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https://quizplus.com/study-set/3176

Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology is an introductory course designed to provide students with foundational knowledge of the human body's structure and function, emphasizing systems relevant to nursing practice. The course covers the major anatomical systems including skeletal, muscular, cardiovascular, respiratory, nervous, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems while introducing core physiological processes that maintain homeostasis. Students will explore medical terminology, cell biology, tissue types, and organ system interactions, setting the groundwork for more advanced studies in nursing. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and case studies, learners gain practical skills essential for success in clinical settings and future healthcare coursework.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Anatomy and Physiology 7th Edition by Valerie C. Scanlon
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Q1) Which of these is NOT an organ?
A)stomach
B)protein
C)artery
D)lung
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of homeostasis? (Read carefully and select all of the correct statements.)
A)Changes outside the body often bring about changes inside the body.
B)Maintaining homeostasis is the same as maintaining good health.
C)For most aspects of body functioning (e.g.,pulse or blood pressure),only a single value is considered normal,therefore an indicator of homeostasis.
D)A positive feedback mechanism is one in which a body function is increased then decreased.
E)A negative feedback mechanism is one in which a body function is always decreased.
F)Only negative feedback mechanisms require external brakes,so that the body function will increase again.
Answer: A,B
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Q1) The function of DNA is to:
A)be the genetic code within cells
B)serve as the site of protein synthesis
C)both A and B
D)both A and B and form chromosomes
Answer: A
Q2) Heat may disrupt the functioning of an enzyme because:
A)human enzymes function only at 98.6<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
B)heat can break peptide bonds
C)water molecules are attracted to the enzyme and denature it
D)heat can break hydrogen bonds and denature the enzyme
Answer: D
Q3) Two minerals that provide strength in bones are ____________________ and ____________________.
Answer: calcium,phosphorus phosphorus,calcium
Q4) The mineral necessary for blood clotting is ____________________.
Answer: calcium
Q5) Carbonic acid is a ____________________ acid that will only slightly ____________________ ph.
Answer: weak,lower

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Q1) The process of facilitated diffusion is important to:
A)permit exchange of gases in the lungs
B)enable cells to take in water
C)enable most body cells to take in glucose
D)permit cells to secrete their products
Answer: C
Q2) The absorption of small particles by stationary cells is called:
A)phagocytosis
B)pinocytosis
C)active transport
D)filtration
Answer: B
Q3) The sodium pumps of nerve cells rely on the process of:
A)diffusion
B)facilitated diffusion
C)active transport
D)filtration
Answer: C
Q4) Mitochondria are cell organelles that are the site of ____________________.
Answer: cell respiration
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Q1) Two body tracts (systems)that are lined with mucous membrane are the ____________________ and the ____________________.
Q2) The myelin sheath of peripheral neurons is formed by ____ to provide ____ for neurons.
A)Schwann cells/electrical insulation
B)axons/neurotransmitters
C)Schwann cells/neurotransmitters
D)axons/electrical insulation
Q3) The surface area of the lining of the small intestine is increased by the presence of ____________________ on the lining cells.
Q4) The most important physical characteristic of the protein elastin is that it is ____________________.
Q5) The connective tissue that contains WBCs and is found between the skin and muscles is:
A)adipose tissue
B)areolar connective tissue
C)elastic connective tissue
D)fibrous connective tissue
Q6) The fluid that is a lubricant in the digestive tract is ____________________.
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Q1) The primary function of the stratum germinativum is:
A)osmosis
B)mitosis
C)absorption
D)protection
Q2) Which statement is NOT true of eccrine sweat glands?
A)They are activated only by external warmth.
B)They are numerous in the palms and soles.
C)Their secretory portions are coiled tubes.
D)Excessive sweating may lead to dehydration.
Q3) Drying of the skin and hair is prevented by:
A)serous fluid from serous glands
B)sebum from sebaceous glands
C)cerumen from ceruminous glands
D)sweat from apocrine glands
Q4) The new cells of the epidermis produce the protein ____________________.
Q5) The layer of the integumentary system that provides some insulation from cold is the ____________________.
Q6) The subcutaneous tissue layer is also called the ____________________.
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Q7) In a warm environment,the arterioles in the dermis will ____________________.

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Q1) Preventing friction in a joint cavity is the function of ____________________.
Q2) The sphenoid and ethmoid bones are among the bones of the:
A)arm
B)leg
C)vertebral column
D)skull
Q3) The sinus in the skull that does NOT provide resonance for the voice is the ____________________ sinus.
Q4) Calcium is needed in the blood for the process of ____________________.
Q5) The type of joint that does not permit movement is the ____________________.
Q6) Which nutrient is NOT paired with its correct function with respect to bone growth?
A)calcium - becomes part of bone matrix
B)phosphorus - becomes part of bone matrix
C)vitamin D - becomes part of bone matrix
D)vitamin C - needed for the formation of bone matrix
Q7) Two bones that contain paranasal sinuses are the ____________________ and ____________________.
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Q8) The hormone that provides energy for bone growth from all three food types is ____________________.

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Q1) The more stationary attachment of a muscle to a bone is called the ____________________.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the locations and functions of muscles? (Read carefully and select all of the correct statements.)
A)The masseter lowers the maxilla.
B)The gluteus maximus flexes the thigh.
C)The biceps brachii flexes the forearm.
D)The tibialis anterior extends the foot.
E)The orbicularis oris opens the mout
F)The external obliques help bend the vertebral column.
G)The hamstring group extends the thig
H)The trapezius raises the shoulder.
Q3) Within a sarcomere,the contracting proteins are:
A)myosin and actin
B)troponin and myosin
C)actin and troponin
D)myoglobin and myosin
Q4) During polarization,the muscle fiber has a ____________________ charge outside the membrane and a ____________________ charge inside.
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Q1) What happens in a flexor reflex?
A)A stretched muscle is flexed.
B)A stretched muscle will contract.
C)Part of the body pushes away from a painful stimulus.
D)Part of the body is pulled away from a painful stimulus.
Q2) Which part of the cerebrum is NOT paired with its correct function?
A)corpus callosum - connects the hemispheres
B)basal ganglia - accessory movements
C)frontal lobe - initiates voluntary movements
D)occipital lobe - motor speech area
Q3) Craniosacral is another name for the ____________________ division of the autonomic nervous system.
Q4) The number of pairs of spinal nerves,in order,from cervical down,is

Q5) In a cross-section of the spinal cord,the ____________________ matter is interior and is surrounded by the ____________________ matter.
Q6) The ____________________ lobes of the cerebrum contain the visual area.
Q7) The part of a reflex arc that detects a stimulus is the ____________________.
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Q1) The sclera of the eye:
A)is the middle layer of the eyeball
B)forms the white of the eye
C)both A and B
D)both A and B,and is made of elastic connective tissue
Q2) Constriction of the pupil,as in bright light,is brought about by the ____ nerves.
A)optic
B)oculomotor
C)sympathetic
D)trochlear
Q3) Tears contain ____________________ to inhibit the growth of bacteria.
Q4) For the sense of hunger,receptors are located in the ____________________ and the sensation is projected to the ____________________.
Q5) Which part of the eye is NOT paired with its correct function?
A)sclera - forms the white of the eye
B)choroid layer - contains the receptors
C)lacrimal glands - produce tears
D)ganglion neurons - form the optic nerve
Q6) The part of a sensory pathway that detects a change is the
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of thyroxine (and T<sub>3</sub>)and growth hormone (GH)? (Read carefully and select all of the correct statements.)
A)Thyroxine contains iodine and GH contains iron.
B)Thyroxine increases the use of all food types for energy.
C)GH increases the use of amino acids to produce energy.
D)Both hormones increase the rate of mitosis in growing tissues.
E)Both hormones increase the rate of protein synthesis in cells.
F)Thyroxine is secreted throughout life,but GH is secreted only when the body is growing in height.
Q2) The hormone that increases the use of all three food types for energy is ____________________ which is produced by the ____________________ gland.
Q3) The direct stimulus for secretion of insulin is ____________________.
Q4) Synthesis of thyroxine requires the mineral ____________________.
Q5) In men,the two hormones secreted by the testes are ____________________ and ____________________.
Q6) The hormone that dilates the bronchioles is ____________________.
Q7) The effect of oxytocin on the uterus is to cause ____________________ for ____________________.
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Q1) A count of 5.2 million cells per microliter of blood is within the normal range for ____________________.
Q2) The general stimulus for chemical clotting,even in an intact vessel,is a ____________________.
Q3) Which statement is NOT true of a person with type B negative blood?
A)The RBCs have B antigens.
B)The RBCs have no Rh antigen.
C)The plasma contains anti-B antibodies.
D)The plasma contains anti-A antibodies.
Q4) The kind of WBC that releases histamine during inflammation is the:
A)basophil
B)lymphocyte
C)eosinophil
D)neutrophil
Q5) Bilirubin is excreted by the ____ into bile,to be eliminated in ____.
A)kidneys/urine
B)liver/urine
C)kidneys/feces
D)liver/feces
Q6) The vitamin necessary for chemical clotting is ____________________.
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Q1) The walls of the chambers of the heart are formed by the ____________________.
Q2) Which of these does NOT happen following a sudden decrease in blood pressure to the brain?
A)Carotid pressoreceptors detect the drop in blood pressure.
B)Sensory impulses travel along the glossopharyngeal nerves to the medulla.
C)The inhibitory center of the medulla is activated.
D)Sympathetic impulses increase the heart rate.
Q3) The mitral valve prevents backflow of blood from the ____________________ to the ____________________.
Q4) The carotid sinus is strategically located to detect changes as the blood is on its way to the ____________________.
Q5) The response to a sudden drop in blood pressure is a rapid ____________________ in heart rate,brought about by ____________________nerve impulses.
Q6) The pulmonary artery takes blood from the:
A)left ventricle to the lungs
B)left ventricle to the body
C)right ventricle to the lungs
D)right ventricle to the body

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Q7) The ____________________ return blood from the lungs to the left atrium.
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Q1) In capillaries,nutrients are brought out into tissues by the process of
Q2) Arteries carry blood from:
A)capillaries to the heart
B)veins to capillaries
C)veins to the heart
D)the heart to capillaries
Q3) In fetal circulation,most blood bypasses the fetal lungs by way of the:
A)foramen ovale and ductus venosus
B)ductus venosus and umbilical vein
C)umbilical vein and ductus arteriosus
D)ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale
Q4) The flow of blood into a capillary network is regulated by a ____________________ which is made of ____________________ tissue.
Q5) Venous return is the amount of blood that is returned to the ____________________.
Q6) If venous return decreases,cardiac output will ____________________.
Q7) Renin is secreted by the ____________________ when blood pressure
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Q8) Capillaries are the site of ____________________ between the blood and tissues.
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Q1) Artificially acquired active immunity occurs when a person
Q2) An example of artificially acquired passive immunity is:
A)preformed antibodies to hepatitis B
B)tetanus immune globulin for someone with symptoms of tetanus
C)rabies immune globulin for someone bitten by a rabid raccoon
D)all of these
Q3) Which class of antibodies is especially important in mucous membranes?
A)IgA
B)IgG
C)IgE
D)IgM
Q4) The first exposure to a pathogen such as the chickenpox virus often results in disease because antibodies are produced ____________________ to prevent it.
Q5) In innate immunity,the function of interferon is to prevent the reproduction of ____________________ within cells.
Q6) The thoracic duct empties lymph into the ____________________ vein.
Q7) In adaptive immunity,when antibodies bond to bacteria,they may cause clumping,which is called ____________________.
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Q8) As a person reaches adulthood,the thymus gland ____________________ in size.
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Q1) The importance of the tissue fluid that lines the alveoli is that it:
A)prevents friction
B)permits sliding
C)decreases surface tension
D)permits diffusion of gases
Q2) Which of these is NOT a factor that increases the release of oxygen from hemoglobin?
A)low PO<sub>2</sub>
B)high PCO<sub>2</sub>
C)high PO<sub>2</sub>
D)high temperature
Q3) The function of the apneustic center is to ____________________.
Q4) The phrenic nerves carry motor impulses to the ____________________.
Q5) The trachea branches into the:
A)primary bronchi,one to each lung
B)secondary bronchi,one to each lung
C)primary bronchi,two right and one left
D)secondary bronchi,two right and one left
Q6) The function of the soft palate is to cover the ____________________ during
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Q1) The blood from the small intestine,with absorbed end products of digestion,circulates first to the ____________________ by way of the ____________________ vein.
Q2) The ____________________ prevents backup of feces from the colon to the small intestine.
Q3) The liver excretes bilirubin into ____________________ to be eliminated in ____________________.
Q4) The changing of food to simpler molecules is ____________________ digestion,and these simpler molecules can be ____________________ by the small intestine.
Q5) The part of gastric juice that begins the digestion of protein is ____________________.
Q6) The actions of pepsin and lipase are examples of ____________________ digestion.
Q7) The digestive function of the liver is the production of:
A)bile
B)albumin
C)lipase
D)cholesterol
Q8) The function of bicarbonate pancreatic juice is to neutralize the ____________________ that comes from the ____________________. Page 20
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Q1) The age group with the lowest average metabolic rate is the ____________________.
Q2) Which statement is NOT true of the use of food molecules in cell respiration?
A)Glycerol is changed to pyruvic acid and enters the Krebs cycle.
B)Fatty acids are changed to acetyl groups to enter the Krebs cycle.
C)Amino acids and fatty acids may be changed to ketones.
D)Glucose may be changed to ketones.
Q3) The hypothalamus is the thermostat of the body because it balances the responses of ____________________ and the responses of____________________.
Q4) In order to be used in cell respiration,fatty acid molecules are changed to:
A)glycerol
B)acetyl groups
C)glucose
D)amino groups
Q5) In a 24-hour period,an individual's body temperature normally fluctuates ____ degrees f.
A)0 to 0.5
B)0 to 1.0
C)1.0 to 4.0
D)1.0 to 2.0

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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of urine and waste products? (Read carefully and select all of the correct statements.)
A)The average pH range of normal urine is 2.5 to 10.5.
B)Glycosuria is the result of a low blood glucose level.
C)Ketonuria is the result of greater reliance on carbohydrates for energy.
D)Urea is a nitrogenous waste product that comes from the metabolism of nucleic acids.
E)Normal urine is often a straw color,and the lighter the color,the lower the specific gravity.
F)The average amount of urine voided per 24 hours is 0.5 to 3.5 liters.
G)If bacterial infection makes the glomeruli more permeable,both bacteruria and proteinuria may be consequences.
H)If kidney function decreases,the blood level of creatinine will increase.
Q2) The renal cortex is the:
A)outer layer of kidney tissue
B)cavity on the medial side of the kidney
C)inner layer of kidney tissue
D)cavity on the lateral side of the kidney
Q3) The female urethra is ____________________ to the vagina.
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Q1) The phosphate buffer system is important for the regulation of pH by the:
A)respiratory system
B)kidneys
C)brain
D)skeletal muscles
Q2) In intracellular fluid,the major cation is ____________________ and the major anion is ____________________.
Q3) The electrolytes that contribute to the normal functions of neurons are:
A)sodium and potassium
B)iodine
C)both A and B
D)both A and B and iron
Q4) The function of ANP is to:
A)increase sodium excretion by the kidneys
B)increase water reabsorption by the kidneys
C)both A and B
D)both A and B and decrease urinary output
Q5) Involuntary muscle contractions are signs of a pH imbalance with the body fluids becoming too ____________________.
Q6) By the process of filtration,blood plasma becomes ____________________.
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the ovaries and fallopian tubes? (Read carefully and select all of the correct statements.)
A)The fallopian tubes are lined with cilia that sweep the ovum toward the uterus.
B)An ovum begins meiosis in an ovarian follicle.
C)The paired ovaries are lateral to the uterus and medial to the fallopian tubes.
D)The wall of a fallopian tube has striated muscle to keep an ovum moving.
E)Fertilization usually takes place in a fallopian tubE.
F)After it releases a mature ovum,an ovarian follicle becomes a temporary endocrine gland called the corpus luteum.
Q2) The labia majora and minora are ____ to the urethral and vaginal orifices.
A)medial
B)lateral
C)proximal
D)distal
Q3) The menstrual cycle requires FSH and LH from the ____________________ gland,and estrogen and progesterone from the ____________________.
Q4) An average menstrual cycle is approximately ____________________ days.
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Q1) Genetics problem: Mom is homozygous for type A blood and Dad is homozygous for type B blood.The chance that their child will have type A blood is:
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)100%
Q2) Genetics problem: Mom is a carrier of red-green color blindness and Dad is red-green color-blind.What is the chance that their daughter will be a carrier?
A)0%
B)50%
C)75%
D)100%
Q3) A person's phenotype for a particular trait refers to the ____________________.
Q4) The yolk sac is the embryonic membrane that forms the first ____________________.
Q5) A person who is homozygous for a particular trait has two ____________________ genes for it.
Q6) Fertilization of an ovum usually takes place in the ____________________.
Q7) A gene is the genetic code for ____________________.
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Q1) A chemical that is used to destroy bacteria on the skin is called:
A)a cleansing agent
B)an antiseptic
C)a disinfectant
D)a sterilizing agent
Q2) A person who recovers from a disease but continues to shed the pathogen is called:
A)an alternate host
B)a zoonotic host
C)a carrier
D)a transmitter
Q3) Microorganisms that are on or in nearly everyone most of the time are called
Q4) Bacterial chemicals that are harmful to the cells of the host are called
Q5) A superficial mycosis affects the:
A)skin
B)mucous membranes
C)both of these
D)neither of these
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