Pre-Medical Physiology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Pre-Medical Physiology provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental principles governing the functions of the human body, serving as a critical foundation for future studies in medicine and health sciences. The course examines the physiological mechanisms underlying key systems such as the cardiovascular, respiratory, nervous, renal, and endocrine systems. Emphasis is placed on homeostasis, cellular communication, and the integration of system functions. Students will develop an understanding of how the body maintains normal function, adapts to changing environments, and responds to disease, preparing them for more advanced coursework in medical and health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook human physiology an integrated approach 6th edition by dee unglaub silverthorn
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2981 Verified Questions
2981 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) You conduct an experiment on twenty 18-year-old male subjects to see how various levels of exercise influence heart rate.Explain why only 18-year-old males were used as subjects.
Answer: An important part of scientific inquiry is to remove sources of variation from among subjects.By choosing subjects of one gender in a particular age group,it is easier to determine that the dependent variable (heart rate,in this case)depends only on the independent variable,level of exercise.This also allows a study to have fewer participants,assuming that subjects were randomly assigned to a level of exercise.If subjects were of random ages and genders,data would have to be collected from many more individuals.
Q2) Explain why the prefix homeo- is used in the term homeostasis.Why do some physiologists prefer the term homeodynamics over homeostasis?
Answer: The prefix homeo-,meaning like or similar,is used to indicate that the body's internal environment is maintained within a range of acceptable values rather than a fixed state.Some physiologists argue that the term homeodynamics better reflects the small but constant changes that continuously take place in the internal environment,as opposed to homeostasis,which erroneously implies lack of change.
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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The molecule RNA contains the five-carbon sugar ________. Answer: ribose
Q2) 100 mg/dL is a typical blood concentration of glucose.The molecular weight of glucose is approximately 180 daltons.What is the molarity of this solution in millimoles?
A) 100
B) 10
C) 0.56
D) 18
E) 5.6
Answer: E
Q3) The fuel molecule all cells in the body can use is A) sucrose.
B) starch. C) protein.
D) vitamins.
E) glucose.
Answer: E
Q4) The purines found in DNA are ________ and ________. Answer: adenine,guanine
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Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) mitochondrion
A)membranous organelle
B)Inclusion
Answer: A
Q2) A layer of glycoproteins and a network of fine protein filaments that prevents the movement of proteins and other large molecules from the connective tissue to epithelium describes
A) interfacial canals.
B) the basal lamina.
C) the reticular lamina.
D) areolar tissue.
E) endothelium.
Answer: B
Q3) If a cell lacked lysosomes,it would not be able to
A) synthesize lipids.
B) produce enzymes.
C) digest cellular wastes and bacteria.
D) destroy H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>.
E) transport water-soluble molecules.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once the mRNA for a particular gene has been transcribed,how is the mRNA that will be released from the nucleus processed?
Q2) What happens to the oxygen that is metabolized within the mitochondria?
A) The oxygen is converted to CO<sub>2</sub>.
B) The oxygen is incorporated into organic molecules during cellular metabolism.
C) The oxygen is combined with hydrogen to form water.
D) The oxygen acts as a coenzyme in the production of ATP.
E) The oxygen is converted to CO<sub>2</sub> and is combined with hydrogen to form water.
Q3) Enzymes are often useful as diagnostic tools.How?
A) Enzymes destroy pathogenic bacteria so blood levels of bacteria decline.
B) Enzymes destroy damaged cells so X-rays reveal smaller body organs.
C) Damaged cells release enzymes into the blood that can be detected.
D) The liver releases enzymes that accumulate in the urine.
Q4) An exergonic chemical reaction
A) converts substrates into products that have more free energy.
B) releases energy as the reaction progresses.
C) requires the input of energy.
D) requires an enzyme in order to overcome the activation energy.
Q5) Glucose is phosphorylated to ________ with a phosphate from ________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are molarity and osmolarity different? What property of salts necessitates this distinction? How does this property affect the behavior of water?
Q2) There are two solutions separated by a semipermeable membrane.Solution a is 0.3 M glucose,and solution b is 0.15 M NaCl.Will there be a net flow of water across this membrane? Why or why not?
Q3) Explain why transporting epithelial cells are said to be polarized.What does it mean when a nerve cell is said to be polarized?
Q4) If a 10% sucrose solution is separated from a 20% sucrose solution by a membrane permeable to sucrose,in which direction will net diffusion of sucrose take place?
A) from the 10% sucrose solution to the 20% sucrose solution
B) from the 20% sucrose solution to the 10% sucrose solution
C) There will be no diffusion in this case.
D) from the 10% sucrose solution to the 20% sucrose solution and from the 20% sucrose solution
E) neither from the 10% sucrose solution to the 20% sucrose solution nor from the 20% sucrose solution to the 10% sucrose solution
Q5) Distinguish between the following terms: cotransport; antiport; symport.
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an orphan receptor?
Q2) When adenylyl cyclase is activated,
A) calcium ions are released from intracellular stores.
B) cAMP is formed.
C) cAMP is broken down.
D) protein kinases are metabolized.
E) steroids are produced.
Q3) What is the half-life of a signal?
Q4) What are NSAIDs,what is their function,and what are some drawbacks to their use?
Q5) Homeostatic control that takes place at the tissue or cell by using paracrine or autocrine signals is called ________.
A) local control
B) reflex control
C) Cannon's law
D) down-regulation
Q6) A physiological parameter which is regulated in an up-down fashion by signals that are always present but change in intensity is said to be under ________.
Q7) All molecules secreted by nerve cells (neuromodulators,neurotransmitters,and neurohormones)are known as ________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) site of vasopressin synthesis
A)peptide hormone
B)steroid hormone
C)amino acid-derived hormone
D)anterior pituitary
E)hypothalamus
F)posterior pituitary
Q2) Carl is suffering from hypothyroidism.What is hypothyroidism? How could his physician determine whether the malfunction is in the hypothalamus and pituitary or at the level of the gland itself?
Q3) lipophobic molecule that interacts with receptors on cell surface
A)peptide hormone
B)steroid hormone
C)amino acid-derived hormone
D)anterior pituitary
E)hypothalamus
F)posterior pituitary
Q4) What are two benefits of having a portal system that connects the hypothalamus with the anterior pituitary gland? Are there any other endocrine axes connected by a portal system?
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) The addition of several stimuli arriving from different locations on the same cell to produce an action potential is called ________.
Q2) Graded potentials that arrive at postsynaptic neurons are called ________ if they make that cell less likely to fire.
Q3) astrocytes
A)central nervous system
B)peripheral nervous system
Q4) The Nernst equation predicts
A) intracellular ion concentrations.
B) extracellular ion concentrations
C) the membrane potential resulting from all permeable ions.
D) the membrane potential resulting from permeability to a single ion.
E) the threshold membrane potential.
Q5) Spatial summation refers to
A) electrical signals reaching neurons from outer space.
B) multiple graded potentials arriving at one location simultaneously.
C) repeated graded potentials reaching the trigger zone one after the other.
D) suprathreshold potentials triggering action potentials that are extra large.
E) All of the answers are correct.
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) projections of white matter that remain in the spinal cord
A)gray matter
B)white matter
C)ascending tracts
D)descending tracts
E)propriospinal tracts
Q2) Describe a lumbar puncture and explain its purpose.
Q3) occipital lobe
A)primary somatic sensory cortex
B)visual cortex
C)auditory cortex
D)association areas
Q4) Describe the physical protection afforded by the cerebrospinal fluid.
Q5) The first multicellular animals to develop neurons were
A) jellyfish and sea anemones.
B) flatworms and sea urchins.
C) segmented worms and sea horses.
D) mollusks and sea stars.
E) fish and sea monkeys.
Q6) Do the terms vertebral column and spinal cord mean the same thing? Explain.
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure that overlies the organ of Corti and is attached to the tips of the hair cells is the
A) basilar membrane.
B) tectorial membrane.
C) stapedius.
D) perilymph.
E) endolymph.
Q2) While a photoreceptor responds to a single photon of light,a person cannot see a single photon.Explain.
Q3) A ________ is a single energy packet of visible light.
Q4) Sensory receptors that respond when body temperature is below normal are called A) warm receptors.
B) photoreceptors.
C) cold receptors.
D) All receptors respond to temperatures above and below body temperature (no unique name).
Q5) ________ ganglion cells transmit information about texture,while ________ ganglion cells transmit information about movement.
Q6) The hair cells of the cochlear duct are located in the ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) blocks secretion of adrenal catecholamines
A)sympathetic antagonist
B)parasympathetic antagonist
Q2) Describe the different types of cholinergic receptors in the nervous system.Which neurotransmitter binds to each type?
Q3) The cell bodies of preganglionic neurons are found either in the brain stem or in the sacral region of the spinal cord.
A)true only for the sympathetic division
B)true only for the parasympathetic division
C)true for both divisions
Q4) Describe the general rules for the identity of neurotransmitters secreted by pre- and postganglionic neurons in the autonomic division.Be sure to specify the types of receptors,where relevant,and describe the exceptions.
Q5) The two divisions of the efferent side of the peripheral nervous system are
A) somatic motor neurons and voluntary neurons.
B) somatic motor neurons and autonomic neurons.
C) the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
D) voluntary nervous system and somatic motor neurons.
Q6) Cholinergic muscarinic receptors are found at the ________ in the ANS.
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Chapter 12: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The T-tubular membrane contains ________ receptors that are ________ and therefore respond to action potentials.This receptor is mechanically linked to ________ receptors in the adjacent sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a property of single-unit smooth muscles?
A) All smooth muscle cells are connected by gap junctions.
B) Their contraction occurs in a coordinated manner.
C) Electrical responses travel directly between cells.
D) Only a proportion of the smooth muscle cells receive autonomic nervous input.
E) Each cell functions independent of its neighbor.
Q3) During heavy exercise,the ATP requirements of active muscle are likely to be met by metabolism of
A) protein.
B) fatty acids.
C) carbohydrates.
D) nucleotides.
Q4) Fatigue that occurs in response to extended submaximal exertion is usually due to ________ whereas fatigue to a short duration of maximal exertion involves
Q5) Store-operated calcium channels open in response to ________.
Q6) Describe the process of relaxation of a skeletal muscle fiber.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "normal" contractile fibers of the muscle are also called the A) extrafusal fibers.
B) intrafusal fibers.
C) muscle spindle fibers.
Q2) You are studying for your physiology test with your lab partner.She insists that the purpose of the knee jerk reflex is to test for neural or muscular damage.State whether or not you agree with her,and why.
Q3) an example would be slowing or speeding the heart and other internal organs that are not consciously controlled
A)somatic
B)autonomic
C)spinal
D)cranial
E)innate
F)acquired
G)polysynaptic
Q4) Rhythmic reflexive motor activities,such as breathing or walking,are controlled by networks of neurons in the central nervous system called ________.
Q5) Most reflexes are regulated by ________.
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The heart is enclosed in the ________.
Q2) Electrical shock to the heart is usually used to treat A) ventricular fibrillation.
B) atrial fibrillation.
C) heart block.
D) heart murmur.
E) myocardial infarction.
Q3) The AV node delays the transmission of action potentials slightly to allow ________.
Q4) The importance of the plateau phase of the action potential of myocardial cells is in A) preventing overstretching of the cells.
B) enhancing the efficiency of oxygen use by the cells.
C) preventing tetanus.
D) preventing fibrillation.
E) regulating Ca<sup>2+</sup> availability to the cells.
Q5) The most proximal arteries to branch from the aorta are the ________.
Q6) The primary function of the cardiovascular system is ________.
Q7) Explain what a portal system is and give an example.How is a portal system different from the typical arrangement of vessels?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reactive hyperemia is
A) lack of blood flow due to an allergic reaction.
B) increased blood flow following a period of reduced blood flow.
C) increased blood pressure after stress.
D) reflex contraction of smooth muscle in response to stress.
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q2) Angiostatin and endostatin may be useful in the treatment of A) myocardial infarction.
B) hypertension.
C) hypotension.
D) cancer.
E) vasovagal syncope.
Q3) The decrease in blood pressure upon standing is known as ________.
Q4) Define and describe the mechanism of myogenic autoregulation.
Q5) Children who suffer from protein starvation have bloated bellies of ascites (an accumulation of fluid in the tissue spaces of the abdomen).How would a shortage of protein in the diet cause this condition?
Q6) The osmotic pressure created by the presence of proteins is known as ________,which is (higher/lower)in the plasma than in the interstitial fluid.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the disease mononucleosis ("mono"),the spleen enlarges because of increased numbers of cells,phagocytic as well as others.Common symptoms of this disease include pale complexion,a tired feeling,and a lack of energy sometimes to the point of not being able to get out of bed.What might cause these symptoms?
Q2) A person who goes from sea level to a city that is 5000 feet above sea level will show an increased hematocrit within 2 to 3 days.Draw the reflex pathway that links the hypoxia of high altitude to increased red blood cell production.
Q3) The usual treatment for neonatal jaundice is exposing the infant to certain wavelengths of light.The infant wears only a diaper and undergoes the light treatment continuously for several days,even at night.Why can the infant's treatement then be discontinued?
A) because light treatment stimulates liver growth
B) because the transition between fetal hemoglobin to adult is complete
C) because the light generates additional RBCs
D) because the digestive tract is then large enough to secrete bile
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations.
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lower respiratory tract includes
A) all of the bronchial branches.
B) only the lungs.
C) only the trachea.
D) all of the bronchial branches and the lungs
E) all of the bronchial branches, the lungs, and the trachea.
Q2) An increase in P<sub>CO</sub><sub>2</sub> would cause
A) the bronchioles to dilate and the systemic arterioles to dilate.
B) the bronchioles to dilate and the systemic arterioles to constrict.
C) the bronchioles to constrict and the systemic arterioles to dilate.
D) the bronchioles to constrict and the systemic arterioles to constrict.
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q3) Premature babies frequently need to be put on a respirator to help them breathe.Why does this become a necessary treatment for many premature babies?
Q4) The pressure contributed by a single gas in a mixture of gases is known as ________.
Q5) The opposing layers of pleural membrane are held together by a thin film of ________.
Q6) Distinguish between cellular and external respiration.
Q7) Summarize the four gas laws.
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) thickened alveolar membrane and decreased lung compliance
A)fibrotic lung disease
B)emphysema
C)asthma
D)pulmonary edema
Q2) Which is typically more important in regulating the respiratory system,P<sub>O</sub><sub>2</sub> or P<sub>CO</sub><sub>2</sub>? Explain your answer and briefly discuss the receptors involved.Give examples of situations in which each of those factors changes enough to stimulate a reflex.How and why are these factors related to each other?
Q3) Define hyperventilation and explain what may cause it.Is the increased ventilation that occurs while exercising an example of hyperventilation? Explain your answer.How are P<sub>O</sub><sub>2</sub> and P<sub>CO</sub><sub>2</sub> affected by hyperventilation? Can breathing into a paper bag remedy hyperventilation or is this just unfounded folk medicine? Explain.
Q4) increased diffusion distance
A)fibrotic lung disease
B)emphysema
C)asthma
D)pulmonary edema
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Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) Technically,the kidneys are located
A) in the thoracic cavity.
B) in the abdominal cavity.
C) behind the pleural membranes.
D) behind the peritoneal membrane.
E) in the pelvic cavity.
Q2) An obstruction in a glomerulus would affect the flow of blood into the A) renal artery.
B) efferent arteriole.
C) afferent arteriole.
D) renal vein.
Q3) The amount of filtrate entering the proximal tubules of the kidneys each minute is the ________.
Q4) The percentage of total plasma volume that filters is called the ________.
Q5) glucose
A)transcytosis
B)active transport
C)symport with a cation
D)passive reabsorption/diffusion
Q6) The ________ are the long peritubular capillaries that dip into the medulla.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gossip,an undergraduate,has normal P<sub>CO</sub><sub>2</sub> levels,high H<sup>+</sup> levels,low pH and bicarbonate levels.What type of disturbance is Gossip suffering from and what might cause this? If his P<sub>CO</sub><sub>2</sub> were elevated,would your answer change? Explain.
Q2) When the pH of the extracellular fluid declines,
A) the kidneys excrete more sodium ions.
B) the kidneys excrete more bicarbonate ions.
C) the kidneys reabsorb more potassium ions.
D) the pH of the urine increases.
E) the kidneys reabsorb less water.
Q3) Paracrine feedback from the ________ in the distal tubule to the granular cells stimulates release of ________.
Q4) Diabetes mellitus produces many homeostatic imbalances,including acidosis.The pH imbalance is due to ketoacidosis,which results from excessive accumulation of by-products of fat metabolism,as the body cannot meet energy needs from carbohydrate metabolism.Sally is a teenaged diabetic who sometimes rebels by not taking her insulin.Her mother takes her to the hospital because her breathing has become deep and gasping.Explain Sally's breathing pattern.What other compensatory responses may occur,and would they occur earlier or later than the respiratory response?
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Short reflexes of the digestive system are integrated in the ________.
Q2) located at the ventral end of the cecum
A)appendix
B)colon
C)duodenum
D)ileum
E)jejunum
Q3) Slow waves are
A) cycles of smooth muscle contraction and relaxation.
B) spontaneous cycles of depolarization and repolarization.
C) reflexes that originate and are integrated in the enteric nervous system.
D) peristaltic contractions.
E) segmental contractions.
Q4) Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa is the
A) mucosa.
B) submucosa.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) myenteric plexus.
E) submucosal plexus.
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Q1) Low leptin levels have been observed in athletes with chronic negative energy balance.What might be a possible explanation for this? Would you expect neuropeptide Y (NPY)levels to be high? Explain.
Q2) Describe a ketogenic diet.What are the pros and cons of such a diet? How is ketosis related to diabetes mellitus?
Q3) ________ is known as insulin-resistant diabetes.
Q4) Anabolism is a term that describes
A) reactions that release energy.
B) reactions that require a net input of energy.
C) reactions that result in the synthesis of large biomolecules.
D) reactions that release energy and reactions that result in the synthesis of large biomolecules.
E) reactions that require a net input of energy and reactions that result in the synthesis of large biomolecules.
Q5) Most obese humans are deficient in leptin.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The loss of water in the urine due to unreabsorbed solutes is known as ________.
Q7) ________ is the direct transfer of heat energy from one object to another.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Q1) caused by growth hormone excess in adulthood
A)acromegaly
B)adrenogenital syndrome
C)cretinism
D)dwarfism
E)exophthalmus
Q2) Cortisol has the following effects:
A) suppresses the immune system.
B) causes positive calcium balance.
C) influences brain function.
D) suppresses the immune system and causes positive calcium balance.
E) suppresses the immune system and influences brain function.
Q3) Crossover effects are sometimes seen among
A) most hormones.
B) all hormones.
C) peptide/protein hormones.
D) steroid hormones.
Q4) The most important metabolic effect of ________ is protection against ________,crucial to surviving significant stress.
Q5) Define hypertrophy and hyperplasia,and describe their hormone regulation.
25
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast innate and acquired immunity.
Q2) A decrease in which population of lymphocytes would impair all aspects of an immune response?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) helper T cells
C) suppressor T cells
D) B lymphocytes
E) plasma cells
Q3) Bill wants to determine his blood type,so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera.His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A serum but not with the anti-B.Therefore this is true:
A) Bill could receive type B blood in a transfusion.
B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type B blood.
C) Bill is Rh positive.
D) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies.
E) Bill's plasma would cross-react with type O red blood cells.
Q4) Compare and contrast inflammation and infection.
Q5) Substances that can trigger an immune response are known as ________.
Page 26
Q6) Describe how a virus is eliminated in an immune response.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Q1) The adaption of the body to repeated exercise in hot environments occurs through a process called ________.
Q2) The maximal rate of consumption of ________ is used as a measurement of a person's ability to perform endurance exercise and is measured in what units? How is this molecule related to metabolism?
Q3) mean arterial pressure during exercise
A)increase
B)decrease
C)no change
Q4) Individuals with McArdle's disease cannot break down glycogen.How would this affect substrate utilization during exercise?
Q5) The process of creating glucose out of non-carbohydrate precursors to make more energy for exercise is referred to as
A) glycolysis.
B) gluconeogenesis.
C) ketolysis.
D) hydrosis.
Q6) Susie has hyperthyroidism.How might this affect ATP production during exercise?
Q7) Why is the normal baroreceptor reflex absent during exercise?
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The corpus luteum in a nonpregnant woman usually lasts about A) 7 days.
B) 12 days.
C) 3 days.
D) 28 days.
E) 3 months.
Q2) Human gametes contain ________ chromosomes.
Q3) During the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle,progesterone is ________ estrogen. A) greater than B) less than C) equal to
Q4) The ________ are fingerlike projections at the end of the uterine tube.
Q5) List the components of the uterus,including the layers of the wall.Briefly explain the function of each.
Q6) Gametes are produced by A) internal genitalia. B) external genitalia. C) gonads.
D) autosomes.
E) sex chromosomes.
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