ________ epithelium.
A) transitional
B) simple squamous
C) stratified squamous
D) pseudostratified columnar
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Chapter 25: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The breakdown of phosphorus-containing proteins releases ________ acid.
Q2) Electrolytes determine most of the chemical and physical reactions of body fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a method for regulating the hydrogen ion concentration in blood?
A) chemical buffer systems
B) diet
C) respiratory changes
D) renal mechanism
Q4) Blood analysis indicates a low pH, and the patient is breathing rapidly. Given your knowledge of acid-base balance, which of the following is most likely?
A) respiratory acidosis
B) metabolic acidosis
C) metabolic alkalosis
D) respiratory alkalosis
Q5) The fluid compartments outside the cell.
Q6) Proteins are highest in ________.
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive System
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Q1) The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that ________.
A) during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced
B) the mature ovum is n, while the sperm is 2n
C) in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell
D) spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves meiosis only
Q2) How do the testes respond to exposure to excessive body warmth?
A) They move close to the pelvic cavity.
B) They move away from the pelvic cavity.
C) Excessive warmth has no effect on the testicles because of their location in the scrotum.
D) Excessive warmth is actually beneficial in that it speeds up the maturation of sperm.
Q3) Early spermatids.
Q4) Midpiece.
Q5) Flagellum.
Q6) Primordial follicle.
Q7) A follicle with only a small antrum in it would be classified as a(n) ________ follicle.
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