Pre-Medical Studies
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pre-Medical Studies is an interdisciplinary program designed to prepare students for entry into medical school and related health professional programs. The course provides a solid foundation in core sciences such as biology, chemistry, physics, and mathematics, while also emphasizing critical thinking, analytical skills, and ethical reasoning essential for a career in healthcare. Students will engage in laboratory work, research projects, and courses in social sciences and humanities to develop a well-rounded understanding of the medical field. Additionally, this program often includes opportunities for clinical observation, community service, and guidance on the medical school application process.
Recommended Textbook Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
495 Verified Questions
495 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic hemolysis is characterized by accumulation of an iron-containing brown pigment in the cytoplasm of liver cells.This brown pigment is called:
A) Melanin
B) Tyrosin
C) Hemosiderin
D) Ceruloplasmin
E) Bilirubin
Answer: C
Q2) Which type of necrosis is found in granulomas of tuberculosis?
A) Coagulation necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
E) Fibrinoid necrosis
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial throat infection ("strep throat")is associated with a white exudates surrounded by reddened mucosa.This is an example of:
A) Serous inflammation
B) Fibrinous inflammation
C) Abscess
D) Gangrene
E) Ulcerative inflammation
Answer: B
Q2) Release of histamine at the site of inflammation causes:
A) Increased vascular permeability
B) Decreased vascular permeability
C) Accumulation of neutrophils
D) Accumulation of platelets
E) Activation of the complement system
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human immunodeficiency virus is classified as:
A) An RNA retrovirus
B) AIDS
C) A DNA retrovirus
D) A CMV retrovirus
E) An HBV retrovirus
Answer: A
Q2) Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs)are typically found in:
A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) AIDS
C) Graft-versus-host reaction
D) Sarcoidosis
E) Isolated deficiency of IgA
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benign protuberant tumors found on the skin,mouth,or larynx are called:
A) Tubular adenomas
B) Villous adenomas
C) Polyps
D) Papillomas
E) Cystadenomas
Q2) The most important risk factor(s)for breast and colon cancer is (are):
A) Hormonal imbalance and advanced age
B) Smoking and promiscuity
C) Sun exposure and family history
D) Smoking
E) Family history of cancer in those locations
Q3) Many tumors secrete their own growth factors.This form of stimulation is called:
A) Autocrine
B) Heterocrine
C) Paracrine
D) Endocrine
E) Exocrine
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6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dilation of lateral ventricles of the brain found in TORCH syndrome is called:
A) Microphthalmia
B) Chorioretinitis
C) Hydrocephalus
D) Cataract
E) Vesicles
Q2) A tall,slightly effeminate male with eunuchoid body proportions and gynecomastia is found to have a 47,XXY karyotype.This presentation is typical of:
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Fragile X syndrome
D) Marfan's syndrome
E) Duchenne-type muscular dystrophy
Q3) Sudden infant death syndrome typically occurs:
A) At the time of birth
B) During the first few hours after birth
C) During the first week after birth
D) During the first month of life
E) Any time between 2 and 9 months of life
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Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tachypnea,caused by decompensated shock,could ultimately lead to:
A) ARDS
B) Active hyperemia
C) Acidosis
D) Hematoma of the brain
E) Hypotension
Q2) Iron deficiency anemia develops most often as a result of:
A) Hematemesis
B) Hematuria
C) Metrorrhagia
D) Hemothorax
E) Hemopericardium
Q3) Arterial hemorrhage can be differentiated from venous hemorrhage by noting that the blood is:
A) Bright red and flows in a pulsating manner
B) Dark blue and bluish-red and oozes
C) Greenish and rich in bilirubin
D) Yellow and rich in bilirubin
E) Clotting rapidly
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Page 8
Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atherosclerotic aneurysms are most often located in the:
A) Coronary arteries
B) Ascending aorta
C) Thoracic aorta
D) Abdominal aorta
E) Iliac arteries
Q2) Rheumatic carditis is typically preceded by:
A) Streptococcal throat infection
B) Staphylococcal skin infection
C) Gonococcal arthritis
D) Coxsackie B virus myositis
E) Influenza
Q3) In the diastolic phase,the right side of the heart is filled with:
A) Peripheral venous blood
B) Pulmonary venous blood
C) Peripheral arterial blood
D) Pulmonary arterial blood
E) A mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
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9
Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important cause of emphysema is:
A) Cigarette smoking
B) Air pollution in the cities
C) Tuberculosis
D) AIDS
E) Asthma
Q2) Coal-workers' lung disease is best classified as:
A) Asbestosis
B) Pneumoconiosis
C) Acute hypersensitivity reaction
D) Chronic hypersensitivity reaction
E) Chronic bacterial pneumonitis
Q3) In lungs affected by sarcoidosis there are numerous granulomas and infiltrates of:
A) T-suppressor lymphocytes
B) T-helper lymphocytes
C) B lymphocytes
D) Eosinophils
E) Plasma cells
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Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which virus is a proven cause of leukemia/lymphoma in humans?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) HIV
C) HTLV-1
D) HPV
E) CMV
Q2) Aplastic anemia is most often:
A) Idiopathic
B) Secondary to viral infection
C) Radiation induced
D) Drug induced
E) Immune mediated
Q3) The sickling of red blood cells of patients with sickle cell anemia can be induced in a test tube by exposing the blood to:
A) Normal blood
B) Normal serum
C) Oxygen
D) An oxygen-binding chemical such as metabisulfite
E) Alkali
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hiatal hernias may be caused by all of the following except:
A) Exogenous acids in food
B) Smoking
C) Caffeine
D) Heartburn in pregnancy
E) Reflux of gastric juice
Q2) Dental caries begin with the formation of:
A) Pockets of periodontal inflammation
B) Bacterial plaques on the surface of the tooth
C) Periapical granuloma
D) Periapical abscess
E) Radicular cyst
Q3) All of the following are common symptoms or complications of duodenal ulcer except:
A) Hematemesis
B) Melena
C) Vomiting
D) Epigastric pain
E) Carcinoma
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In spite of preventive treatment,which host cells may damage the function of a transplanted liver?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) Alpha cells
D) Lymphocytes
E) AFT
Q2) Unconjugated bilirubin circulates in the blood bound to:
A) Immunoglobulin G
B) Albumin
C) Haptoglobin
D) Transferrin
E) Ceruloplasmin
Q3) What immunologic finding is most typical of primary biliary cirrhosis?
A) Antinuclear antibodies
B) Anti-smooth muscle antibodies
C) Antimitochondrial antibodies
D) Antimicrosomal antibodies
E) Antinucleolar antibodies
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic pancreatitis is:
A) More common than acute pancreatitis
B) More common in males than in females
C) Associated with higher mortality than acute pancreatitis
D) Associated with higher levels of amylase in blood than acute pancreatitis
E) More common in children than in adults
Q2) A small,benign pancreatic tumor that causes hypoglycemia and syncope is most likely:
A) Insulinoma
B) Glucagonoma
C) VIPoma
D) Gastrinoma
E) Somatostatinoma
Q3) What diagnostic approach is most reliable for visualizing the carcinoma of the pancreas?
A) Plain abdominal film
B) Computed tomography (CT) scanning
C) Laparoscopy
D) Gastroscopy
E) Colonoscopy
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Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) James Smith,56 years old,has just experienced a myocardial infarction.His kidneys are not producing the normal amounts of urine.This is known as:
A) Prerenal renal failure
B) Postrenal failure
C) Intrarenal failure
D) Hypertension
E) Edema
Q2) The most common urinary stones are composed of:
A) Calcium phosphate
B) Magnesium ammonium sulfate
C) Uric acid
D) Cystine
E) Xanthine
Q3) All of the following are renal complications of diabetes except:
A) Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
B) Nodular glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease)
C) Arteriolar hyalinosis
D) Papillary necrosis
E) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common congenital abnormality of the male reproductive system that affects the penis is:
A) Cryptorchidism
B) Anorchia
C) Polyorchidism
D) Hyperspadias
E) Hypospadias
Q2) Clinical symptoms of localized or diffuse redness,swelling,or ulceration of the mucosa of the glans penis is associated with which disease?
A) Prostatitis
B) Urethritis
C) Balanitis
D) Orchitis
E) Epididymitis
Q3) Most testicular tumors originate from:
A) Germ cells
B) Sertoli cells
C) Leydig cells
D) Stromal fibroblasts
E) Tunica vaginalis testis
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Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Swelling and cystic transformation of the placental villi resembling a bunch of grapes are typical of:
A) Choriocarcinoma
B) Hydatidiform mole
C) Placenta accreta
D) Placenta previa
E) Endometriosis
Q2) A Pap smear is most appropriate for early detection of:
A) Choriocarcinoma
B) Carcinoma of the ovary
C) Endometrial carcinoma
D) Carcinoma of the cervix
E) Leiomyoma
Q3) Condyloma acuminatum is caused by:
A) Herpes simplex virus type 1
B) Herpes simplex virus type 2
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
E) Treponema pallidum
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition in which males develop breasts is known as:
A) Polymastia
B) Polythelia
C) Amastia
D) Accessory breast tissue
E) Gynecomastia
Q2) In contrast to nonfunctioning breasts,breasts of late pregnancy and the postpartum period contain:
A) Periareolar ducts
B) Hyperplastic subareolar ducts
C) More connective tissue stroma
D) More epithelial buds
E) Acinar cells
Q3) Which of the following is the most common histologic type of breast carcinoma?
A) Medullary carcinoma
B) Mucinous carcinoma
C) Invasive duct carcinoma
D) Lobular carcinoma
E) Tubular carcinoma
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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30 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amenorrhea and galactorrhea are typically produced by tumors that are classified as:
A) Pituitary carcinoma
B) Somatostatinoma
C) Glucagonoma
D) Prolactinoma
E) Corticotropic adenoma
Q2) Secondary hyperparathyroidism is typically caused by:
A) Hypovitaminosis A
B) Hypovitaminosis D
C) Hypovitaminosis C
D) Chronic renal disease
E) Chronic liver disease
Q3) The most common cause of Cushing's syndrome encountered in medical practice today is:
A) Adenoma of the pituitary
B) Adenoma of adrenal cortex
C) Adenoma of adrenal medulla
D) Carcinoma of adrenal cortex
E) Exogenous steroids administered by physicians
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Chapter 18: The Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common epithelial malignant tumor of the face is:
A) Fibroma
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Malignant melanoma
E) Lymphoma
Q2) Which of the following pigmented lesions has the highest propensity to progress to malignant melanoma?
A) Ephelis
B) Lentigo
C) Dermal nevus
D) Blue nevus
E) Dysplastic nevus
Q3) Prolonged suntanning causes:
A) Ulcers
B) Accelerated aging of the skin
C) Furuncles
D) Carbuncles
E) Psoriasis
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteosarcomas most often arise in the bones of the:
A) Skull
B) Vertebrae
C) Fingers
D) Toes
E) Knee
Q2) Which vitamin is essential for the formation of bones?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin E
Q3) What bone disease is characterized by irregular restructuring that leads to thickening and deformities of the bones?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Trench foot
C) Paget's disease
D) Legionnaire's disease
E) Osteoarthritis
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Muscles and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with myasthenia gravis is found to have an anterior mediastinal mass.This mass proves to be a tumor.Most likely it is a:
A) Thyroid adenoma
B) Parathyroid adenoma
C) Neuroblastoma
D) Smooth muscle cell tumor
E) Thymoma
Q2) Skeletal muscles are:
A) Composed of either type I (slow) or type II (fast) fibers
B) Composed of rapidly dividing cells
C) Composed of nondividing cells that can be stimulated to enter mitosis by a variety of cytokines
D) In close contact with nerves
E) Major storage sites of calcium and phosphate
Q3) Spastic contraction of muscles,known as tetany,is caused by:
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hypoparathyroidism
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Hyponatremia
E) Hypophosphatemia
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Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Highly malignant tumors exclusively found in the cerebellum of children are called:
A) Glioblastoma multiforme
B) Medulloblastoma
C) Ependymoma
D) Oligodendroglioma
E) Meningioma
Q2) Korsakoff's syndrome,which usually includes amnesia,confabulation,and general mental deterioration,is typically caused by deficiency of:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin E
Q3) Which tumor occurs only in peripheral nerves?
A) Meningioma
B) Oligodendroglioma
C) Schwannoma
D) Medulloblastoma
E) Ependymoma
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allergic conjunctivitis is typically mediated by:
A) T lymphocytes
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
Q2) Which part of the eye is usually affected by chemical injury from exogenous caustic substances?
A) Cornea
B) Iris
C) Posterior chamber
D) Optic nerve
E) Retina
Q3) The most important cause of ulcerative keratitis is:
A) CMV
B) Herpesvirus
C) Mumps virus
D) Influenza virus
E) Human papillomavirus
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Accumulation of fluid in the inner ear is known as:
A) Purulent otitis media
B) Purulent otitis externa
C) Acute otitis media
D) Serous otitis media
E) Serous otitis externa
Q2) Medications such as streptomycin,antimalarial drugs,and certain diuretics may cause deafness and are classified as:
A) Aural toxic
B) Otosclerosis
C) Ototoxic
D) Cochlear-toxic
E) Presbycusis
Q3) The ear is connected to the nasopharynx by the:
A) Internal auditory canal
B) External auditory canal
C) Tympanic membrane
D) Eustachian tube
E) Stapes
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