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Pre-Medical Physiology is a foundational course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles governing the function of the human body, with an emphasis on concepts essential for future medical studies. The course explores the physiological processes underlying major organ systems, including the nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, gastrointestinal, endocrine, and musculoskeletal systems. Through integrative lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students will develop an understanding of homeostasis, regulatory mechanisms, and how physiological functions are coordinated to maintain health. This course provides a critical platform for students preparing for advanced studies in medicine, pharmacy, and related health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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Q1) The law of mass balance states:
A) if a substance is to remain constant any gain must be offset by an equal loss.
B) that homeostasis can be maintained when the load of a substance is continuously lost.
C) if one is to survive they must have a certain amount of mass.
D) that all matter is neither created or destroyed.
E) that all substances in the body have equal mass.
Answer: A
Q2) A horse runs 10 races, each a mile long, during a 6-month period, and you are interested in determining if the horse's race time changes with experience.You set up a graph to display the race finish times of this horse. Which type of graph would be best to display the race finish times of this horse?
A) bar graph
B) line graph
C) scatter plot
Answer: B
Q3) List the key concepts or themes in physiology.
Answer: See Table 1.1 in the chapter.
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Q1) Chemical reactions that occur in the human body proceed at a faster rate due to special catalytic molecules called
A) enzymes.
B) cytozymes.
C) proteins.
D) antibodies.
E) antagonists.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following elements combine to form nonpolar covalent bonds?
A) carbon and hydrogen
B) nitrogen and hydrogen
C) sodium and chlorine
D) hydrogen and oxygen
E) carbon and chlorine
Answer: A
Q3) What is the difference between atomic mass and molecular mass.
Answer: The atomic mass is the actual mass of an atom, expressed in atomic mass units (amu) or Daltons (Da), where 1 amu = 1.6 × 10 ² kg.However, molecular mass is the sum of the atomic mass of each element × the number of atoms of each atom that make up the molecule.
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Q1) A lysosome is considered which of the following?
A) membranous organelle
B) transmembrane protein
C) inclusion
D) cytoskeletal protein
E) glycolipid
Answer: A
Q2) This type of epithelia has cells that produce a substance and release it, either onto a surface or into the blood.
A) exchange
B) transport
C) ciliated
D) protective
E) secretory
Answer: E
Q3) Describe the progression of a fertilized egg, from totipotent cell through pluripotent and multipotent stem cells.How might stem cells be of therapeutic value? What is plasticity?
Answer: This is discussed in the "Tissue Remodeling"
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Q1) What are the five ways that cells regulate flow of molecules through their metabolic pathways?
Q2) How is the single-stranded mRNA that leaves the nucleus translated into proteins?
Q3) The TAC sequence of DNA is the ________ of a coding sequence that is preceded by the ________ that regulates transcription.
A) start, promoter region
B) start, intron
C) stop, promoter region
D) stop, intron
Q4) The ________ of glycogen from many glucose molecules is an ________ reaction.
A) decomposition, endergonic
B) synthesis, exergonic
C) decomposition, exergonic
D) synthesis, endergonic
Q5) The electron transport system is located in the ________ and includes enzymes and iron-containing proteins known as ________.
Q6) Chemical reactions that require an input of energy are said to be ________.
Q7) Ribosomes are composed of protein and ________.
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Q1) Membrane protein pores that are essentially always open are called ________ or ________ channels.
Q2) transporters
A)transfer signals from the extracellular environment to the cytoplasm of the cell
B)form cell-to-cell connections
C)bind to molecules to facilitate entry to or exit from the cell
D)ligands bind to these proteins and are changed by the protein
Q3) The means by which a cell transports large molecules out of the cell is called A) phagocytosis.
B) endocytosis.
C) exocytosis.
D) diffusion.
E) active transport.
Q4) to -70 mV from -50 mV
A)electrical polarization
B)hyperpolarization
C)depolarization
D)repolarization
E)more than one of the answers
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Q1) Describe the four classes of membrane receptor molecules.
Q2) the minimum stimulus to trigger a response
A)threshold
B)effector
C)integrating center
D)setpoint
E)sensory receptor
Q3) In your own words restate and explain Cannon's four postulates for maintaining homeostasis.
Q4) An ion widely important in intracellular signaling is A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) calcium.
D) chloride.
E) cobalt.
Q5) Compare and contrast neural, neuroendocrine, and endocrine reflex pathways.
Q6) When epinephrine combines with alpha adrenergic receptors on smooth muscle in intestinal blood vessels, the blood vessels ________; however, when epinephrine binds to beta-2 adrenergic receptors on certain skeletal muscle blood vessels, the vessels
8
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Q1) When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell,
A) the cell membrane becomes less permeable.
B) a second messenger appears in the cytoplasm.
C) the cell becomes inactive.
D) the hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA.
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q2) The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormones is usually
A) cAMP.
B) cGMP.
C) adenylyl cyclase.
D) a G protein.
E) calcium.
Q3) The anterior pituitary gland is also known as the ________.
Q4) The outer layer of the adrenal gland is called the ________.
Q5) The posterior pituitary gland is also known as the ________.
Q6) List the three types of hormone interactions and provide an example of each.
Q7) The ________ gland sits along the superior border of the kidney.
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Q1) What is a channelopathy, and what are some examples?
Q2) Define temporal and spatial summation.Where does the summation occur? Are these processes mutually exclusive, or can they occur at the same time in a typical multipolar neuron? What key property of neurons do these forms of summation demonstrate?
Q3) At a(n)________ synapse, a neurotransmitter is released to affect the postsynaptic cell.
Q4) The addition of stimuli arriving in rapid succession to produce an action potential is called ________.
Q5) Graded potentials that increase the likelihood of an action potential bring the ________ closer to threshold.
Q6) When voltage-gated Na channels of a resting neuron open, A) Na enters the neuron.
B) Na leaves the neuron.
C) the neuron depolarizes.
D) Na enters the neuron and the neuron depolarizes.
E) Na leaves the neuron and the neuron depolarizes.
Q7) Why is it necessary for fast axonal transport to go both forward and backward?
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Q8) Receptors that work through second messenger systems are called ________ receptors.

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Q1) Which of these roles is NOT related to the reticular formation?
A) arousal and sleep
B) muscle tone and stretch reflexes
C) pain modulation
D) blood pressure regulation
E) regulation of the menstrual cycle
Q2) How are moods similar to or different from emotions?
Q3) myelinated axons with very few cell bodies
A)gray matter
B)white matter
C)ascending tracts
D)descending tracts
E)propriospinal tracts
Q4) Reasoning arises in the outer layer of neurons of which of the following?
A) amygdala
B) basal nuclei
C) hippocampus
D) cerebral cortex
E) amygdala and hippocampus
Q5) Describe the embryonic development of the nervous system.
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Q1) flutter
A)free nerve ending
B)Merkel receptor
C)Meissner's corpuscle
D)Ruffini corpuscle
E)Pacinian corpuscle
Q2) Which of the following would be an adequate stimulus for a mechanoreceptor?
A) oxygen
B) cell stretch
C) photon of light
D) cold temperature
E) pH
Q3) conductive hearing loss
A)damage to the cerebral cortex
B)degeneration of hair cells
C)ringing in the ears
D)dizziness and nausea
E)problems with structures of the middle ear
Q4) ________ ganglion cells transmit information about texture, while ________ ganglion cells transmit information about movement.
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Q1) Describe the general rules for the identity of neurotransmitters secreted by pre- and postganglionic neurons in the autonomic division.Be sure to specify the types of receptors, where relevant, and describe the exceptions.
Q2) The ________ is the major source of parasympathetic output.
Q3) Which functions are controlled through the autonomic nervous system?
1)blood pressure
2)heart rate
3)water balance
4)temperature regulation
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
E) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q4) The drug Chantix, which treats nicotine addiction, is an ________ for the nicotine receptor.
A) agonist
B) antagonist
Q5) Cholinergic muscarinic receptors are found at the ________ in the ANS.
Q6) Map the divisions of the autonomic nervous system down to their receptors. Page 13
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Q1) Put these myofibers in the order they would be recruited as the body moves from a weak to a strong stimulus:
1)glycolytic fast-twitch fibers
2)fatigue-resistant oxidative fast-twitch fibers
3)fatigue-resistant slow-twitch fibers
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 3, 1
C) 3, 2, 1
D) 1, 3, 2
E) 3, 1, 2
Q2) An important difference between single-unit and multiunit smooth muscle is the A) numerous gap junctions in single-unit smooth muscle, which allow many cells to work together as a sheet.
B) longer actin and myosin filaments in multiunit smooth muscle, which allow coordination of contraction.
C) ability of single-unit fibers to change into multiunit fibers when advantageous.
D) closely controlled individual fibers in single-unit smooth muscle to allow fine control and graded contractions by selective activation.
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Q1) List and describe the three categories of movement.Explain why these categories are NOT always distinct.
Q2) A ________ reflex has at least one interneuron placed between the sensory and motor neuron.
Q3) The effector in a reflex is the
A) control center.
B) afferent neuron.
C) efferent neuron.
D) sensory receptor.
E) muscle or gland.
Q4) While watching Olympic weight lifters on television, Carl notices that on several occasions an athlete would lift the weight to his chest and then suddenly drop it.Can you offer an explanation for what might be happening?
Q5) ________ allows the body to anticipate a stimulus and begin the response, whereas negative feedback results in the ________ of a response.
Q6) have afferent neurons that bring information to the CNS
A)muscle spindles
B)Golgi tendon organs
C)both
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Q1) A chronotropic agent is one that affects the heart rate.Compare and contrast this term with an inotropic agent.Give specific examples of each.
Q2) The term used to describe the amount of blood in the ventricle available to be pumped out of the heart during the next contraction is
A) cardiac output (CO).
B) heart rate (HR).
C) end-diastolic volume (EDV).
D) stroke volume (SV).
E) end-systolic volume (ESV).
Q3) The AV node delays the transmission of action potentials slightly to allow ________.
Q4) Listening to the heart through the chest wall is called ________.
Q5) If total cross-sectional area of vessels in an organ remains the same but blood flow to that organ increases, what happens to velocity of blood?
A)increased
B)decreased
C)unchanged
D)stopped
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Q1) Cerebral capillaries are surrounded by ________ and glial cells and have tight junctions that create the ________.
Q2) Several blood-borne chemicals affect the lumen size of arterioles.Which are NOT paired correctly?
A) kinins - vasodilation
B) histamine - vasodilation
C) serotonin - vasodilation
D) sumatriptan - vasoconstriction
E) epinephrine - vasoconstriction with alpha receptors
Q3) ________ refers to the mass movement of fluid between the blood and the interstitial fluid as the result of ________ or ________ pressure gradients.If the direction of bulk flow is into the capillary, the fluid movement is called ________.If the direction of flow is out of the capillary, the fluid movement is known as ________.
Q4) The endothelium of the blood vessels and its adjacent connective tissue make up the ________, which is surrounded by layers of smooth muscle and connective tissue called ________.
Q5) ________ is an increase in blood flow that accompanies an increase in metabolic activity.
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Q1) Mast cells in tissues are considered to be a type of
A) eosinophil.
B) basophil.
C) lymphocyte.
D) monocyte.
E) neutrophil.
Q2) A dead human body has been discovered in the woods near your home.No, you are not a homicide suspect; rather you are an expert hematologist, and the body is still warm.Implausibly, this adult corpse has no gender cues (no sexual organs, and skeletal features that are in between those expected for males or females).How can you assist the detectives in determining the gender of this person, using the hematology lab in your garage?
Q3) What is the difference between hemostasis and homeostasis, or are they the same?
Q4) A hemoglobin molecule is composed of
A) just two protein chains.
B) just three protein chains.
C) just four protein chains and nothing else.
D) four protein chains and four heme groups.
E) four heme groups but no protein.
Q5) Summarize the steps of hemostasis.
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Q1) The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are
A) bronchioles.
B) alveolar ducts.
C) pleural spaces.
D) alveoli.
E) terminal sacs.
Q2) Cindy is taking 14 breaths per minute.Her vital capacity is 3000 mL, her total lung capacity is 4000 mL, and her tidal volume is 450 mL per breath.Calculate the following: A.Cindy's total pulmonary ventilation (minute volume)
B.Cindy's alveolar ventilation rate
Q3) The primary function of the alveoli is ________.
Q4) During the winter, Brad sleeps in a dorm room that lacks a humidifier for the heated air.In the mornings he notices that his nose is "stuffy," similar to when he has a cold, but after showering and drinking some water, the stuffiness disappears until the next morning.What might be the cause of Brad's nasal condition?
Q5) Ongoing diseases in which air flow during expiration is diminished are known as ________.
Q6) Describe the pleura and explain its role in respiration.
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Q1) Explain how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood.How does the means of transport relate to the solubility and chemical reactivity of these gases in plasma?
Q2) Inappropriate relaxation of the ________ muscles during sleep contributes to ________, a sleep disorder associated with snoring.
Q3) A chemistry student accidentally spills chlorine bleach into a dilute acid.The mixture reacts and produces fumes that are inhaled by the student and that reduce his ventilation.Assume that the gaseous chemical produced is a base (i.e., it releases OH- in an aqueous solution), and that the chemical is absorbed into the bloodstream at the alveoli.Explain why ventilation is reduced in the patient.
Q4) Hypoxia resulting from fluid accumulation in the alveoli that cannot be corrected by oxygen therapy can lead to A) emphysema.
B) fibrotic lung disease. C) asthma.
D) adult respiratory distress syndrome.
E) sudden infant death syndrome.
Q5) Diffusion rate is indirectly proportional to ________.
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Q1) The typical pattern for molecules absorbed by Na -dependent transport involves this: an apical ________ and a basolateral ________.
A) facilitated diffusion carrier, osmotic gradient
B) symport protein, facilitated diffusion carrier
C) symport protein, osmotic gradient
D) osmotic gradient, symport protein
E) facilitated diffusion carrier, symport protein
Q2) Patrick's urine sample reveals a high concentration of glucose.Is glucose normally present in urine? Suggest two possible mechanisms to explain why the kidney would excrete excess glucose, and what abnormality may underlie those conditions.
Q3) The specialized cells found in the capsule epithelium are called ________.These cells have long cytoplasmic extensions called ________.
Q4) The excretion of glucose in the urine is called ________.
Q5) movement from the nephron lumen to the blood
A)excretion
B)filtration
C)reabsorption
D)secretion
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Q1) The anatomical arrangement of the kidney that allows transfer of solutes from one blood vessel to another is called the A) countercurrent exchange system.
B) portal system.
C) capillaries.
D) countercurrent heat exchanger.
Q2) How does decreased blood pressure affect the following: granular cells, glomerulus, cardiovascular control center, hypothalamus? Indicate if decreased blood pressure directly affects the organ or tissue above or acts through a reflex pathway.If it acts through a reflex pathway, name the reflex.
Q3) Diagram the reactions and interactions of the renin-angiotensin system (RAS).Which condition is the primary stimulus for its activation?
Q4) Excess potassium ions are eliminated from the body by the A) sweat glands.
B) kidneys.
C) liver.
D) digestive system.
E) spleen.
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Q5) What are the two mechanisms of bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule?

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Q1) Which of the following statements is True about GI muscle contractions?
A) Phasic contractions last only seconds and occur in the stomach and small intestine.
B) Tonic contractions are sustained for minutes and occur in the small intestine.
C) Cycles of smooth muscle contraction and relaxation are associated with fast wave potentials.
D) Contractions of the smooth muscle do not depend on calcium.
E) None of these statements are True.
Q2) After processing in the stomach, the gastric contents are referred to as A) feces.
B) food.
C) chyme.
D) filtrate.
Q3) In the digestive system, HCl is released by ________, whereas HCO is secreted primarily from the ________.
A) parietal cells of the stomach, pancreas
B) the pancreas, parietal cells of the stomach
C) parietal cells of the stomach, liver
D) the liver, parietal cells of the stomach
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Q1) The Atkins and South Beach diets are considered ketogenic because
A) Type I diabetics use them.
B) they cause the body to burn calories from non-carbohydrate sources.
C) they shift one's metabolism to increased levels of glycolysis.
D) they have the potential to increase the body's pH.
E) they require people to eat large quantities of ketones.
Q2) The process of synthesizing glucose from lipids, amino acids, or other carbohydrates is called ________.
Q3) When blood levels of glucose, amino acids, and insulin are high, and glycogenesis is occurring in the liver, the body is in the
A) fasting state.
B) postabsorptive state.
C) absorptive state.
D) stress state.
E) bulimic state.
Q4) wound healing, recovering from surgery
A)chemical work
B)transport work
C)mechanical work
Q5) ________ is a test used to measure insulin response.
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Q1) Explain how cortisol suppresses the immune system, and why this is sometimes a useful therapy.What are some negative side effects of cortisol therapy? Why do doctors prescribe cortisol in doses that taper off at the end of the therapy period? Why do doctors sometimes prefer to prescribe nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?
Q2) Pick one hormone from Chapter 23 and design a concept map showing the feedback pattern, types of hormone receptors and how this relates to normal cellular / tissue responses, and areas in the map which could be the cause of pathologies (i.e., hyposecretion, hyperresponsiveness).
Q3) easily observable symptom of hypercortisolism
A)giantism
B)kyphosis
C)moon face
D)myxedema
E)goiter
Q4) Structurally similar steroids sometimes bind to the same receptor, producing ________ effects.
Q5) What are the symptoms and causes of Cushing's disease? How do they compare and contrast with symptoms and causes of Addison's disease?
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Q1) Compare and contrast the nature of the pathogens in bacterial and viral infections.
Q2) A fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA type antibody.This fluid is probably A) blood.
B) lymph.
C) serum.
D) tears.
E) intracellular.
Q3) In order for a lymphocyte to respond to an antigen, the antigen must A) be phagocytized by the lymphocyte.
B) enter the cytoplasm of the lymphocyte.
C) bind to the DNA of the lymphocyte.
D) bind to specific receptors on the lymphocyte membrane.
E) depolarize the lymphocyte.
Q4) The ability of certain cells to mobilize in response to changes in their chemical environment is called ________.
Q5) Infected cells are killed by perforin and granzymes.
A)specific
B)nonspecific
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Q1) Susie has hyperthyroidism.How might this affect ATP production during exercise?
Q2) Sweat glands contain A) cholinergic receptors.
B) alpha-1 receptors.
C) alpha-2 receptors.
D) beta receptors.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) With endurance training, muscle mitochondria increase in A) size only.
B) number only.
C) size and number.
D) neither size nor number.
Q4) With heat acclimatization, A) sweating becomes more productive.
B) aldosterone increases.
C) sweating becomes more concentrated.
D) sweating becomes more productive and aldosterone increases.
E) aldosterone increases and sweating becomes more concentrated.
Q5) List and discuss the benefits of exercise, especially in regard to decreased risk of cardiovascular disease.
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Q1) human chorionic gonadotropin
A)Leydig cells
B)granulosa cells
C)corpus luteum
D)placenta
Q2) Erectile dysfunction can be an early indicator of
A) kidney failure.
B) atherosclerosis.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) hypotension.
E) multiple sclerosis.
Q3) Which of the following is a function of human placental lactogen?
A) It alters mother's glucose and fatty acid metabolism.
B) It stimulates contraction of the smooth muscle in the uterus during birth.
C) It is the primary signal for the release of breast milk.
D) It maintains the corpus luteum after fertilization.
E) It loosens the ligaments in the pelvic bone before birth.
Q4) In males, which cells are the primary targets for LH? What effect does the hormone have on these cells?
Q5) Explain how modern birth control pills work as contraceptives.
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