Pre-Medical Physiology Final
Exam
Course Introduction
Pre-Medical Physiology offers an in-depth exploration of the fundamental mechanisms that govern the function of the human body, with an emphasis on systems most relevant to future medical studies. This course covers cellular physiology, neurophysiology, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, gastrointestinal, endocrine, and musculoskeletal systems, integrating concepts of homeostasis and the physiological basis of disease. Through lectures, interactive discussions, and laboratory exercises, students gain critical insight into normal body function, laying the groundwork for clinical reasoning and advanced medical coursework. This course is essential for students planning to pursue a career in medicine or allied health sciences.
Recommended Textbook human physiology an integrated approach 6th edition by dee unglaub silverthorn
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seasonal Affective Depressive Disorder or SADD is a condition commonly seen in Northern climates of the United States and Canada and it may be due to a decrease in the amount of sunlight they receive during winter months.How is this condition related to biological rhythms and what process is not being compensated for well enough?
Answer: The change in exposure to sunlight may affect the release of a hormone from the pineal gland known as melatonin.Also,it can drastically lower the amount of vitamin D the skin is making from exposure to ultraviolet light.The body of some individuals does not change its patterns during the winter months,so they do not acclimatize as well as they should and develop signs and symptoms of SADD.
Q2) Which of the following is a buffer zone between the outside world and most of the cells of the body?
A) blood
B) lumen
C) lymph
D) extracellular fluid
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Q1) Using NaCl to illustrate,explain atomic mass and molecular mass,and an estimated and true mass of one molecule.Your explanation should include the appropriate measurement unit for each,and why the estimated and true masses are not exactly identical.
Answer: The atomic mass is the actual mass of an atom,expressed in atomic mass units (amu)or daltons (Da),where 1 amu = 1.6 × 10<sup>-27</sup> kg.Because most of the mass of an atom is contributed by the protons and neutrons,each of which is about 1 amu,the mass can be estimated by counting the number of these particles.The number of protons and neutrons is roughly equal,so the atomic number can simply be doubled to estimate the atomic mass.From the atomic number (see the periodic table)the estimated atomic mass of sodium is 22 amu and of chloride is 34 amu.The mass of a molecule (usually expressed in Da instead of amu)of NaCl is 22 + 34 = 56 Da.From the periodic table,the true weight of Cl is actually closer to 36 amu and of Na is 23 amu,so the true mass of NaCl is closer to 59 Da.There are two reasons why the estimated and actual are not the same: the mass of protons and neutrons is actually greater than one,and the number of neutrons may be more or less than double the number of protons.
Q2) Ions with a positive charge are called ________.
Answer: cations
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Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) osteocyte
A)cartilage
B)destroys bone matrix
C)loose connective tissue
D)fat
E)maintains bone matrix
Answer: E
Q2) Functions of connective tissue include
A) establishing a structural framework for the body.
B) transporting fluids and dissolved materials.
C) providing protection for delicate organs.
D) storing energy reserves.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q3) The fluid substance of blood is called ________.
Answer: plasma
Q4) The combination of fibers and ground substance in supporting connective tissues is known as ________.
Answer: (extracellular)matrix
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Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transcription of the DNA triplet sequence CAT will bind to the tRNA bearing A) CAT.
B) GTA.
C) GUA.
D) ATU.
Q2) Based on the facts about chemical equilibria in animal systems,indicate for each summary reaction below if it is reversible or irreversible (don't worry about balancing the reactions).Explain the lack of reversibility.In what kind of system would the reaction(s)you selected as irreversible be reversible? Explain.
A.C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> CO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O
B.ADP + P<sub>i</sub> ATP
C.H<sub>2</sub>O + CO<sub>2</sub> H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
Q3) An exergonic chemical reaction
A) converts substrates into products that have more free energy.
B) releases energy as the reaction progresses.
C) requires the input of energy.
D) requires an enzyme in order to overcome the activation energy.
Q4) A chemical reaction that can proceed in both directions is called a ________.
Q5) Define the law of mass action.
Q6) Chemical reactions that release energy are said to be ________.
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Q1) Refer to Table 5.1.How can you determine the osmolarity and tonicity of the alien blood and alien cells?
Q2) Water is a polar molecule,yet it easily moves through the nonpolar portions of cell membranes.Which transport process is responsible?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) simple diffusion
C) uniport
D) symport
E) antiport
Q3) The membrane proteins that bind to a ligand and act in the body's chemical signaling system are ________.
Q4) Carrier proteins operating at their maximum rate are said to be ________.
Q5) from an organ's lumen to the extracellular fluid
A)secretion
B)paracellular transport
C)transcellular transport
D)absorption
Q6) Explain the differences between channel proteins and carrier proteins and why cells need both.
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Q1) The nervous system has a role in preserving the "fitness" of the ________.
Q2) The ________ link membrane receptors to either ion channels or to membrane enzymes located on the cytoplasmic face of the membrane.
Q3) A physiological parameter which is regulated in an up-down fashion by signals that are always present but change in intensity is said to be under ________.
Q4) the minimum stimulus to trigger a response
A)threshold
B)effector
C)integrating center
D)setpoint
E)sensory receptor
Q5) Why do some normal cells fail to respond to a chemical signal?
A) Chemical signals are only delivered to specific cells.
B) Some cells lack the necessary receptors.
C) Some cells are completely without receptors.
D) Some cells are completely without ligands.
E) Signal chemicals often break down before reaching a distant target.
Q6) Peripheral cells sensitive to the presence of hormones are called ________.
Q7) Describe the four classes of membrane receptor molecules.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Q1) ________ is a decrease in the number of receptors of target cells in order to dampen the effects of excess hormone.
Q2) The anterior pituitary gland is also known as the ________.
Q3) The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormones is usually
A) cAMP.
B) cGMP.
C) adenylyl cyclase.
D) a G protein.
E) calcium.
Q4) The inner portion of the adrenal gland is called the ________.
Q5) The pituitary hormone that stimulates cell growth and metabolism in many tissues is
A) ACTH.
B) MSH.
C) prolactin.
D) insulin.
E) somatotropin.
Q6) The ________ of a hormone is an indicator of how long a hormone is active in the body.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) The collection of axons that carries information between the central nervous system and the peripheral effectors is called the
A) axon hillock.
B) varicosity.
C) axon.
D) dendrite.
E) nerve.
Q2) Presynaptic facilitation occurs when
A) extracellular concentration of sodium increases.
B) extracellular concentration of potassium increases.
C) calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane are inhibited.
D) calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane remain open longer.
E) temporal summation occurs.
Q3) Discuss the membrane permeabilities of major ions and how they contribute to the overall resting membrane potential of neurons.
Q4) At a(n)________ synapse,a neurotransmitter is released to affect the postsynaptic cell.
Q5) Use the Nernst equation to predict the membrane potential for each ion.
Q6) The two types of electrical signals in neurons are ________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mixed cranial nerve that projects to and from internal organs,muscles,and glands is the ________ nerve.
A) trochlear
B) spinal accessory
C) trigeminal
D) vagus
E) glossopharyngeal
Q2) Define implicit and explicit memory.
Q3) When a puppy is scolded "No!" each time he chews on your ficus tree,eventually he learns to leave the tree alone.This type of learning is called A) associative.
B) nonassociative.
C) habituation.
D) sensitization.
Q4) If sensitization is the opposite of habituation,and sensitization is adaptive,would habituation be considered maladaptive? Why or why not?
Q5) In annelids,simple reflexes occurring within a segment (i.e.,without brain input)are possible because of ________; in vertebrates these reflexes are called ________.
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Light only shines on the center of an on-center visual field.
A)fully excited
B)fully inhibited
C)weak response
Q2) tinnitus
A)damage to the cerebral cortex
B)degeneration of hair cells
C)ringing in the ears
D)dizziness and nausea
E)problems with structures of the middle ear
Q3) The hair cell of the cochlea is depolarized when the stereocilia are bent
A) in any direction.
B) towards the smallest stereocilia.
C) towards the tallest stereocilia.
D) towards the middle stereocilia.
E) Hair cells are not depolarized by bending of the sterocilia.
Q4) List and describe the two types of retinal bipolar cells and how they respond differently to the same neurotransmitter?
Q5) Discuss the structure and function of the cochlea.
Q6) Each olfactory receptor cell extends a(n)________ into the mucus layer.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
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Q1) The ________ is the major source of parasympathetic output.
Q2) Describe the major anatomical differences between the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.
Q3) The signal molecule ________ elicits the stronger response from alpha receptors.
Q4) What steps are necessary to terminate neurotransmitter action? What would happen if these steps failed?
Q5) Antagonistic control of efferent output is typical of the ________ division.
A) somatic
B) sensory
C) autonomic
D) somatic and sensory
E) somatic and autonomic
Q6) salivation
A)sympathetic agonist
B)parasympathetic agonist
Q7) blocks sweating
A)sympathetic antagonist
B)parasympathetic antagonist
Q8) Cholinergic muscarinic receptors are found at the ________ in the ANS. Page 13
Q9) Autonomic neurotransmitters are synthesized in the ________.
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Chapter 12: Muscles
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Q1) In comparison to skeletal muscle,smooth muscle cells function over a ________ range of muscle lengths and exhibit a speed of contraction that is ________ than skeletal muscle.
Q2) What are the three types of muscle tissues in the human body? What are the two common functions of muscles?
Q3) The nervous system avoids muscle fatigue during submaximal contraction by
A) always recruiting slow-twitch motor units.
B) asynchronous recruitment.
C) synchronous recruitment.
D) always recruiting fast-twitch motor units.
Q4) When a skeletal muscle generates enough force during contraction to shorten,
A) only the sarcomere will shorten.
B) only the A band will shorten.
C) only the I band will shorten.
D) the sarcomere and the I band will shorten.
E) the sarcomere, the A band and the I band will shorten.
Q5) Smooth muscle fibers can sustain a contraction without fatigue by allowing dephosphorylated myosin to remain attached to actin in what is called the ________.
Q6) Store-operated calcium channels open in response to ________.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) several neurons involved in a pathway; can be complex
A)somatic
B)autonomic
C)spinal
D)cranial
E)innate
F)acquired
G)polysynaptic
Q2) You are a technician in a neuroanatomy lab,and it's your first day of training to learn a technique of labeling neurons.Your boss tells you that you will fill individual motor neurons,by injecting horseradish peroxidase (HRP)conjugated to tetanus toxin,into a skeletal muscle.How could this possibly label the neurons?
Q3) The sensory fibers of the muscle spindle organs synapse onto A) Golgi tendon organs.
B) gamma motor neurons.
C) alpha motor neurons.
D) joint receptors.
Q4) Explain alpha-gamma coactivation.
Page 16
Q5) The tension maintained in a muscle at rest is known as ________.
Q6) How does the stretch reflex protect a muscle?
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Page 17
Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Q1) The chambers of the heart that pump blood into the arteries are the ________.
Q2) When a quantity is expressed as "4 cm/sec," what is being described is the A) flow rate.
B) velocity of flow.
C) pressure.
D) pressure gradient.
E) volume.
Q3) A heart with cells contracting rapidly in a disorganized manner,with no effective pumping action,is said to be in ________.
Q4) If the membranes of the cardiac muscle cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions,
A) the heart rate will increase.
B) the heart rate will decrease.
C) the membrane will depolarize.
D) the stroke volume will increase.
E) the intracellular concentration of calcium ion will increase.
Q5) A resting heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute is identified as ________.
Q6) Name the three portal systems in the body.
Q7) The ________ is a wall that separates the two sides of the heart.
Page 18
Q8) The most proximal arteries to branch from the aorta are the ________.
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Q1) Restoring lost fluid from the capillaries back to the circulatory system is one of the major functions of the ________ system.
A) urinary
B) thirst-quenching
C) lymphatic
D) immune
E) digestive
Q2) The only blood vessels whose walls permit exchange between the blood and the surrounding interstitial fluids are the
A) arterioles.
B) venules.
C) capillaries.
D) arterioles and capillaries.
E) venules and capillaries.
Q3) Due to the differences in opposing forces,there is net ________ occurring at the arteriolar end of most capillaries,coupled with net ________ at the venous end.
A) absorption, filtration
B) filtration, absorption
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Q1) The carrier protein that transports absorbed iron through the blood is
A) hemoglobin.
B) transferrin.
C) erythropoietin.
D) thrombopoietin.
E) intrinsic factor.
Q2) Cancer chemotherapy is designed to destroy cancer cells,but adversely affects healthy tissues as well; thus the oncologist has the difficult task of killing the cancer without killing the patient.What side effects are expected from destruction of blood cells?
Q3) The percentage of cells in blood-producing tissues that become white blood cells is about ________%.
A) 90
B) 10
C) 50
D) 25
E) 75
Q4) What nutrients are required for red blood cell synthesis and why? What is blood doping? How is it detected? How is blood doping different from simply good nutrition?
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type I alveolar cells
A) allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes.
B) secrete a chemical known as surfactant.
C) are phagocytic.
D) allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes, secrete a chemical known as surfactant, and are phagocytic.
E) None of the statements are true.
Q2) In the lungs,an example of the body's reserve capacity is that
A) some areas of the lung can be closed off during rest and opened again when needed during exercise.
B) capillary beds in the lungs are reversibly collapsible, allowing blood to be shunted to additional areas during exercise.
C) pulmonary blood flow is completely under the control of the autonomic nervous system, dilating arteries and arterioles to adjust blood flow.
D) All of the statements are true.
E) None of the statements are true.
Q3) What is surfactant? Why is it important?
Q4) What are the functions of pleural fluid?
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Q1) Which is typically more important in regulating the respiratory system,P<sub>O</sub><sub>2</sub> or P<sub>CO</sub><sub>2</sub>? Explain your answer and briefly discuss the receptors involved.Give examples of situations in which each of those factors changes enough to stimulate a reflex.How and why are these factors related to each other?
Q2) What are the three ways CO<sub>2</sub> is transported in blood? Approximately what percentage is transported by each way?
Q3) In the medulla oblongata,the nucleus tractus solitarius contains the ________ of neurons.
A) pontine respiratory group
B) ventral respiratory group
C) dorsal respiratory group
D) pre-Botzinger complex
Q4) Which of the following would make the oxygen-hemoglobin curve shift right?
A) increased H<sup>+</sup> concentration
B) increased pH
C) decreased temperature
D) decreased CO<sub>2</sub>
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q5) Diffusion rate is directly proportional to ________ and ________.
Page 22
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Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Q1) Patrick's urine sample reveals a high concentration of glucose.Is glucose normally present in urine? Suggest two possible mechanisms to explain why the kidney would excrete excess glucose,and what abnormality may underlie those conditions.
Q2) Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed by
A) diffusion.
B) symport with sodium.
C) cotransport.
D) countertransport.
Q3) Place the following blood vessels that carry blood to and within the kidney in the order in which blood passes through them.
1)afferent arteriole
2)efferent arteriole
3)glomerulus
4)peritubular capillary
A) 4, 2, 3, 1
B) 1, 3, 2, 4
C) 4, 3, 2, 1
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
E) 3, 4, 2, 1
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Page 23
Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Q1) Kidneys regulate
A) water loss only.
B) water gain only.
C) both water loss and gain.
Q2) When the pH of body fluids begins to fall,proteins will
A) release a hydrogen from the carboxyl group.
B) release a hydrogen from the amino group.
C) bind a hydrogen at the carboxyl group.
D) bind a hydrogen at the amino group.
E) cause none of these actions.
Q3) Most body water is located
A) in plasma.
B) in interstitial fluid.
C) inside cells.
D) in lumens of organs open to the outside.
Q4) The principal ions in the ECF are ________.
Q5) The ________ cells of the distal nephron are interspersed among the principal cells and contribute to acid-base regulation.
Q6) How do kidneys alter urine concentration?
Q7) Removal of excess water in urine is known as ________. Page 24
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Q1) ________ are short segments of intestine that alternately contract and relax.They are responsible for ________.
Q2) blocks cholesterol absorption
A)ezetimbe
B)ferroportin
C)hepcidin
D)DMT1
E)NPC1L1
Q3) During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion,
A) the stomach responds to distention.
B) secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells.
C) there is an increased flow of action potentials along the vagus nerve to the stomach.
D) the intestine reflexively inhibits gastric emptying.
E) production of gastric juice slows down.
Q4) List the six types of epithelial cells associated with gastric glands.Briefly describe each one's role in the stomach.
Q5) Digestion is essentially completed in the ________.
Q6) List and briefly describe the action of peptides in the GI tract.
Q7) What would be the nutritional consequence of excessive antacid use?
Page 26
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Q1) working on a dock,loading and unloading boxes into trucks all day
A)chemical work
B)transport work
C)mechanical work
Q2) One kilocalorie (kcal)is the amount of energy needed to raise one ________ of water by 1 degree Celsius.
A) milliliter
B) tablespoon
C) cup
D) liter
E) gallon
Q3) Adipocytes secrete the hormone
A) ghrelin.
B) leptin.
C) neuropeptide Y.
D) orexin.
E) insulin.
Q4) The production of heat from rhythmic tremors of skeletal muscle is referred to as ________.
Q5) The loss of water in the urine due to unreabsorbed solutes is known as ________.
Page 27
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Q1) Explain how the mutant agouti mouse is proving useful as a model for obesity-related disease.
Q2) hyperthyroidism
A)Addison's disease
B)Cushing's disease
C)Graves' disease
D)Paget's disease
Q3) Some symptoms mimic diabetes mellitus.
A)Addison's disease
B)Cushing's disease
C)Graves' disease
D)Paget's disease
Q4) Rani has read how important Ca<sup>2+</sup> ions are to muscle contraction and neuron function.Rani,age 25,hates milk and most dairy products,and doesn't think she eats many foods that are sources of calcium,nor does she take supplements.Why don't Rani's muscles and nerves show problems related to calcium deficiency? What problems might Rani encounter later in life if she continues this lifestyle?
Q5) What are the two distinct endocrine cell types that comprise the thyroid gland,and what do they secrete?
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Q1) Which of the following acts as the earliest form of defense against exogenous pathogens in the list?
A) inflammation
B) lymphocytes
C) macrophages
D) skin
Q2) binds to mast cells,triggering degranulation
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgG
D)IgD
E)IgE
Q3) ________ is the immunoglobulin class that comprises 75% of antibodies in adult blood.
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
Q4) Compare and contrast innate and acquired immunity.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Q1) With heat acclimatization,
A) sweating becomes more productive.
B) aldosterone increases.
C) sweating becomes more concentrated.
D) sweating becomes more productive and aldosterone increases.
E) aldosterone increases and sweating becomes more concentrated.
Q2) Which of the following hormones increase(s)in concentration in the plasma during exercise?
A) cortisol
B) catecholamines
C) insulin
D) cortisol and catecholamines
E) cortisol, catecholamines, and insulin
Q3) Dehydration causes
A) fluid to shift from the ECF to the ICF.
B) decreased secretion of ADH.
C) increased thirst.
D) increased levels of aldosterone.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of glycolytic metabolism.
Page 30
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Explain how modern birth control pills work as contraceptives.
Q2) Polyspermy in humans results in A) twins.
B) triplets.
C) individuals with haploid cells.
D) tetraploid adults.
E) a nonfunctional zygote.
Q3) secondary spermatocyte or oocyte
A)haploid
B)diploid
Q4) Which of the following hormones is NOT produced by the placenta?
A) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B) human placental lactogen (hPL)
C) relaxin
D) luteinizing hormone
E) progesterone
Q5) While still undifferentiated,gametes are called ________.
Q6) primary spermatocyte or oocyte
A)haploid
B)diploid
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