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Pre-Medical Studies is an interdisciplinary foundational course designed for students preparing to pursue a career in medicine and healthcare. This course introduces learners to essential subjects such as biology, chemistry, physics, and mathematics, while also covering topics like human anatomy, physiology, genetics, and medical ethics. Emphasis is placed on developing strong scientific reasoning, critical thinking, laboratory skills, and effective communication. Students will also gain insights into the healthcare system, professional responsibilities, and the requirements for medical school admissions, equipping them with the academic knowledge and professional competencies necessary for success in advanced medical training.
Recommended Textbook Human Diseases 8th Edition by Mark Zelman
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1439 Verified Questions
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Q1) The predicted course and outcome of the disease is known as the _____.
A)diagnosis
B)exacerbation
C)prognosis
D)relapse
Answer: C
Q2) An _____ reads the heart's electrical impulses. Answer: electrocardiography
Q3) An example of a _____ is rheumatic fever causing permanent damage to the heart.
A)complication
B)relapse
C)remission
D)sequela
Answer: D
Q4) _____ is the number of deaths that occur among people with a certain disease.
A)Incidence
B)Morbidity
C)Mortality
D)Prevalence
Answer: C
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Q1) Natural killer cells are a type of _____.
A)albumin
B)erythrocyte
C)leukocyte
D)plasma cell
Answer: C
Q2) _____ is the body's ability to resist infectious disease.
Answer: Immunity
Q3) Scleroderma is a chronic autoimmune disease of the _____.
A)brain
B)connective tissue
C)heart
D)lungs
Answer: B
Q4) The cause of AIDS is HIV, a _____ that carries its genetic information as RNA rather than DNA.
Answer: retrovirus
Q5) An Enzyme _____ (EIA)test uses an enzyme to label either the antibody or the antigen.
Answer: immunoassay

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Q1) _____ transmission of an infectious disease occurs when an individual is infected by contact with the reservoir.
A)Direct horizontal
B)Direct vertical
C)Indirect horizontal
D)Indirect vertical
Answer: A
Q2) Diseases that are transmitted primarily by _____ contact include ringworm, HIV/AIDS, the common cold, and influenza.
A)direct
B)horizontal
C)indirect
D)vertical
Answer: A
Q3) Infectious diseases are caused by microorganisms called _____. Answer: pathogens
Q4) Many helminths have evolved complex life cycles and strategies for infecting new hosts.Infections with helminths are often called _____. Answer: infestations
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Q1) Immunosuppressive medications decrease immune function and therefore decrease the risk for development of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cancer is the _____ most common cause of death in the United States.
A)first
B)second
C)third
D)fourth
Q3) _____ of all people with cancer receive radiation therapy as part of their cancer treatment.
A)About 25%
B)About 50%
C)About 75%
D)100%
Q4) Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C viruses increase the risk for _____ cancer.
Q5) Most benign tumors are named by adding the suffix -itis to the prefix that designates the cell or tissue origin.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Polydactyly is a condition of extra _____.
Q2) An amniocentesis can only detect about 50 of the thousands of known genetic disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hereditary diseases or disorders often result from a defective gene or genes that produce a defective protein or no protein at all.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Abnormalities of sex-linked inheritance tend to occur more frequently in _____.
Q5) In Down syndrome chromosome 21 is inherited in triplicate, a condition called _____ 21.
Q6) Polydactyly is an _____ disorder.
A)autosomal dominant
B)autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
Q7) A female has a combination of one X and one Y chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The most common cause of CVI is _____.
A)a thrombosis
B)an aneurysm
C)hypertension
D)varicose veins
Q2) _____ is the major cholesterol carrier in the blood, and is also known as "bad" cholesterol.
A)CAD
B)CVI
C)HDL
D)LDL
Q3) Endocarditis does not affect a healthy heart.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ is a sustained heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute.
A)Atrial fibrillation
B)Bradycardia
C)Tachycardia
D)Ventricular fibrillation
Q5) _____ is a thickening, narrowing, and hardening of the arteries.
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Q1) T.J.is a 14-year-old female who just immigrated to the United States from Guatemala.T.J.is emaciated, pale, and complains of shortness of breath.T.J.'s nutritional status is poor, as her diet had consisted primarily of rice and corn.Microscopic examination of T.J.'s blood indicated that she is severely anemic. What type of anemia would T.J.most likely have? What is the best treatment for this anemia?
Q2) Plasma contains the protein _____, which promotes the blood's ability to hold water and maintain pressure inside the blood vessels.
A)albumin
B)hemoglobin
C)lymphocytes
D)platelets
Q3) Treatment for polycythemia vera is aimed at _____.
A)decreasing the destruction of red blood cells
B)decreasing the thickness of the blood
C)increasing the number of red blood cells
D)increasing the production of erythropoietin
Q4) Vitamin B deficiency anemia, or _____ anemia, is caused by inadequate absorption or intake of vitamin B .
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Q1) The first and most common lung function test is _____, which measures the air capacity of the lungs.
Q2) The difference in _____ pressure acts as a partial vacuum and prevents the lung from collapsing.
A)diaphragm
B)epithelium
C)intrapleural
D)pericardial
Q3) One of the symptoms of sinusitis is the loss of _____.
A)hearing
B)smell
C)taste
D)touch
Q4) COPD is characterized by _____ that is not fully reversible.
A)blocked or reduced blood flow through alveolar capillaries
B)infectious agents, most often viral
C)interference with air flow
D)interference with diffusion of gases at the respiratory membrane
Q5) The _____ and the external intercostal muscles are the main muscles of inhalation.
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Q1) Dysentery is an _____ disease with acute inflammation of the colon.
A)autoimmune
B)infectious
C)inflammatory
D)opportunistic
Q2) Because bile is not secreted into the duodenum with cirrhosis, stools are _____ colored.
A)blood
B)blue
C)clay
D)green
Q3) A(n)_____ occurs when a segment of the intestine telescopes into the part forward of it.
A)adhesion
B)hiatal or inquinal hernia
C)intussusception
D)volvulus
Q4) _____ cirrhosis is the most common type of cirrhosis.
Q5) Regional _____ is also known as Crohn's disease.
Q6) _____ is an inflammation of the gallbladder.
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Q1) Albumin in the urine can indicate _____ of the urinary tract, particularly the glomeruli.
A)congenital absence
B)infection
C)inflammation
D)obstruction
Q2) In _____, blood is removed from the body and passed through membranes where toxic substances are removed from the blood and returned to the body.
Q3) At least three different genes influence the occurrence of _____.
A)glomerulonephritis
B)Lupus nephritis
C)nephrotic syndrome
D)Wilm's tumor
Q4) Kidney cancer increases significantly after age 60, and the incidence of bladder cancer increases after age 70.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Urinary _____ is a common disorder characterized by the loss of bladder control to varying degrees.
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Q1) Endometrial cancer is much more common than any other cancers of the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Approximately _____ of breast cancer cases are thought to be hereditary.
A)5% to 10%
B)15% to 30%
C)30% to 60%
D)45% to 90%
Q3) Treatment for breast cysts my include oral contraceptives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pH of vaginal secretions become more acidic, making older women more susceptible to vaginal infections.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Never having given birth is one of the risk factors for dysmenorrhea.
A)True
B)False
Q7) _____ is bulging of the front wall of the rectum into the vagina. Page 13
Q6) The _____ is the narrow portion of the uterus that protrudes into the vagina.
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Q1) The adrenal cortex secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The glucose tolerance test challenges the body's ability to secrete and use insulin, performed after a _____-hour fast.
A)5
B)10
C)24
D)48
Q3) After adolescence, growth hormone is secreted in greater amounts to promote tissue replacement and repair.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most distinctive sign of hyperparathyroidism is hyperpigmentation of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The endocrine system comprises a number of glands and glandular tissues that secrete chemical messengers called _____.
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Q1) Animal and human vaccinations has made rabies rare in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _____ lobe is devoted to interpreting visual input.
A)frontal
B)occipital
C)parietal
D)temporal
Q3) Bacterial meningitis occurs more commonly than viral meningitis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ chorea is a progressive degenerative disease of the brain that affects motor and cognitive function.
Q5) An _____ is a diagnostic tool that records the brain's electrical activity.
Q6) The signs and symptoms of _____ in infants usually begins with constipation.
A)botulism
B)Reye syndrome
C)shingles
D)tetanus
Q7) _____ is a condition of the buildup of CSF around the brain. Page 16
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Q1) In myopia, the eyeball grows too long and distant images focus short of the retina.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A symptom of retinoblastoma is the appearance of a white reflex in the pupil called _____, or "cat's-eye reflex."
Q3) Most people with impaired color vision cannot distinguish shades of _____.
A)black and white
B)blue and purple
C)orange and yellow
D)red and green
Q4) Macular degeneration affects the central part of the _____.
A)conjunctiva
B)lens
C)retina
D)sclera
Q5) The innermost part of the auditory canal is lined with glands that secrete _____, a waxy substance.
Q6) _____ is a condition of increased pressure within the eye.
Q7) _____ is inflammation of the cornea caused by an infection.
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Q1) A person who repeatedly performs acts that are grounds for arrest may have _____ personality disorder.
A)antisocial
B)avoidant
C)borderline
D)histrionic
Q2) _____ is an intense fear and anxiety of any place or situation where escape might be difficult.
Q3) Panic attacks strike suddenly and repeatedly with no warning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) People with _____ nervosa see themselves as overweight, even when they are clearly underweight.
Q5) _____ is seeing or hearing things that are not there.
A)Delusions
B)Hallucinations
C)Mania
D)Psychosis
Q6) _____ is a loss of contact with reality that usually includes delusions and hallucinations.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chronic and debilitating autoimmune disease, rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic inflammatory disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ discs are ruptures of the cartilaginous pads between the bony bodies of adjacent vertebrae.
Q3) Bone-resorbing cells are called _____.
A)osteoblasts
B)osteoclasts
C)osteocytes
D)osteomata
Q4) _____ is an inward curvature of the lumbar spine.
A)Ankylosis
B)Kyphosis
C)Lordosis
D)Scoliosis
Q5) Gout attacks are related to excess uric acid in the blood.
A)True
B)False

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Q6) _____ is used to visualize the inside of a joint cavity, such as the knee.
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Q1) The most common skin cancer is squamous cell carcinoma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) UV radiation-induced damage to _____ is the cause of nonmelanoma skin cancer.
A)ACS
B)BCC
C)DNA
D)SCC
Q3) _____ is a benign tumor made of small blood vessels that form a red or purple birthmark.
Q4) Aging skin becomes less resistant to infection and other diseases because the number of _____ decrease and are less efficient.
A)collagens
B)macrophages
C)melanocytes
D)sebaceous glands
Q5) In _____-degree burns, the burned area itself will not be painful.
Q7) _____, or hives, results from a vascular reaction of the skin to an allergen. Page 22
Q6) Tinea _____, or scalp ringworm, is highly contagious and commonly occurs in children.
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