Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Pre-Nursing Anatomy and Physiology is an introductory course that provides foundational knowledge of the structure and function of the human body, emphasizing systems most relevant to nursing practice. Students will explore the major organ systems, including the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, nervous, and urinary systems, as well as the basics of cell biology and tissue structure. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical demonstrations, this course prepares students for more advanced studies in nursing by fostering an understanding of how body systems interact to maintain health and respond to disease.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin
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2
Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principal theory of how evolution works is called __________.
A) natural pressure
B) selective pressure
C) darwinian pressure
D) natural adaptation
E) natural selection
Answer: E
Q2) During exercise,one generates excess heat and the body temperature rises.As a response,blood vessels dilate in the skin,warm blood flows closer to the body surface,and heat is lost.This is an example of __________.
A) negative feedback
B) positive feedback
C) dynamic equilibrium
D) integration control
E) set point adjustment
Answer: A
Q3) A molecule of water is more complex than a mitochondrion (organelle).
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) When table salt,sodium chloride (NaCl),is placed in water __________.
A) Na<sup>+</sup> and Cl<sup>-</sup> form ionic bonds with each other
B) Na<sup>+</sup> and Cl<sup>-</sup> form polar covalent bonds with each other
C) Na<sup>+</sup> and Cl<sup>-</sup> form hydrogen bonds with water
D) Ionic bonds between Na<sup>+</sup> and Cl<sup>-</sup> are broken
E) Na<sup>+</sup> and Cl<sup>-</sup> become separated by their Van der Waals forces
Answer: D
Q2) Which of these is the most appropriate to express the number of molecules per volume?
A) Molarity
B) Volume
C) Percentage
D) Weight per volume
E) Milliequivalents per liter
Answer: A
Q3) Minerals are organic elements extracted from the soil by plants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plasma membrane is mostly made of molecules that have hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails.These molecules are called _________.
A) proteoglycans
B) glycolipids
C) glycoproteins
D) phospholipids
E) lipoproteins
Answer: D
Q2) _________ decompose fatty acids,and detoxify alcohol,free radicals,and drugs.
A) Lysosomes
B) Microvilli
C) Inclusions
D) Peroxisomes
E) Golgi vesicles
Answer: D
Q3) A crystal of calcium phosphate in the cytoplasm of a cell should be classified as an inclusion.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these processes occurs during a cell's first gap (G<sub>1</sub>)phase?
A) DNA is semiconservatively replicated.
B) The nuclear envelope breaks down.
C) The cell synthesizes the enzymes that control mitosis.
D) The cell synthesizes proteins and grows.
E) The chromatin condenses into visible chromosomes.
Q2) Copying genetic information from DNA into RNA is called __________;using the information contained in mRNA to make a polypeptide is called __________.
A) transcription;translation
B) translation;transcription
C) DNA replication;translation
D) DNA duplication;transcription
E) DNA translation;RNA transcription
Q3) Although all cells synthesize phospholipids,there are no genes for phospholipids.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A cell starting prophase has 92 molecules of DNA in its nucleus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Histology
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Q1) Fibroblasts and protein fibers are associated with both __________ and __________.
A) dense regular;dense irregular connective tissues
B) plasma;formed elements
C) elastic cartilage;hyaline cartilage
D) spongy bone;compact (dense)bone
E) adipose tissue;reticular tissue
Q2) All cells in _______ epithelium reach the basement membrane,but only cells that reach the free surface have cilia.
A) pseudostratified columnar
B) simple columnar
C) stratified columnar
D) stratified cuboidal
E) stratified squamous
Q3) Skeletal muscle is described as __________.
A) striated and voluntary
B) striated and involuntary
C) nonstriated and voluntary
D) nonstriated and involuntary
E) fibrous and containing ground substance
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are associated with the sense of touch?
A) Fibroblasts
B) Melanocytes
C) Keratinocytes
D) Dendritic cells
E) Tactile cells
Q2) The most immediate threat to the life of a patient with severe burns is
A) fluid loss
B) eschar
C) heat loss
D) pain
E) infection
Q3) A __________ is an elevated patch of melanized skin.
A) hemangioma
B) mole
C) freckle
D) flexion line
E) friction ridge
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The expanded head at each end of a long bone is called the __________.
A) epiphysis
B) diaphysis
C) articular cartilage
D) periosteum
E) endosteum
Q2) Bones,cartilage,and ligaments are tissues and organs of the skeletal system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A break in a bone that is already weakened by some other disease is called a(n)__________ fracture.
A) greenstick
B) open
C) closed
D) pathologic
E) displaced
Q4) A vertebra is considered a long bone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not found on a typical vertebra?
A) Spinous process
B) Transverse processes
C) Vertebral head
D) Vertebral foramen
E) Vertebral body
Q2) Any bony prominence is called a(n)___________.
A) epicondyle
B) tubercle
C) fossa
D) head
E) process
Q3) The acromion is an anatomical feature of the __________.
A) clavicle
B) scapula
C) ulna
D) scaphoid
E) pollex
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Symphyses are the most common type of fibrous joints.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The joint between the first costal cartilage and the sternum,is a __________,whereas the other costal cartilages are joined to the sternum by __________ joints.
A) syndesmosis;synovial
B) synchondrosis;synovial
C) synostosis;cartilaginous
D) synarthrosis;cartilaginous
E) symphysis;cartilaginous
Q3) Suppose you cup your hands to hold some water.To limit the amount of leaking through your hands,this action would most likely require __________.
A) pronation of the forearm
B) circumduction of the wrists
C) opposition of the thumb
D) abduction of the fingers
E) adduction of the fingers
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11
Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A baseball pitcher who injures one of his SITS muscles most commonly sustains tears to the tendon of which muscle?
A) Supraspinatus
B) Infraspinatus
C) Teres minor
D) Subscapularis
E) Deltoid
Q2) Which of the following muscles adducts and medially rotates the thigh?
A) Gracilis
B) Piriformis
C) Adductor magnus
D) Rectus femoris
E) Sartorius
Q3) A point of convergence for several muscles of the lower face is the __________.
A) retinaculum
B) aponeurotica
C) modiolus
D) nuchal line
E) galea
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle type depends solely on the sarcoplasmic reticulum as its calcium source?
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Smooth muscle
C) Cardiac muscle
D) Skeletal and smooth muscle
E) Smooth and cardiac muscle
Q2) Which fibers are primarily responsible for producing lactate?
A) Type I slow oxidative fibers
B) Type IIA intermediate glycolytic fibers
C) Type IIB fast glycolytic fibers
D) Type I slow-twitch fibers
E) Red fibers
Q3) Some smooth muscle is autorhythmic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sarcoplasmic reticulum is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Accumulation of Ca<sup>2+</sup> in the axon terminal is called __________,and probably plays an important role in __________.
A) synaptic facilitation;short-term memory
B) neural coding;immediate memory
C) postsynaptic potential;long-term memory
D) neural coding;short-term memory
E) long-term potentiation;long-term memory
Q2) A traveling wave of excitation is known as a(n)__________.
A) local potential
B) graded potential
C) action potential
D) nerve signal
E) depolarizing signal
Q3) Nerves are __________ of the nervous system.
A) organs
B) tissues
C) organ systems
D) organelles
E) cells
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fractures would be the least likely to cause a spinal cord injury?
A) A fracture of vertebra C2
B) A fracture of vertebra C6
C) A fracture of vertebra T5
D) A fracture of vertebra T12
E) A fracture of vertebra L4
Q2) The middle layer of the meninges is called the __________.
A) gray matter
B) white matter
C) dura mater
D) arachnoid mater
E) pia mater
Q3) Posterior root ganglia contain neurosomas of unipolar neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most nerves are motor nerves.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Structures in the midbrain control homeostasis and relay sensory signals to specific regions of the cerebral cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Injury to the reticular formation can result in which of the following?
A) Irreversible coma
B) Hypertension
C) Parkinson disease
D) Alzheimer disease
Q3) The blood-brain barrier (BBB)helps prevent hemorrhages in the nervous tissue of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Short-term memory is associated with the __________,whereas long-term memory is associated with the __________.
A) cerebral cortex;hippocampus
B) hippocampus;cerebral cortex
C) cerebral cortex;amygdala
D) amygdala;hippocampus
E) hippocampus;midbrain
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Q1) A possible explanation for the effect of caffeine is that it blocks the receptor for a neuromodulator in the brain called __________,which inhibits ACh release by cholinergic neurons.
A) glycine
B) dopamine
C) serotonin
D) melatonin
E) adenosine
Q2) __________ is an example of the cooperative effect between the two autonomic nervous system divisions.
A) Orgasm
B) Bronchodilation
C) Gastrointestinal secretion
D) Heart rate
E) Vasomotor tone
Q3) All sympathetic postganglionic adrenergic fibers secrete adrenaline.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures houses the spiral organ?
A) Cochlea
B) Vestibule
C) Semicircular duct
D) Stapes
E) Tympanic cavity
Q2) Which of the following is not involved with spinal gating of pain signals?
A) Nociceptors
B) The spinothalamic tract
C) Lower motor neurons
D) Second-order neurons
E) The reticulospinal tract
Q3) What is a sensation?
A) A response of a sensory receptor
B) A response of a sensory organ
C) A subjective awareness of a stimulus
D) An unconscious response to a stimulus
E) A response to any conscious stimulus
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18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both the thymus and the pineal gland shrink after childhood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome (stress response),stress overwhelms homeostasis.One characteristic of this stage is that
A) glycogen supplies are depleted
B) energy demands are met primarily by fat metabolism
C) fermentation is not enough to provide the necessary ATP
D) energy demands are met primarily by protein metabolism
E) energy demands are met primarily by carbohydrate metabolism
Q3) The hypophyseal portal system connects the _________ with the _________.
A) anterior pituitary;hypothalamus
B) posterior pituitary;hypothalamus
C) anterior pituitary;posterior pituitary
D) hypothalamus;thyroid
E) pituitary glands;thyroid
Q4) Cholesterol is essential for the synthesis of steroid hormones.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Q1) An increased erythropoietin (EPO)output by the kidneys would lead to all of the following except __________.
A) increased hypoxemia
B) increased blood osmolarity
C) increased RBC production
D) increased blood viscosity
E) increased hematocrit
Q2) Lymphoid hemopoiesis occurs mainly in the bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to different parts of hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Clotting deficiency can result from thrombocytopenia or hemophilia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hemostasis is the production of formed elements of blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plateau in the action potential of cardiac muscle results from the action of
A) Na<sup>+</sup> inflow
B) K<sup>+</sup> inflow
C) K<sup>+</sup> outflow
D) fast Ca<sup>2+</sup> channels
E) slow Ca<sup>2+</sup> channels
Q2) The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called the
A) cardiac reserve
B) preload
C) afterload
D) stroke volume
E) cardiac output
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the cardiac conduction system?
A) Sinoatrial (SA)node
B) Tendinous cords
C) Atrioventricular (AV)node
D) Atrioventricular (AV)bundle (bundle of His)
E) Subendothelial conducting network
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) What is the path of blood flow from the heart to the lung tissues and back to the heart?
A) Left ventricle aorta brachiocephalic artery lung tissues bronchial veins brachiocephalic vein superior vena cava right atrium
B) Right ventricle pulmonary trunk pulmonary arteries lung tissues pulmonary veins left atrium
C) Right ventricle brachiocephalic arteries lung tissues brachiocephalic veins inferior vena cava left atrium
D) Left ventricle aorta bronchial arteries lung tissues bronchial veins azygos vein superior vena cava right atrium
Q2) Lung tissue receives nourishment and waste removal from the pulmonary circuit. A)True B)False
Q3) Blood filtered through the hepatic sinusoids exits the liver via the hepatic veins. A)True B)False
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) Interleukins are chemical signals by which immune cells communicate with each other.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The immune system spans nearly every organ and tissue in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) T cells undergo positive selection in the thymus,which means they __________.
A) react against self antigens
B) develop surface antigen receptors
C) remain alive but unresponsive
D) die and macrophages phagocytize them
E) multiply and form clones of identical T cells
Q4) The only lymphatic organ(s)with afferent lymphatic vessels is(are)the
A) lymph nodes
B) thymus
C) spleen
D) red bone marrow
E) tonsils
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anatomical dead space is greatest in which of the following situations?
A) After eating a large meal
B) After swerving to narrowly avoid an accident while driving
C) After waking up from a long nap
D) After watching TV for an hour
Q2) The expansion of the lungs during inspiration generates a pressure gradient causing air to flow into the lungs.This is an example of Boyle's law.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mucus plays an important role in cleansing inhaled air.It is produced by __________ of the respiratory tract.
A) squamous alveolar cells
B) great alveolar cells
C) the pleurae
D) ciliated cells
E) goblet cells
Q4) Respiratory arrest is an irreversible condition.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Q1) Diseases that affect the descending corticospinal tracts may limit inhibition of the sacral somatic motor neurons and thus could result in urinary incontinence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because of the great deal of active transport that occurs here,the __________ of one's nephrons collectively account for about 6% of one's daily resting ATP and caloric consumption.
A) proximal convoluted tubules
B) distal convoluted tubules
C) loops of Henle
D) collecting ducts
E) glomeruli
Q3) Total saturation of protein transporters for a given solute in the renal tubules would result in __________.
A) reabsorption of all the solute
B) a renal clearance of zero
C) a net filtration pressure of 1.0
D) appearance of that solute in the urine
E) absence of that solute from the urine
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Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Q1) The kidneys secrete ADH in response to dehydration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hypovolemia refers to a reduction in total body water while maintaining normal osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where is the greatest volume of water in the body found?
A) Intracellular fluid (ICF)
B) Extracellular fluid(ECF)
C) Tissue(interstitial)fluid
D) Blood plasma and lymph
E) Transcellular fluid
Q4) Ina state of fluid balance, average daily fluid gains and losses are equal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Blood plasma osmolarity is higher than intracellular fluid osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Q1) The muscle tone of the __________ along the colon contracts it lengthwise,causing its walls to bulge and form pouches called __________.
A) circular folds;ceca
B) taeniae coli;haustra
C) haustra;taeniae coli
D) internal sphincters;omental (epiploic)appendages
E) internal sphincters;ceca
Q2) Most fat is digested by pancreatic lipase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of chemical digestion is the break down of __________ into __________.
A) proteins;nucleotides
B) amino acids;proteins
C) polysaccharides;amino acids
D) nucleic acids;nucleotides
E) fatty acids;cholesterol
Q4) All chemical digestion is essentially just hydrolysis reactions.
A)True
B)False
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding body temperature?
A) Oral temperature is a good way to estimate core temperature.
B) Adult oral temperature is typically 36.6° to 37.0°C.
C) Body temperature is highest in the afternoon.
D) Organs in the spinal cavity are at the shell temperature.
Q2) Fatty acids are catabolized through which process?
A) Beta oxidation
B) Ketogenesis
C) Lipogenesis
D) Lipolysis
E) The fat-sparing effect
Q3) During periods of fasting,why is fat said to have a protein-sparing effect?
A) The body oxidizes its spare protein before it depletes its fat reserves.
B) The body metabolizes fats and proteins through the same metabolic pathways.
C) The body must have an adequate fat intake in order to absorb and metabolize proteins.
D) The body must have an adequate protein intake in order to absorb and metabolize fats.
E) The body does not oxidize its proteins unless it has consumed its fat reserves first.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Men have only one __________.
A) bulbourethral gland
B) prostate
C) ejaculatory duct
D) seminal vesicle
E) corpus cavernosum
Q2) __________ stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to secrete __________.
A) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH);LH
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH);androgen-binding protein (ABP)
C) Luteinizing hormone (LH);androgen-binding protein (ABP)
D) Luteinizing hormone (LH);testosterone
E) Luteinizing hormone (LH);estrogen
Q3) The scrotum contains the testes and spermatic cords.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Testosterone stimulates development of the secondary sex characteristics,spermatogenesis,and libido.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following provides fetal nutrition and secretes hormones that regulate pregnancy and fetal development?
A) The uterus
B) The myometrium
C) The endometrium
D) The blastocyst
E) The placenta
Q2) Women with morning sickness tend to prefer spicy and pungent foods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most primary oocytes undergo atresia during climacteric.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During the follicular phase,granulosa cells secrete __________,which stimulates secretion of __________.
A) estradiol;LH
B) estradiol;FSH
C) estradiol;GnRH
D) progesterone;FSH
E) progesterone;LH
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Q1) Senescence of the immune system makes older people more susceptible to cancer and infectious disease because of a decline in __________.
A) alpha and beta globulins
B) red blood cells and platelets
C) complement proteins
D) prothrombin and fibrinogen
E) antigen-presenting cells and helper T cells
Q2) In the fast block to polyspermy,binding of sperm opens up
channels,which depolarizes the egg membrane and __________.
A) Na<sup>+</sup>;prevents the entrance of any more sperm
B) Na<sup>+</sup>;prevents the entrance of more Na<sup>+</sup>
C) Na<sup>+</sup>;prevents the entrance of Ca<sup>2+</sup>
D) Ca<sup>2+</sup>;prevents the entrance of any more sperm
E) Ca<sup>2+</sup>;prevents the entrance of more Na<sup>+</sup>
Q3) The fertilization membrane is the endometrial tissue that receives the conceptus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human
Anatomy
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Q1) The cut of a guillotine (decapitation)is an example of a section done in the midsagittal plane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The __________ cavity contains the lungs,which are enfolded in the __________.
A) thoracic;pleurae
B) thoracic;pericardium
C) thoracic;peritoneum
D) abdominopelvic;peritoneum
E) abdominopelvic;pleurae
Q3) The surface of the heart is formed by a membrane called the __________.
A) parietal peritoneum
B) visceral peritoneum
C) parietal pericardium
D) visceral pericardium
E) parietal pleura
Q4) The frontal plane passes vertically through the body or an organ and divides it into equal right and left portions.
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A)True
B)False
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