Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology is an introductory course designed to provide foundational knowledge of the human bodys structure and function, specifically tailored for students entering nursing programs. The course covers key principles of anatomy and physiology, including the organization of the body, major tissue types, and the structure and function of organ systems such as the circulatory, respiratory, nervous, and musculoskeletal systems. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of these concepts to clinical practice, basic medical terminology, homeostasis, and understanding normal versus altered physiological states. This course prepares students for advanced coursework in nursing by developing critical thinking skills and foundational scientific knowledge essential for patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organs is described as retroperitoneal?
A) stomach
B) kidney
C) urinary bladder
D) large intestine
E) spleen
Answer: B
Q2) A cell or an organ that responds to commands of the control center in negative feedback is termed a(n)
A) receptor.
B) thermoregulator.
C) hypothalamus.
D) effector.
E) stimulus.
Answer: D
Q3) Name the two upper abdominal quadrants and list the organs that lie in each.
Answer: right upper quadrant (RUQ): right lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portions of stomach, large and small intestines; left upper quadrant (LUQ): left lobe of liver, stomach, pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portions of large intestine
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy of motion is
A) kinetic energy.
B) heat energy.
C) light energy.
D) potential energy.
E) dark energy.
Answer: A
Q2) If the pH of the stomach is 2 what is the [H+]?
A) 1X10-2 mol/L
B) .2 mol/L
C) 200 mol/L
D) 2 mol/L
E) .10 mol/L
Answer: A
Q3) How does the DNA molecule control the appearance and function of a cell?
Answer: The DNA molecule controls the synthesis of enzymes and structural proteins. By controlling the synthesis of structural proteins, the DNA is able to influence the physical appearance of a cell. By controlling the production of enzymes, the DNA is able to control all aspects of cellular metabolism and thus control the activity and biological functions of the cell.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Special cells called ________ cells maintain tissues by unending cycles of cell division.
A) cytogenic
B) mother
C) stem
D) root
E) omnipotent
Answer: C
Q2) Embryonic stem cells might be used to replace neurons lost in Parkinson's Disease because
A) they are readily available.
B) they divide quickly.
C) they are young and vigorous.
D) they have not yet differentiated.
E) they are taken from the brain of the embryo.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ are proteins that connect adjacent cells at a gap junction.
A) Bindins
B) Adhesions
C) Connexins
D) Attachons
E) Tieons
Q2) You would find pseudostratified columnar epithelium lining the A) trachea.
B) urinary bladder.
C) secretory portions of the pancreas.
D) surface of the skin.
E) stomach.
Q3) The function of ________ is to propagate electrical signals from one place to another.
A) muscle cells
B) neurons
C) transmitter cells
D) teleocytes
E) neuroglia
Q4) Which is likely to heal faster, a bone injury or a cartilage injury? Why?
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two components of the integumentary system are the
A) epidermis and dermis.
B) cutaneous membrane and hypodermis.
C) cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.
D) integument and hypodermis.
E) epidermis and superficial fascia.
Q2) The layer of epidermis where most cells have stopped dividing and started making large amounts of keratin is the
A) stratum spinosum.
B) stratum corneum.
C) stratum granulosum.
D) stratum lucidum.
E) stratum basale.
Q3) The cutaneous plexus is
A) a network of nerves in the cutaneous membrane.
B) a superficial network of dermal arteries.
C) a deep network of dermal arteries along the boundary of the reticular layer.
D) a neural plexus responsible for deep pressure.
E) a network of arteries in the epidermis.
Q4) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary ossification centers occur
A) in the diaphysis.
B) at the periosteum.
C) in the epiphyses.
D) in the metaphyses.
E) in dermal bones.
Q2) Of the total organic components in bone most of it is
A) collagen.
B) keratin.
C) keratohyalin.
D) elastin.
E) actin.
Q3) Which of following is/are produced from the monocyte stem cells?
A) osteoblasts
B) osteoclasts
C) osteocytes
D) osteoprogenitor cells
E) osteogenic cells
Q4) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.
Q5) What is the difference between ossification and calcification?
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ bone is unusual because it doesn't contact another bone.
A) vomer
B) lacrimal
C) hyoid
D) atlas
E) ethmoid
Q2) While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal bone by a wild pitch. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have?
A) a sore jaw
B) a black eye
C) a headache
D) a sore chest
E) a sore back
Q3) Ribs 8 to 12 are called ________ because they do not attach directly to the sternum.
A) free
B) false
C) floating
D) fibrous
E) filamentous
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the
A) skull.
B) pelvis.
C) sacrum.
D) teeth.
E) thoracic cage.
Q2) A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet.
A) larger
B) longer
C) narrower
D) wider
E) deeper
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "9."
A) olecranon process
B) medial epicondyle
C) lateral epicondyle
D) greater tubercle
E) trochlea
Q4) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a type of synovial joint?
A) gliding
B) hinge
C) pivot
D) symphysis
E) condylar
Q2) Structurally, the pubic symphysis is classified as a ________ articulation.
A) cartilaginous
B) bony
C) synovial
D) fibrous
E) diarthrotic
Q3) What structure covers the bony surfaces of a synovial joint to prevent the surfaces from touching? (Figure 9-1)
A) fibrous joint capsule
B) synovial membrane
C) articular cartilage
D) elastic cartilage
E) meniscus
Q4) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the myofibril the protein that possesses the active site for myosin heads to bind is called
A) titin.
B) actin.
C) G actin.
D) nebulin.
E) myosin.
Q2) At rest, the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by A) actin molecules.
B) myosin molecules.
C) troponin molecules.
D) ATP molecules.
E) calcium ions.
Q3) To produce a contraction similar to the one in graph (b), the muscle
A) must be stimulated to the point of fatigue.
B) must be stimulated again before it has relaxed from the previous stimulation.
C) is excited by a stimulus of increasing intensity.
D) must go through a rapid series of isolated twitches.
E) generates more and more thin and thick filaments.
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The infraspinatus has its insertion on the
A) greater tubercle of the humerus.
B) tuberosity of the radius.
C) lesser tubercle and intertubercular groove of the humerus.
D) clavicle and scapula.
E) vertebral border near the spine.
Q2) Six muscles control eye movement. How many of these muscles can you see from the lateral surface and howmany can you see from the medial surface, respectively? (Figure 11-6)
A) 2; 4
B) 4; 2
C) 4; 4
D) 5; 5
E) 1; 6
Q3) Identify the muscle labeled "12."
A) soleus
B) gastrocnemius
C) sartorius
D) tibialis posterior
E) peroneus longus
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is
A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) calcium.
D) chloride.
E) magnesium.
Q2) The sum of the electrical and chemical forces acting on an ion is known as its
A) permeability gradient.
B) thermodynamic difference.
C) electrochemical gradient.
D) action potential.
E) summation difference.
Q3) The equilibrium potential of potassium is
A) -90mV.
B) -65mV.
C) -70mV.
D) +30mV.
E) +66mV.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spinal cord continues to elongate until about age
A) 20 years.
B) 10 years.
C) 4 years.
D) 6 months.
E) 2 months.
Q2) The specific strip of skin that is innervated by a specific spinal nerve is called a A) root.
B) ramus.
C) trunk.
D) ganglion.
E) dermatome.
Q3) What is the function of the structure labeled "11"?
A) somatic motor control
B) somatic sensory receiving
C) visceral sensory receiving
D) visceral motor control
E) ascending pathway
Q4) What is a reflex arc? What components must be present to qualify?
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The system that functions in tying together emotions, motivation and memory is the
A) reticular activating system.
B) circadian system.
C) limbic system.
D) hypothalamic system.
E) apneustic system.
Q2) The ________ are the four masses on the posterior of the midbrain.
A) cerebral peduncles
B) reticular formation
C) substantia nigra
D) choroid plexuses
E) corpora quadrigemina
Q3) Damage to the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe would interfere with the ability to
A) understand written words.
B) understand spoken words.
C) understand visual images.
D) play the piano.
E) sense the texture of velvet.
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16
Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area of the motor cortex that is devoted to a particular region of the body is proportional to the
A) size of the body area.
B) distance of the body area from the brain.
C) number of motor units in that region.
D) number of sensory receptors in the area of the body.
E) size of the nerves that serve the area of the body.
Q2) The motor homunculus shows larger structures in areas of the body that
A) have more surface area.
B) have more sensory receptors.
C) have bigger skeletal muscles.
D) are highly sensitive.
E) have more motor units.
Q3) What occurs in this neural pathway at label "3"?
A) synapse
B) communication between sensory and motor neurons
C) amplification of motor signals
D) decussation
E) autonomic reflexes
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ganglia located lateral to the vertebral column are part of the sympathetic A) chain.
B) tract.
C) decussation.
D) tubes.
E) canal.
Q2) Which of the following is correctly matched?
A) sympathetic: short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers
B) sympathetic: short preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers
C) sympathetic: long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers
D) parasympathetic: short preganglion and long postganglionic fibers
E) parasympathetic: contains only preganglionic fibers
Q3) What effect would cutting the vagus nerve branch that innervates the stomach have on gastric function?
Q4) Identify the round structure labeled "3."
A) dorsal root ganglion
B) spinal nerve
C) chain ganglion
D) intramural ganglion
E) rami communicantes
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its basic shape is the A) vitreous humor.
B) aqueous humor.
C) ora serrata.
D) perilymph.
E) posterior cavity.
Q2) The part of the eye that determines eye color is the A) conjunctiva.
B) cornea.
C) iris.
D) pupil.
E) scleral venous sinus.
Q3) A young child has been diagnosed with a recessive hereditary disease that results in destruction of thelateral geniculate body. The result of this would be
A) inability to change the focus with your lens.
B) excessive light bouncing around within the posterior portion of the eyeball.
C) total blindness.
D) no production of rhodopsin.
E) partial loss of vision.
Q4) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type II diabetes is characterized by
A) a lack of response by target cells to insulin.
B) a decrease in secretion by pancreatic beta cells.
C) excessive secretion of glucagon.
D) inadequate insulin production.
E) low blood-glucose concentration.
Q2) The anterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the A) basal ganglion.
B) infundibulum.
C) adenohypophysis.
D) mesencephalon.
E) neurohypophysis.
Q3) When adenyl cyclase is activated,
A) ATP is consumed.
B) cAMP is formed.
C) cAMP is broken down.
D) ATP is produced.
E) ATP is consumed and cAMP is formed.
Q4) What does it mean to say that the pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine organ?
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced.
A) Polycythemia
B) Leukemia
C) Anemia
D) Leukopenia
E) Thrombocytopenia
Q2) The common pathway of coagulation begins with the
A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.
C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.
D) activation of Factor X and production of prothrombin activator.
E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
Q3) The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are
A) globulins.
B) transport proteins.
C) albumins.
D) lipoproteins.
E) fibrinogens.
Q4) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle is called
A) depolarization.
B) systole.
C) diastole.
D) hyperpolarization.
E) asystole.
Q2) Which of the following would cause stroke volume to increase?
A) when venous return is decreased
B) when ventricular contraction is reduced
C) drugs that stimulate beta-1 receptors
D) decrease in heart rate
E) decreased sympathetic stimulation
Q3) Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show all of the following except
A) a switch to anaerobic metabolism.
B) release of enzymes into the circulation.
C) release of troponin T and I into the circulation.
D) release of CK-MB into the circulation.
E) an increase in metabolic activity.
Q4) Adoctor tells her nursing students that it is important to monitor patients' blood pressure when they are receiving verapamil (a calcium channel blocker). Why?
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to arteries, veins
A) are rounder in a sectional cut.
B) have more smooth muscle in their tunica media.
C) have a pleated endothelium.
D) have thinner walls.
E) hold their shape better when cut.
Q2) Ovaries and testes receive a blood supply from the ________ arteries.
A) gonadal
B) reproductive
C) pelvic
D) pubic
E) internal iliac
Q3) Blood pressure is lowest in the A) arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) venules.
E) veins.
Q4) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary lymphoid tissues include
A) the bone marrow.
B) the thymus.
C) the bone marrow and thymus.
D) the lymph nodes and tonsils.
E) the bone marrow, thymus, spleen and lymph nodes.
Q2) Each IgG has ________ binding sites for attachment to antigenic determinants.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) up to 8
E) as many as a 1000
Q3) Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity.
A) naturally acquired active
B) naturally acquired passive
C) artificially acquired active
D) artificially acquired passive
E) innate
Q4) List and briefly describe the four general properties of adaptive immunity.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the
A) upper respiratory tract.
B) lower respiratory tract.
C) lungs.
D) alveoli.
E) bronchioles.
Q2) Which of these factors does not affect hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?
A) RBC metabolic activity
B) temperature
C) electrolyte balance
D) the PO2 of blood
E) blood pH
Q3) When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract,
A) the volume of the thorax increases.
B) the volume of the thorax decreases.
C) the volume of the lungs decreases.
D) the lungs shrink.
E) expiration occurs.
Q4) What is hypercapnia? How does it affect respiration? What are common causes?
Q5) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater omentum is
A) the entrance to the stomach.
B) attached to the stomach at the lesser curvature.
C) important in the digestion of fats.
D) a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.
E) a sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver.
Q2) The mesocolon is
A) a section of the large intestines between the sigmoid colon and the rectum.
B) a thick mesenteric sheet associated with the small intestines.
C) a ligament that suspends the liver from the diaphragm.
D) a serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity.
E) a mesentery associated with a portion of the large intestine.
Q3) Which of the following is not a lobe of the liver?
A) left
B) right
C) quadrate
D) caudate
E) sigmoid
Q4) Describe the three phases of gastric regulation. Be sure to include the appropriate local, neural and hormonal responses for each phase.
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the molecule labeled "7"?
A) hydrogen atoms
B) citric acid
C) 4 carbon molecule
D) NADH
E) FADH2
Q2) The process of synthesizing glucose from noncarbohydrates is called
A) glycolysis.
B) gluconeogenesis.
C) cellular respiration.
D) glycemia.
E) glycogenesis.
Q3) Following a meal, the absorptive state lasts approximately
A) 30 minutes.
B) 2 hours.
C) 4 hours.
D) 8 hours.
E) 12 hours.
Q4) What happens during protein catabolism? How is this related to nitrogen balance?
Q5) List and briefly describe the body's five metabolic components.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The functional units of kidneys where blood is filtered and urine produced are called A) pyramids.
B) nephrons.
C) calyces.
D) lobules.
E) lobes.
Q2) When the level of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) decreases, A) a concentrated urine is produced.
B) less urine is produced.
C) the osmolarity of the urine decreases.
D) permeability to water in the collecting system increases.
E) water reabsorption increases in the nephron loop.
Q3) Each of the following organ systems excretes wastes to some degree except the ________ system.
A) urinary
B) integumentary
C) digestive
D) endocrine
E) respiratory
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe kidney damage, such as glomerulonephritis, often leads to
A) acute respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
E) chronic respiratory acidosis.
Q2) In an adult female, the body consists of about ________ percent water.
A) 60
B) 50
C) 40
D) 70
E) 80
Q3) Calcium reabsorption by the kidneys is promoted by the hormone
A) calcitonin.
B) parathyroid hormone.
C) aldosterone.
D) cortisol.
E) ADH.
Q4) Why does potassium concentration rise in patients with acidosis? What is this called? What effects does it have?
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "12."
A) prostatic urethra
B) ejaculatory duct
C) ductus deferens
D) vas deferens
E) membranous urethra
Q2) Explain how estrogen and progesterone control each phase of the uterine cycle.
Q3) Imagine that a seven-year-old girl develops a hormone-secreting ovarian tumor derived from granulosa cells.What signs of the disease would you expect?
Q4) Identify the structure labeled "11."
A) bulbo-urethral gland
B) prostate gland
C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle)
D) epididymis
E) ductus deferens
Q5) Which erectile tissue is split into two cylindrical masses that surround a central artery? Which erectiletissue surrounds the urethra? (Figure 28-7)
A) corpus spongiosum; corpora cavernosa
B) corpora cavernosa; corpus spongiosum
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) During the second trimester, the mesoderm on the outer surface of the amnion contacts the mesoderm on the inner surface of the chorion and fuse to form the ________ membrane.
A) cervical
B) syncytial
C) amniochorionic
D) embryonic
E) umbilical
Q2) In polygenic inheritance, phenotypic characters are
A) determined by a double pair of alleles.
B) determined by interactions among several genes.
C) determined by multiple copies of a single gene.
D) always controlled by genes on the same chromosome.
E) determined by the genes on the Y chromosome.
Q3) Polyspermy results in
A) twins.
B) fetuses with different fathers.
C) haploid individuals.
D) chimeric adults.
E) a nonfunctional zygote.
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