Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Review
Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology provides foundational knowledge of the structure and function of the human body, emphasizing systems most relevant to nursing practice. This course covers cell biology, tissues, and organ systems such as skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Students will develop an understanding of physiological processes and how they relate to maintaining homeostasis and health. Through lectures, labs, and practical activities, learners gain essential preparation for more advanced nursing courses and hands-on clinical experiences.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the body region between the anus and the external genitals?
A)gluteal
B)crural
C)lumbar
D)perineal
E)inguinal
Answer: D
Q2) Describe the differences between positive and negative feedback systems.
Answer: No Answer
Q3) Percussion techniques can be used to detect A)heart beats.
B)pulse rate.
C)arthritis.
D)fluid in the lungs.
E)enlarged organs.
Answer: D
Q4) List the basic processes of life.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about phospholipids?
A)They contain a glycerol backbone.
B)The head group is polar.
C)The molecule is an important part of cell membranes.
D)The tail groups are nonpolar.
E)They are a major form of energy storage.
Answer: E
Q2) This refers to a weighted average of the atomic weights of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element.
A)mass number
B)atomic number
C)atomic mass
D)ionic mass
E)covalent mass
Answer: C
Q3) Describe the law of conservation of energy.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Why is the human digestive system unable to digest cellulose?
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue?
A)Bone
B)Blood
C)Cartilage
D)Tendons
E)Epidermis
Q2) The thin extracellular layer,consisting of the basal and reticular lamina,that anchors epithelial cells to underlying connective tissue is called the A)basement membrane.
B)tunica adventitia.
C)tight junction.
D)adherens junctions.
E)gap junctions.
Q3) The main function of dense regular connective tissues is A)storing minerals for later use.
B)forming stroma of soft organs.
C)reducing heat loss from the body surface.
D)providing strong attachment between structures like muscle and bones.
E)providing elasticity to stretchable organs.
Q4) Discuss the three functional classifications of exocrine glands secretions.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?
A)Arrector pili
B)Lunula
C)Sweat glands
D)Hair follicles
E)Oil glands
Q2) This type of exocrine gland is a simple,branched acinar gland connected to a hair follicle.
A)Sebaceous gland
B)Sudoriferous gland
C)Both sebaceous gland and sudoriferous gland
D)None of these answers are correct
Q3) This is a mixture of triglycerides,cholesterol,proteins and inorganic salts.
A)Sweat
B)Lanugo
C)Vellus
D)Sebum
E)Mucus
Q4) List and briefly describe the major functions of the skin.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The general process by which bones form is called
A)ossification.
B)osteomalacia.
C)calcification.
D)apposition.
E)orthodontics.
Q2) Which of the following two minerals are needed in large quantities when bones are growing?
A)calcium and chlorine
B)magnesium and sulfur
C)calcium and phosphorous
D)manganese and sulfur
E)potassium and phosphorous
Q3) This is the region of a long bone that articulates with other bones.
A)diaphysis
B)epiphysis
C)metaphysis
D)periosteum
E)dmarrow
Q4) Briefly describe the processes by which bone increases in length and diameter.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bones is NOT visible from the anterior view of the skull?
A)Parietal
B)Frontal
C)Mandible
D)Occipital
E)Maxilla
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to bones of the skull?
A)Some skull bones are covered with a mucous membrane.
B)The only movable bone in the skull is the mandible.
C)The bones of the skull contain foramina but no fissures.
D)The facial bones provide support for the entrance of the digestive system.
E)Some bones of the skull contain sinus cavities.
Q3) Briefly describe the five categories of bones found in the human body based on the shape of the bones.
Q4) The pituitary gland is contained in a depression found in this cranial bone.
A)Ethmoid
B)Sphenoid
C)Lacrimal
D)Temporal
E)Parietal
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: The
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius?
A)Joins the shafts of two bones
B)Tendon attachment
C)Site of bone repair
D)Both site of tendon attachment and bone repair
E)None of these choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is a condition where the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is abnormally elevated?
A)Patellofemoral stress syndrome
B)Bunions
C)Flatfoot
D)Clawfoot
E)Clubfoot
Q3) The bones of the face are derived from
A)the cartilaginous neurocranium.
B)the membranous neurocranium.
C)mesoderm.
D)the membranous viscerocranium.
E)endoderm.
Q4) Name the bones that are included in each lower limb.
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe the functions of synovial fluid.
Q2) A condyloid joint
A)is also called an ellipsoidal joint.
B)is considered to be biaxial.
C)allows both flexion-extension and abduction-adduction of the joint.
D)can be found in the wrist.
E)is All of these choices
Q3) Flexion and extension usually occur along which plane?
A)Frontal
B)Transverse
C)Sagittal
D)Oblique
E)None of these choices
Q4) Which of the following structures is used to reduce friction in joints??1.Bursae?2.Synovial fluid?3.Accessory ligaments?4.Elastic fibers
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)4 only
E)1 and 2
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the four steps of the contraction cycle in order of occurrence.What is needed for these steps to continuously repeat?
Q2) A period of sustained skeletal muscle contraction in which individual twitches cannot be detected is called
A)unfused tetanus.
B)muscle atrophy.
C)flaccidity.
D)fused tetanus.
E)wave summation.
Q3) Biceps are predominantly composed of this type of muscle fiber.
A)slow oxidative
B)fast glycolytic
C)fast oxidative-glycolytic
D)slow glycolytic
E)fast oxidative
Q4) How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential?
Q5) Compare and contrast the structural characteristics of the three different types of muscular tissue.
Q6) What is the major difference between the two types of smooth muscle tissue?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lever is acted on at two different points by two different forces which are called the
A)fulcrum and resistance.
B)leverage and load.
C)lever and resistance.
D)effort and load.
E)lever and effort.
Q2) Which of the following is a muscle that moves the mandible?
A)orbicularis oculi
B)masseter
C)orbicularis oris
D)epicranius
E)frontalis
Q3) Which of the following muscles is used to flex and abduct the hand at the wrist joint?
A)flexor digitorum profundus
B)flexor digitorum superficialis
C)flexor carpi radialis
D)flexor carpi ulnaris
E)palmaris longus
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diffusion,enzymatic degradation,and uptake by cells are all ways to
A)remove a neurotransmitter
B)stop a spatial summation
C)continue a temporal summation
D)inhibit a presynaptic potential
E)excite a presynaptic potential
Q2) Which of the following are divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
A)Somatic nervous system
B)Autonomic nervous system
C)Enteric nervous system
D)All of these choices
Q3) Which of following organelles is a common site of protein synthesis in neurons?
A)mitochondria
B)nucleus
C)Nissl body
D)Golgi apparatus
E)nucleolus
Q4) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
Q5) List the three major factors that contribute to the creation of the resting membrane potential in excitable cells.
14
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of following is NOT a function of the spinal reflexes that use muscle spindles and tendon organs as sensors?
A)Awareness of muscle tension in body
B)Prevention of damage to muscles
C)Protection of spinal nerves
D)Prevention of damage to tendons
E)Maintenance of muscle tone
Q2) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q3) Describe the basic anatomy of a spinal nerve plexus.
Q4) Which of the following spinal nerves DOES NOT travel through an intervertebral foramen to reach its destination?
A)cervical spinal nerve 1
B)thoracic spinal nerve 12
C)lumbar spinal nerve 2
D)sacral spinal nerve 1
E)cervical spinal nerve 7
Q5) Name and describe the locations of the four major plexuses of spinal nerves.
Q6) The spinal cord does not extend the entire length of the vertebral column in an adult.Why?
Q7) Discuss the clinical significance of dermatomes.
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with damage in the left hemisphere often exhibit aphasia (inability to use or comprehend words).This is an example of A)apraxia.
B)delirium.
C)cerebral lacerations.
D)hemispheric lateralization.
E)decussations.
Q2) A deep indentation found along the medial plane that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres is called the A)septum pellucidum.
B)transverse fissure.
C)tentorium cerebelli.
D)corpus callosum.
E)longitudinal fissure.
Q3) Describe the structural and functional relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the longer lasting and more widespread effects observed with sympathetic activation versus parasympathetic activation?
A)Norepinephrine is more slowly removed from synapses than ACh.
B)Additional norepinephrine is released from the adrenal gland.
C)Greater divergence occurs in sympathetic neural pathways.
D)Blood flow to hypothalamus is decreased when sympathetic activation occurs.
Q2) Which of the following terms is used to designate an effector that is innervated by both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the ANS?
A)Preganglionic stimulation
B)Biganglion excitation
C)Multi-autonomic output
D)Bipolar innervation
E)Dual innervation
Q3) Patient with chronic skeletal muscle spasms was placed on an anticholinergic medication.After taking the medication,the patient's muscle spasms ceased,but now the patient reports a loss of muscle strength.In addition,the patient's resting heart rate has increased.Explain the effects of the medication the patient received.
Q4) Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response.
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main function of muscle spindles is
A)to sense tension applied to a tendon.
B)to sense referred pain.
C)to perceive cutaneous sensations.
D)to sense changes in muscle length.
E)to sense muscle fatigue.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a specialized sensory receptor cell that is known as a "separate cell"?
A)Meissner corpuscle
B)photoreceptor cell in retina
C)Pacinian corpuscle
D)hair root plexus
E)astrocyte
Q3) What layer of the skin contains the cold thermoreceptors?
A)Stratum lucidum
B)Dermis
C)Stratum basale
D)Stratum corneum
E)Hypodermis
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) This darkly pigmented structure reduces light reflection within the eyeball.
A)Sclera
B)Conjunctiva
C)Iris
D)Choroid
E)Retina
Q2) The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is
A)activation of amacrine cells.
B)absorption of scattered light by the pigmented epithelium.
C)interruption of the dark current.
D)absorption of light by photopigments.
E)generation of action potentials in the optic nerve.
Q3) During embryonic development,the external ear develops from a structure called the first
A)pharyngeal pouch.
B)pharyngeal cleft.
C)otic placodes.
D)otic vesicle.
E)rhombencephalon.
Q4) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood glucose-lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells?
A)Insulin
B)Glucagon
C)Somatostatin
D)Thyroid hormones
E)Calcitonin
Q2) What is a goiter? Explain how goiters can develop in both hyposecretion and hypersecretion disorders.In these hyposecretion and hypersecretion disorders,would you expect the levels of other regulatory hormones involved in control of thyroid hormone secretion to be high or low? Why?
Q3) All prostaglandins are derived from a 20-carbon precursor molecule called A)thromboxane.
B)intrinsic factor.
C)thymopoietin.
D)arachidonic acid.
E)cholesterol.
Q4) Enuresis,or bedwetting,may be caused by psychological,anatomical or physiological factors.In the latter case,vasopressin is often prescribed and is a very effective treatment.What is vasopressin? How can it prevent enuresis?
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is
A)4 to 5 years.
B)4 to 5 hours.
C)5 to 9 days.
D)120 days.
E)120 weeks.
Q2) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance?
A)Albumin
B)Globulins
C)Fibrinogen
D)Myoglobin
E)Hemoglobin
Q3) Which of the following formed elements in blood are removed by fixed macrophages in the spleen and liver after only 5 to 9 days in the circulation?
A)erythrocytes
B)thrombocytes
C)monocytes
D)basophils
E)eosinophils
Q4) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
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Q1) Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of structures that a cardiac action potential follows in order to excite normal contraction of the heart?
A)Bundle of His,Purkinje fibers,Atrioventricular (AV)node
B)Sinoatrial (SA)node,Purkinje fibers,AV node,Bundle of His
C)Purkinje fibers,AV node,SA node,Bundle of His
D)SA node,AV node,Bundle of His,Purkinje fibers
E)Bundle of His,SA node,AV node,Purkinje fibers
Q2) This pouch-like structure increases the total filling capacity of the atrium.
A)Ventricle
B)Coronary sulcus
C)Fossa ovalis
D)Interatrial septum
E)Auricle.
Q3) Contraction of the ventricles of the heart leads to blood moving directly
A)into arteries.
B)into capillaries.
C)into veins.
D)through an atrioventricular valve.
E)through the apex.
Q4) Define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias.
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Q1) Which of the following structures is used to control the flow of blood through a capillary bed?
A)thoroughfare channels
B)precapillary sphincters
C)postcapillary sphincters
D)venules
E)valves in veins
Q2) Elastic arteries function as
A)vasodilators.
B)conduits to the tissues of the trunk only.
C)barriers to microcirculation.
D)pressure reservoirs.
E)vasoconstrictors.
Q3) This type of shock is due to decreased blood volume.
A)Hypovolemic
B)Cardiogenic
C)Vascular
D)Obstructive
E)Neurogenic
Q4) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which induces the production of a specific antibody?
A)Phagocytosis
B)Antigen
C)Antibody
D)Defensin
E)Immunoglobulin
Q2) Which type of adaptive immunity will result from mother-to-baby IgA transfer via breast feeding?
A)naturally acquired active immunity
B)naturally acquired passive immunity
C)artificially acquired active immunity
D)artificially acquired passive immunity
E)None of these choices
Q3) Which organ produces a hormone that promotes maturation of T cells?
A)Spleen
B)Lymph node
C)Red bone marrow
D)Thymus
E)Pancreas
Q4) List the five actions of antibodies.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism.
Q2) Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid that functions to emulsify dietary fats?
A)Teeth
B)Salivary glands
C)Liver
D)Gallbladder
E)Pharynx
Q3) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts on glycogen and starches?
A)Chymotrypsin
B)Amylase
C)Trypsin
D)Phosphatase
E)Nucleosidase
Q4) This major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions.
A)Pancreatic duct
B)Hepatopancreatic duct
C)Cystic duct
D)Bile duct
E)Hepatic duct
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Metabolism
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Q1) This process is the synthesis of triglycerides.
A)Gluconeogensis
B)Lipogenesis
C)Phosphorylation
D)Glycolysis
E)Lipolysis
Q2) Excess amino acids in the body are
A)Excreted in urine
B)Excreted in feces
C)Converted into glucose
D)Stored as ATP
E)Converted into proteins
Q3) The net result of the complete oxidation of glucose does NOT include:
A)water
B)carbon dioxide
C)ATP
D)oxygen
E)waste heat
Q4) Briefly outline the possible fates of glucose in the body.
Q5) Identify the different types of lipoproteins and describe the function of each.
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Q1) What is the normal volume of urine produced in humans?
A)1L / hr
B)2L / day
C)2L / hr
D)3L / week
E)10L / 24 hours
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a way angiotensin II affects the kidneys?
A)It increases GFR
B)It can decrease GFR
C)It enhances reabsorption of certain ions
D)It stimulates the release of aldosterone
E)None of these choices
Q3) This transports urine from the kidney to the bladder.
A)Urethra
B)Ureter
C)Descending loop of Henle
D)Renal hilus
E)None of these choices
Q4) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.
Q5) Discuss the three main pressures that affect glomerular filtration.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) These cells secrete testosterone.
A)Sertoli cells
B)Spermatogenic cells
C)Leydig cells
D)Oogonia
E)Chief cells
Q2) The function of the epididymis is
A)Sperm maturation
B)Produce sperm
C)Spermatid storage
D)Provide nutrition to sperm
E)Absorption of calcium
Q3) What is produced by the ovaries?
A)Primary oocytes,insulin and estrogen
B)Secondary oocytes,progesterone and cortisol
C)Tertiary oocytes,insulin and estrogen
D)Secondary oocytes,estrogen and progesterone
E)Primary oocytes,estrogen and testosterone
Q4) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
Q5) Describe the positive feedback loop involved in ovulation.
28
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Chapter 27: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) Fertilization normally occurs within which structure?
A)Ovary
B)Fallopian tube
C)Ovarian ligament
D)Body of uterus
E)Vagina
Q2) In infants this connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava.
A)Ductus venosus
B)Ductus arteriosus
C)Anteriosum
D)Patent ductus arteriosus
E)Superior vena cava
Q3) This is a series of functional changes that sperm go through when they are in the female reproductive tract.
A)Acrosomal reaction
B)Maturation
C)Fertilization
D)Capacitation
E)Polyspermy
Q4) Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis.
Page 29
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