Pre-Medical Studies Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Pre-Medical Studies is an interdisciplinary program designed to prepare students for admission to medical school and other health-related professional programs. The course covers foundational topics in biology, chemistry, physics, and mathematics, alongside relevant social sciences and humanities, ensuring a well-rounded scientific education. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, laboratory skills, biomedical ethics, and effective communication, all essential for future healthcare professionals. Students are also introduced to clinical experiences, research opportunities, and the medical school application process, equipping them with the academic background and practical knowledge necessary for success in advanced medical studies.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Language Immerse Yourself 2nd Edition by Susan
M. Turley
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35 Chapters
8743 Verified Questions
8743 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2287 Page 2
Chapter 1: The Structure of Medical Language
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308 Verified Questions
308 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/45426
Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form pneumon/o- means breath.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The abbreviation HPI,if seen on a patient's medical record,stands for:
A) health patient inquiry.
B) history and physical examination.
C) history of present illness.
D) human and pork insulin.
Answer: C
Q3) The suffix -gram means :
A) process of recording.
B) a record or picture.
C) x-ray.
D) instrument used to examine.
Answer: B
Q4) ____________ is a combining form meaning lung or air.
Answer: Pneumon/o-
Q5) The prefix tachy- means ____________.
Answer: fast
3
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Chapter 2: The Body in Health and Disease
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509 Verified Questions
509 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Someone who is studying ____________ is studying newborn babies.
Answer: neonatology
Q2) Describe the similarity and the difference between the words infectious and communicable.
Answer: Both conditions are caused by pathogens such as bacteria,viruses,and fungi.However,the word communicable describes an infectious disease that is passed on by direct contact with infected people,animals,or insects.
Q3) A nursing assistant who works on the pediatric floor of a hospital takes care of:
A) couples with infertility.
B) children.
C) older people.
D) newborns.
Answer: B
Q4) The combining form cav/o- means cave.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) A ____________ specialist treats conditions of the heart and blood vessels.
Answer: cardiovascular
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Chapter 3: Gastroenterology - Gastrointestinal System
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455 Verified Questions
455 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form omphal/o- means umbilicus or ____________.
Answer: navel
Q2) Because of the definition of the combining form found in gastrin,we know that it is a substance produced in the:
A) abdomen.
B) colon.
C) intestine.
D) stomach.
Answer: D
Q3) The combining form lapar/o- means ____________.
Answer: abdomen
Q4) The liver:
A) is an accessory organ of digestion because it digests food and returns the waste to the digestive system.
B) is an accessory organ of digestion; it contributes to but is not physically involved in the process of digestion.
C) is an organ of digestion because it digests fats.
D) is an organ of digestion because it digests proteins.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Pulmonology - Respiratory System
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352 Verified Questions
352 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which respiratory disease is seen almost exclusively in patients with AIDS?
A) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
B) COPD
C) anthracosis
D) eupnea
Q2) In panlobar pneumonia,from the definition of the prefix we can tell that ____________ lobes of the lung are affected.
Q3) The medical abbreviation for shortness of breath when exercising is:
A) URI.
B) DOE.
C) CPR.
D) CXR.
Q4) The patient is said to have a "trach" when:
A) an incision is made into the trachea.
B) the patient is on a ventilator.
C) there is a permanent opening in the trachea.
D) None of the above.
Q5) PPD is an abbreviation for a chest x-ray view.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cardiology - Cardiovascular System
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360 Verified Questions
360 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which section of the electrical conduction system of the heart is located just after the AV node?
A) Purkinje fibers.
B) sinoatrial node.
C) bundle of His.
D) bundle branches.
Q2) A patient presents to the emergency department having an acute anxiety attack and headache.When she is examined,her blood pressure is found to be 166/100.It can be said that she is hypotensive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cardiomyopathy is defined as ____________.
A) condition of the heart valve
B) disease of the heart muscle
C) enlargement of the heart
D) inflammation of the heart
Q4) Antihypertensive drugs are used to treat low blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ____________ arteries are the first arteries to branch off from the aorta.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Hematology and Immunology - Blood and Lymphatic System
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210 Verified Questions
210 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood that is collected,filtered,and returned to the patient during surgery is known as ____________ blood.
A) sickle cell
B) plasma
C) clotted
D) autologous
Q2) Agglutination means :
A) swelling.
B) painful.
C) clumping together.
D) diseased.
Q3) Which type of anemia is caused by failure of the bone marrow to produce erythrocytes?
A) iron deficiency anemia
B) aplastic anemia
C) pernicious anemia
D) sickle cell anemia
Q4) ____________ is the medical specialty that studies the anatomy and physiology of the blood.
Q5) What is the difference between a blood donation and a blood transfusion?
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Chapter 7: Dermatology - Integumentary System
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285 Verified Questions
285 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the misspelled word.
A) rytidectomy.
B) vitiligo.
C) wheal.
D) cicatrix.
Q2) When Jeremy Smith was in the shower,the hot water ran out.The cold water caused the hairs on his skin to stand up.This body response to cold is known as:
A) exfoliation.
B) piloerection.
C) perspiration.
D) anhidrosis.
Q3) The congenital disease anhidrosis is a condition in which the patient is unable to ____________.
Q4) Debridement is the removal of dead tissue from a wound,burn,or ulcer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The adjective form of epidermis is ____________.
Q6) The English phrase skin tag means the same as the medical word ____________.
Q7) The process of sweating and the sweat itself are both known as ____________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Orthopedics - Skeletal System
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302 Verified Questions
302 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form articul/o- means ____________.
Q2) The hinge-type and ball-and-socket joints are examples of ____________ joints.
A) synovial
B) cartilage
C) suture
D) immovable
Q3) The combining form ossificat/o- means changing into ____________.
Q4) The humerus is the:
A) bone in the upper leg.
B) bone in the upper arm.
C) smaller of the two bones in the lower leg.
D) larger of the two bones in the lower arm.
Q5) Which is the medical word for the thigh bone?
A) femur
B) fibula
C) ulna
D) ilium
Q6) The combining form perone/o- refers to the bone known as the ____________ .
Q7) An abnormal,excessive C-shaped or S-shaped lateral curvature of the spine is known as ____________.
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Chapter 9: Orthopedics - Muscular System
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271 Verified Questions
271 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form tax/o- means :
A) coordination.
B) lack of strength.
C) tendon.
D) rod shaped.
Q2) All of the following are true about plantar fasciitis except:
A) it is the most common cause of heel pain.
B) it is caused by excessive running or exercise.
C) it is a genetic inherited disease.
D) it is treated a corticosteroid drug injection.
Q3) The combining form masset/o- means ____________.
Q4) The intercostal muscles are:
A) around the femur.
B) between the ribs.
C) across the chest.
D) in the arm.
Q5) The abbreviation EMG stands for ____________.
Q6) ____________ muscles are involuntary,nonstriated muscles.They form a continuous,thin layer around many organs and structures.
Q7) The combining form ____________ means to tear.
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Chapter 10: Neurology - Nervous System
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242 Verified Questions
242 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abbreviation AVM means :
A) arteriovenous multiforme.
B) atrioventricular multiforme.
C) atrioventricular malformation.
D) arteriovenous malformation.
Q2) Which word means a surgical incision into the cranium to expose the brain tissue?
A) craniotomy
B) rhizotomy
C) laminectomy
D) biopsy
Q3) What is dementia?
Q4) The gray matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord contain myelin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A herniated intravertebral disk is known as a slipped disk.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ____________ are four hollow chambers in the brain.
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Chapter 11: Urology - Urinary System
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201 Verified Questions
201 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A surgical procedure using a cystoscope and an instrument with interwoven wires to grasp and remove a calculus is known as ____________ basketing.
Q2) Which syllable is the primary accented syllable in the pronunciation of the medical word nephrolithiasis (nef-roh-lih-thy-ah-sis)?
Q3) After the filtrate passes through the proximal convoluted tubule,it enters the:
A) calix.
B) glomerular capsule.
C) nephron loop.
D) urethral meatus.
Q4) Why would a culture and sensitivity test be done on a sample of urine?
Q5) Which is the correct order for the process of producing urine?
A) filtration, collection of filtrate, reabsorption, excretion of urine
B) collection of filtrate, filtration, reabsorption, excretion of urine
C) reabsorption, filtration, collection of filtrate, excretion of urine
D) excretion of urine, filtration, collection of filtrate, reabsorption
Q6) ESWL is a procedure done to break up a urinary stone.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The GU system means the ____________ system.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Male Reproductive Medicine - Male
Genitourinary System
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193 Verified Questions
193 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gynecomastia is an enlarged male ____________.
Q2) Why must the testes be located outside the body in the scrotum?
Q3) Testicular self-examination is a way to find cancer in its early stages.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The suffix in the word prostatitis indicates that there is an inflammation or infection in the prostate gland.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The external male genitalia include which of the following structures?
A) seminal vesicles
B) prostate gland.
C) ejaculatory duct.
D) none of the above.
Q6) A spermatozoon (or a female ovum) that has only half the usual number of chromosomes is known as a ____________.
Q7) The patient had a chancre on his penis from an infection by the organism
Page 14
Treponema pallidum,confirming the diagnosis of ____________.
Q8) What is cryptorchism?
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Gynecology and Obstetrics - Female
Reproductive System
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223 Verified Questions
223 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abbreviation TAH-BSO means :
A) total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy.
B) therapeutic abortion hysterectomy with biopsy surgery option.
C) test of antibody hormone from bilateral spontaneous ovarian.
D) tubal assisted hysterectomy with breast self-ovulation.
Q2) Infection of the uterine tubes is known as:
A) salpingitis.
B) myometritis.
C) cervical cancer.
D) mastitis.
Q3) Candidiasis is a ____________ infection of the vagina.
A) bacterial
B) viral
C) yeast
D) sexually transmitted
Q4) Any type of difficult or abnormal labor and delivery is known as:
A) eclampsia.
B) dystocia.
C) dyspareunia.
D) gestation.
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Chapter 14: Endocrinology - Endocrine System
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353 Verified Questions
353 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following words is misspelled?
A) gonadotropin
B) luteinizing hormone
C) diabetes insipidus
D) homostasis
Q2) A goiter is a chronic and progressive enlargement of the ____________ gland.
Q3) Thyromegaly is a sign of a:
A) goiter.
B) dwarfism.
C) virilism.
D) hypogonadism.
Q4) Which symptom is common to a patient with diabetes mellitus as well as diabetes insipidus?
A) polyphagia
B) glycosuria
C) hyperglycemia
D) polydipsia
Q5) All endocrine glands secrete ____________.
Q6) The most abundant and biologically active of the mineralocorticoid hormones is
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Chapter 15: Ophthamology - Eyes
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351 Verified Questions
351 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glaucoma is a threat to vision because it involves a/an:
A) build-up of protein molecules in the lens that gradually block light rays.
B) deterioration of the macula as abnormal blood vessels grow under it.
C) increase in intraocular pressure that gradually destroys structures in the eye.
D) inflammation of the optic nerve due to increased intracranial pressure.
Q2) Hyphema is an abnormal sensitivity to bright light.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____________ in the retina are sensitive to all levels of light but not to color.
Q4) The ____________ chamber is a small area between the cornea and the iris.
Q5) The ____________ is a tough,fibrous connective tissue that forms a continuous outer layer around the eyeball.
Q6) Briefly explain the function of the lacrimal gland.
Q7) A patient who has aphakia has no ____________ in the eye because it has been surgically removed.
Q8) ____________ ____________ is a clear,watery fluid that is continuously produced by the ciliary body.
Q9) An ____________ is the surgical removal of the eyeball from its orbit.
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Chapter 16: Otolaryngology - Ears, nose, and Throat
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351 Verified Questions
351 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs constrict blood vessels and decrease swelling of the mucous membranes of the nose and sinuses due to colds and allergies?
A) corticosteroid drugs
B) antihistamine drugs
C) antitussive drugs
D) decongestant drugs
Q2) Drainage of serous fluid or pus from the ear is known as ____________.
A) rhinorrhea
B) epistaxis
C) effusion
D) otorrhea
Q3) The abbreviation T & A means :
A) tonsils and adenoids.
B) teeth and adenoids.
C) throat and adenoids.
D) tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy.
Q4) The ____________ or conchae are three long projections of the ethmoid bone that jut into the nasal cavity and function to break up the stream of air as it enters the nose.
Q5) The medical word for earwax is ____________.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Psychiatry
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Sample Questions
Q1) An extreme,chronic fear of being fat,an obsession with becoming thinner,and decreased food intake is characteristic of:
A) bulimia.
B) binge-purge disorder.
C) appetite disorder.
D) anorexia nervosa.
Q2) The combining form hebe/o- in hebephrenic schizophrenia means : A) dramatic.
B) youth.
C) pleasure.
D) human being.
Q3) Treatment for anorexia nervosa would not include:
A) antipsychotic drugs.
B) antidepressant drugs.
C) family therapy.
D) psychotherapy.
Q4) Psychoanalysis is a therapeutic process developed by Sigmund Freud that includes dream analysis and hypnosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Oncology
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194 Verified Questions
194 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Debulking is a surgical procedure where a surgeon removes only part of a large tumor in order to reduce its size.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All are forms of environmental radiation except:
A) asbestos
B) sunlight
C) nuclear weapons
D) x-rays
Q3) Ewing's sarcoma of the subcutaneous tissues can appear as a complication of AIDS.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the TNM system and what is it used for?
Q5) Which gene is the most important suppressor gene? It is inactive until DNA in the cell's nucleus is damaged?
A) p53
B) Her2/neu
C) BRCA
D) CEA
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Chapter 19: Radiology and Nuclear Medicine
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156 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ medicine is the medical specialty that uses radioactive substances to create images of internal structures of the body.
Q2) The medical specialty that uses various forms of radiation and sound waves to create images of the human body is known as ____________.
Q3) In this type of x-ray,an x-ray beam enters the patient's chest from the side,penetrates the upper body,and exits through the other side.
A) oblique x-ray
B) AP chest x-ray
C) lateral chest x-ray
D) KUB
Q4) In which type of x-ray does the beam enter the patient's anterior chest,penetrate the upper body,exit the upper back,and enter the x-ray plate?
A) PA chest x-ray
B) AP chest x-ray
C) lateral chest x-ray
D) oblique x-ray
Q5) What is the difference between the suffixes -graphy and -gram?
Q6) Briefly explain the purpose of a film badge.
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Chapter 20: Medical Terminology and Word Building
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Sample Questions
Q1) If present,a prefix can be found either at the beginning or ending of a medical word.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The combining form neur/o- means ____________.
Q3) The combining form cardi/o- means heart.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following combining forms are related to structures located in the head or neck except:
A) laryng/o-.
B) nas/o-.
C) psych/o-.
D) hyster/o-.
Q5) The combining form laryng/o- means :
A) breast.
B) larynx (voice box).
C) abdomen.
D) digestion.
Q6) The combining form hepat/o- means ____________.
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Chapter 21: Anatomy and Medical Terminology:
Understanding the Human Body and Language of Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which body cavity is a continuation of the cranial cavity as it travels down the midline of the back?
A) spinal
B) abdominal
C) thoracic
D) pelvic
Q2) The ____________ glands in this body system secrete hormones.
Q3) The patient had a mass in the inguinal region.Where is this located?
A) in the groin
B) at the navel
C) directly above the stomach
D) below the ribs
Q4) ____________ is the study of tumors and cancer.
Q5) Neoplastic diseases are:
A) caused by an infection.
B) caused by destruction of cells.
C) new growths.
D) acquired in a hospital.
Q7) The combining form caud/o- means ____________ bone. Page 24
Q6) The combining form heredit/o- means genetic ____________.
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Page 25
Chapter 22: Digestive System and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of fatty chyme in the duodenum causes the ____________ to contract.
Q2) Difficult or painful eating is known as dysphagia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The gastric mucosa is arranged in thick,deep folds called: A) haustra.
B) rugae.
C) uvula.
D) villi.
Q4) The sight,smell,and taste of food causes:
A) mastication.
B) peristalsis.
C) secretion of digestive enzymes in the stomach.
D) the salivary glands to release saliva.
Q5) In the medical word peristalsis,the combining form stal/o- means : A) around.
B) contraction.
C) process of.
D) to move.
Q6) The combining form cholecyst/o- means ____________.
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Chapter 23: Respiratory System Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form auscult/o- means tapping.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An AP chest x-ray shows a/an ____________ view of the chest.
Q3) A patient who suffers from CF has ____________.
A) fluid in the lungs
B) a barrel-shaped chest
C) frequent bronchospasm
D) very thick mucus secretions
Q4) In the medical word respiration,the combining form means ____________.
A) air
B) breathe
C) lung
D) movement
Q5) A healthcare professional assesses the patient's BS by ____________.
A) biopsy
B) auscultation
C) bronchoscopy
D) pulmonary function tests
Q6) What is the medical word that means the flu?
Page 27
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Chapter 24: Cardiovascular System - Medical Terminology
and
Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following structures are part of the electrical system of the heart except:
A) SA node.
B) bundle of His.
C) HDL.
D) AV node.
Q2) The ____________ is the muscular layer that makes up the bulk of the heart.
Q3) Acute coronary syndrome includes all of the following conditions except:
A) unstable angina.
B) acute endocarditis.
C) acute myocardial ischemia.
D) acute myocardial infarction.
Q4) The combining form steth/o- means ____________.
Q5) The combining form tele/o-,as found in the medical word telemetry,means ____________.
A) measure
B) distance
C) monitor
D) recording
Q6) The smallest branches of an artery are known as ____________.
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Chapter 25: Blood and Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form coagul/o- means ____________.
A) clotting
B) clumping
C) crowding
D) gathering
Q2) Which antibody is found on the surface of B cells?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) red blood cell antigen B
D) IgG
Q3) When the body experiences a significant blood loss,the ____________ produces the hormone erythropoietin to stimulate the production of red blood cells.
A) bone marrow
B) kidney
C) spleen
D) thymus
Q4) The most common type of leukocyte is a ____________.
Q5) A,B,AB,BA,and O are blood types.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Skin Care: Understanding the Integumentary
System and Common Skin Conditions
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200 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The skin condition of urticaria is known by the common name of ____________.
Q2) Abnormally curved fingernails and stunted growth of the fingers associated with a chronic lack of oxygen in patients with cystic fibrosis is known as: A) urticaria.
B) curettage.
C) clubbing.
D) dermabrasion.
Q3) By looking at the definition of the combining form,we can see that the subcutaneous layer is located under the ____________.
Q4) Cells from plants and animals can act as ____________ to sensitive individuals. A) allergens
B) dermatomes
C) adipocere
D) lesions
Q5) The combining form albin/o- means : A) absent.
B) color.
C) pigment.
D) white.
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Chapter 27: Medical Terminology and Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hairline fracture that occurs in the cranium is known as a suture.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The combining form glen/o- means ____________ of a joint.
Q3) All of the following are examples of an orthosis except:
A) a brace.
B) a splint.
C) a rongeur.
D) a collar.
Q4) The patient had an arthroplasty of his hip.Which is an abbreviation for this surgery?
A) CDH
B) MCP
C) THR
D) RUE
Q5) Osteomyelitis is cancer of the bone.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Between the right and left parietal bones at the top of the cranium is the ____________ suture,which runs from front to back.
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Chapter 28: Muscle and Movement: A Comprehensive Guide to Anatomy and Conditions
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150 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bending a joint to decrease the angle between two bones or two body parts is known as:
A) extension.
B) abduction.
C) flexion.
D) adduction.
Q2) The medical language definition of the medical word analgesic is pertaining to without the sensation of ____________.
Q3) The definition of the medical word ____________ is surgical excision of the thymus gland.It is used to treat patients with myasthenia gravis.
Q4) The word rectus in the muscle name rectus abdominis means oblique.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An ____________ is a flat,wide,white fibrous sheet of connective tissue,sometimes composed of several tendons,that attaches a flat muscle to a bone or to other,deeper muscles.
Q6) The combining form chir/o- means ____________.
Q8) The prefix bi- means ____________. Page 32
Q7) The combining form pector/o- means ____________.
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Chapter 29: Neurology and Nervous System Disorders
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Q1) James put his hand on a hot stove.An involuntary muscle reaction controlled by the spinal cord and called a ____________ made him remove his hand quickly from the heat before he got burned.
Q2) To prevent a neural tube defect in her baby,the mother should take a vitamin B12 supplement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which neurotransmitter is the body's own natural pain reliever?
A) acetylcholine
B) serotonin
C) dopamine
D) endorphins
Q4) An arteriovenous malformation is an abnormality in which arteries in the brain connect directly to other arteries,forming a twisted nest of blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The other name for a tonic-clonic seizure is a grand mal seizure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Urinary System
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Q1) Renal colic is the pain and spasm associated with passing a kidney stone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The combining form alkal/o- means :
A) acid (high pH).
B) acid (low pH).
C) base (high pH).
D) base (low pH).
Q3) The abbreviation ARF means :
A) acid resistant factor.
B) acute renal factor.
C) acute renal failure.
D) albumin renin factor.
Q4) A urinometer or a refractometer is used to measure the ____________ of urine.
A) sediments
B) specific gravity
C) pH
D) color
Q5) The prefix poly- in polycystic kidney disease means much or ____________.
Page 35
Q6) The word ____________ is used to describe painful or difficult urination.
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Chapter 31: Male Genitourinary System and Disorders
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Q1) Which laboratory test is done to screen for prostate cancer?
A) FSH
B) RPR
C) TURP
D) PSA
Q2) Undescended testicles are known as:
A) a prosthesis.
B) cryptorchism.
C) BPH.
D) balanitis.
Q3) Morphology evaluation of spermatozoa means evaluation of the:
A) number of sperm.
B) motility of sperm.
C) shape of sperm.
D) size of sperm.
Q4) The prepuce is another name for the scrotum.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The male genitourinary system shares the ____________ with the urinary system.
Q6) Immature sperm cells found in children are known as ____________.
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Chapter 32: Smear and Other Female Reproductive Health
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Q1) When a pregnant woman develops preeclampsia,she shows:
A) weight loss, excessive thirst, glycosuria.
B) abdominal pain, excessive bouts of vomiting, constipation.
C) increased blood pressure, fluid retention, protein in the urine.
D) abdominal swelling, dysuria, uterine bleeding.
Q2) The medical word neonatologist can be separated into the component word parts of:
A) prefix, combining form, combining form, suffix.
B) combining form, combining form, combining form, suffix.
C) prefix, combining form, suffix, suffix.
D) combining form, combining form, suffix, suffix.
Q3) A pregnancy test is a blood test performed to detect the presence of the hormone: A) LMP.
B) LH.
C) HCG.
D) FSH.
Q4) Menopause is also known as climacteric.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Psychiatric Disorders and Therapies
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Q1) Which psychiatric test assesses the degree of depression?
A) TAT
B) BDI
C) OCD
D) ECT
Q2) The presence of an emotion in the thoughts produces an outward display on the face,which is known as the person's ____________.
Q3) Echolalia means :
A) involuntary movements such as eye tics or arm thrusting.
B) soiling clothing with feces in a person over the age of five.
C) vocalizing vulgar or inappropriate words.
D) repeating words that someone else has said.
Q4) An exaggerated sense of self-worth and importance is characteristic of a ____________ personality.
A) delusional
B) antisocial
C) narcissistic
D) schizophrenic
Q5) The____________ is the outward display on the face of the inward emotions and thoughts.
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Chapter 34: Cancer Terminology and Diagnosis
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Q1) ____________ is a surgical procedure to remove a small tumor without taking any surrounding tissue.
A) Radical resection
B) Lumpectomy
C) Exploratory laparotomy
D) Punch biopsy
Q2) ____________ sarcoma is a rare cancer of the skin and subcutaneous tissue usually seen in AIDS patients.
Q3) Debulking is a surgical procedure for cancer that has the intent of:
A) reducing the size of the tumor.
B) removing the tumor and surrounding tissues.
C) taking a small portion of the tumor for biopsy purposes.
D) removing organs that secrete hormones that encourage the cancer to grow.
Q4) The ____________ is used to stage malignant melanoma.
A) Jewett Classification
B) Clark Level
C) Bethesda System
D) Dukes Classification
Q5) ____________ is cancer of the bone.
Q6) ____________ is a radiologic procedure used to screen for breast cancer.
Page 39
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Chapter 35: Radiologic Procedures and Imaging Techniques
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Q1) Which is considered to be a screening test and not a diagnostic test?
A) angiography
B) bone densitometry
C) electron beam tomography
D) intravenous cholangiography
Q2) Although the heel or wrist bones can be tested for bone density,the hip and spine bones give the most accurate results.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a radiologic test that uses x-rays?
A) fluoroscopy
B) computerized axial tomography
C) sonography
D) mammography
Q4) Magnetic resonance imaging uses a strong x-ray field inside a scanner to align the electrons in the atoms of the patient's body and create an image.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The image produced by ultrasonography is known as a/an ____________.
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