Pre-Medical Biology Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Pre-Medical Biology is an introductory course designed for students preparing for medical school or allied health programs. The course covers fundamental biological concepts including cell structure and function, genetics, molecular biology, evolution, human anatomy, and physiology. Emphasis is placed on understanding the biological principles underlying health, disease, and medical treatments. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and critical analysis of scientific literature, students will develop the foundational knowledge and analytical skills necessary for advanced studies in the health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 7th Edition by Saladin
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30 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organs are made of tissues.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) ________________ established a code of ethics for physicians.He is considered the "father of medicine."
A)Aristotle
B)Hippocrates
C)Galen
D)Vesalius
E)Hooke
Answer: B
Q3) An _______________ is composed of two or more tissues types,whereas ____________ are microscopic structures in a cell.
A)organ system; organs
B)organ system; organelles
C)organ; organelles
D)organ; molecules
E)organelle; molecules
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solution that resists a change in pH when an acid or base is added to it is a(n)__________.
A)buffer
B)catalyst
C)reducing agent
D)oxidizing agent
E)colloid
Answer: A
Q2) The breakdown of starch by digestive enzymes into glucose molecules is a(n)__________ reaction.
A)synthesis
B)decomposition
C)exchange
D)anabolic
E)reduction
Answer: B
Q3) The high heat capacity of water makes it a very ineffective coolant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not associated with the composition of the cytoskeleton?
A)Microfilaments
B)Microtubules
C)Cilia
D)Intermediate filaments
E)Terminal web
Answer: C
Q2) A patient was severely dehydrated,losing a large amount of fluid.The patient was given intravenous fluids of normal saline.Normal saline is ________ to your blood cells and is about __________ NaCl.
A)isotonic; 9%
B)isotonic; 0.9%
C)hypertonic; 9%
D)hypotonic; 0.9%
E)hypotonic; 9%
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the product of translation?
A)A newly synthesized amino acid
B)A newly synthesized polypeptide
C)A newly synthesized nucleic acid
D)An mRNA
E)A tRNA
Q2) After mitosis,each chromosome consists of two parallel filaments called sister chromatids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chromatin shortens and thickens,coiling into compact rods during __________ of mitosis.
A)telophase
B)anaphase
C)interphase
D)prophase
E)metaphase
Q4) Naked DNA is called chromatin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an epithelium,there is almost no extracellular matrix.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The four primary tissue types found in adult organs include all of the following except _________ tissue.
A)connective
B)fibrous
C)nervous
D)epithelial
E)muscular
Q3) A connective tissue fiber refers to a(n)__________,a nerve fiber refers to a(n)__________,and a muscle fiber refers to a(n)__________.
A)entire cell; organelle; tissue
B)organelle; entire cell; part of a cell
C)organelle; entire cell; complex of macromolecules
D)complex of macromolecules; entire cell; part of a cell
E)complex of macromolecules; part of a cell; entire cell
Q4) The clear gel that usually surrounds cells is called interstitial fluid.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hair cycle consists of three developmental stages in which order?
A)Anagen, telogen, and catagen
B)Anagen, catagen, and telogen
C)Catagen, anagen, and telogen
D)Catagen, telogen, and anagen
E)Telogen, anagen, and catagen
Q2) What is the white opaque "moon" often found at the proximal end of a fingernail called?
A)Free edge
B)Nail body
C)Eponychium
D)Lunule
E)Nail root
Q3) In which of the following skin layers would a subcutaneous injection be administered?
A)Stratum basale
B)Stratum spinosum
C)Stratum corneum
D)Dermis
E)Hypodermis
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Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteogenic cells are bone stem cells that differentiate into osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture?
A)Bone remodeling \(\rarr\) soft callus formation \(\rarr\) hard callus formation \(\rarr\) hematoma formation
B)Bone remodeling \(\rarr\) hard callus formation \(\rarr\) soft callus formation \(\rarr\) hematoma formation
C)Hematoma formation \(\rarr\) soft callus formation \(\rarr\) hard callus formation \(\rarr\) bone remodeling
D)Hematoma formation F\(\rarr\) hard callus formation \(\rarr\) soft callus formation\(\rarr\) bone remodeling
E)Soft callus formation \(\rarr\) hard callus formation \(\rarr\) hematoma formation \(\rarr\) bone remodeling
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are found on the temporal bone except the __________.
A)zygomatic process
B)mastoid process
C)external acoustic meatus
D)sella turcica
E)mandibular fossa
Q2) Which cranial bone(s)are separate right and left bones at birth but generally fuse by the age of 5?
A)Frontal bone and mandible
B)Frontal bone and maxilla
C)Mandible and maxilla
D)Frontal bone and occipital bone
Q3) In a herniated disc,the ring of fibrocartilage called the __________ ruptures and the __________ oozes out.
A)nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus
B)lamina; nucleus pulposus
C)anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus
D)anulus fibrosus; body
E)nucleus pulposus; lamina
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) An articulation is any point at which two bones meet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The least movable joints are _____________ joints.
A)symphysis
B)synchondrosis
C)syndesmosis
D)gomphosis
E)synostosis
Q3) To tip the soles of the feet medially,so they face each other,requires __________.Tipping them out laterally so they face away from each other is
A)dorsiflexion; plantar flexion
B)inversion; eversion
C)medial excursion; lateral excursion
D)opposition; reposition
E)retraction; protraction
Q4) Symphyses are the most common type of fibrous joints.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tendinous intersections divide the __________ into segments that are externally visible on the abdomen of a well-muscled person.
A)vastus lateralis
B)serratus anterior
C)rectus abdominis
D)quadriceps femoris
E)transverse abdominal
Q2) The muscles that laterally rotate and depress the scapula,as in shrugging and lowering the shoulders,are the __________.
A)trapezius and serratus anterior
B)pectoralis minor and serratus anterior
C)levator scapulae and rhomboideus
D)trapezius and rhomboideus
E)trapezius and latissimus dorsi
Q3) Injury to the deep fibular nerve would cause inability to extend ones toes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Athletes who train at high altitudes increase their red blood cell count,which increases their oxygen supply during exercise.Increased oxygen supply results in
A)increased glycolysis
B)increased use of myokinase
C)longer aerobic respiration
D)longer anaerobic fermentation
E)reduced ATP consumption
Q2) How many muscle fibers stimulate one somatic motor neuron?
Q3) Clinically,dystrophin is the most important noncontractile protein to occur in muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an action potential,which event directly follows repolarization?
A)Threshold is reached
B)Hyperpolarization of the membrane
C)Depolarization of the membrane
D)Hypopolarization of the membrane
E)The resting membrane potential is reinstated
Q2) How does a neuron transport enzymes produced in the soma to its axon terminals?
A)Along microtubules
B)By diffusion
C)Via cytoplasmic streaming
D)Through co-transport
Q3) What is another name for the autonomic nervous system?
A)Visceral sensory division
B)Somatic sensory division
C)Visceral motor division
D)Somatic motor division
E)Central nervous system
Q4) Ependymal cells line the inner cavities of the CNS.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, spinal Nerves, and Somatic
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Somatosensory" does not refer to sensory signals from __________.
A)bones and muscles
B)joints
C)proprioceptors
D)the viscera
E)the skin
Q2) Neurosomas of the anterior root are located in the __________.
A)gray matter
B)posterior root ganglion
C)white matter
D)anterior rootlets
E)anterior root ganglion
Q3) Which of the following is not a distal branch of the spinal nerve?
A)Anterior ramus
B)Posterior ramus
C)Posterior root
D)Meningeal branch
E)Communicating rami
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is 90% of the cerebral cortex referred to as the neocortex?
A)It developed recently evolutionarily when mammals diversified.
B)It is only found in humans.
C)It is last to develop in the fetus and is thus the youngest part of the brain.
D)It has the ability to regenerate the outermost three of its six layers.
Q2) Injury to the reticular formation can result in which of the following?
A)Irreversible coma
B)Hypertension
C)Parkinson disease
D)Alzheimer disease
Q3) Your dentist gives you an injection of anesthetic in preparation for a filling.Which cranial nerve did they target?
A)V
B)VII
C)IX
D)XII
Q4) The forebrain consists of the cerebrum and the diencephalon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathetic fibers arise only from the __________ region(s)of the spinal cord.
A)cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
B)thoracic and lumbar
C)thoracic
D)cervical
E)lumbar
Q2) All sympathetic postganglionic adrenergic fibers secrete adrenaline.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Propranolol,a beta-blocker,is typically used to __________.
A)increase heart rate
B)decrease heart rate
C)produce vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries
D)produce vasodilation of blood vessels of skeletal muscle
E)produce bronchodilation
Q4) Most preganglionic fibers synapse with postganglionic fibers in the dorsal root ganglia.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is visible to the naked eye?
A)Lingual papilla
B)Taste (gustatory) cell
C)Taste hair
D)Taste bud
E)Taste pore
Q2) What is the crista ampullaris associated with?
A)Static equilibrium when standing still
B)Static acceleration in linear acceleration
C)Dynamic equilibrium in angular acceleration
D)Hearing high-pitch sounds
E)Vision related to color
Q3) The vestibule contains organs of hearing and equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Olfaction results from the stimulation of chemoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A)Aldosterone
B)Cortisol
C)Testosterone
D)Calcitriol
E)Glucagon
Q2) The infundibulum is a ___________.
A)mass of endocrine and neural cells
B)portal system between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland
C)bulky nucleus composed of the paraventricular nucleus and the supraoptic nucleus
D)depression of the sphenoid bone that protects the pituitary gland
E)projection of the hypothalamus from which the pituitary gland hangs
Q3) Which of the following hormones is not a tropin?
A)TSH
B)GRH
C)ACTH
D)PRL
E)TRH
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19
Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the largest leukocyte that contains small cytoplasmic granules and typically a kidney- or horseshoe-shaped nucleus?
A)Monocyte
B)Lymphocyte
C)Neutrophil
D)Eosinophil
E)Basophil
Q2) A person develops anti-A antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen A,and anti-B antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen
B.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not contained in the buffy coat?
A)Lymphocytes
B)Granulocytes
C)Erythrocytes
D)Agranulocytes
E)Platelets
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ventricular pressure increases the fastest during ventricular filling.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Parasympathetic stimulation reduces heart rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The area where the major vessels lead to and from the heart's chambers is called the __________ of the heart.The pointy,inferior portion is called the ___________.
A)apex; base
B)atrium; ventricle
C)ventricle; atrium
D)base; apex
E)endocardium; epicardium
Q4) Papillary muscles prevent the AV valves from prolapsing (bulging)excessively into the atria when the ventricles contract.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) Which of the following constitutes the principal venous drainage of the thoracic organs?
A)The branches of the celiac trunk
B)The azygos system
C)The mesenteric circulation
D)The hepatic portal system
E)The coronary and pulmonary veins
Q2) What are the afferent vessels that carry blood back to the heart?
A)Arteries
B)Arterioles
C)Veins
D)Capillaries
Q3) Arterial flow to the lower limb comes from the external iliac artery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood filtered through the hepatic sinusoids exits the liver via the hepatic veins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ are secreted by cells infected with viruses,alerting neighboring cells and protecting them from becoming infected.
A)Complement system globulins
B)Interferons
C)Granzymes
D)Pyrogens
E)Perforins
Q2) Basophils of the blood help to get defensive leukocytes to the site quickly by releasing an anticoagulant called __________ and a vasodilator called
A)bradykinin; histamine
B)selectin; prostaglandin
C)histamine; heparin
D)heparin; histamine
E)prostaglandins; selectin
Q3) Most Memory B cells are found circulating in the lymph.
A)True
B)False
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23
Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polio can sometimes damage the brainstem respiratory centers and result in which condition?
A)A Bohr effect
B)Adult respiratory distress syndrome
C)A pneumothorax
D)Atelectasis
E)Ondine's curse
Q2) Air consists of about 78.6% nitrogen,20.9% oxygen,0.04% carbon dioxide,and 0.5% water.At sea level,(760 mmHg)what is the PCO2?
A)597 mm Hg
B)159 mm Hg
C)0.3 mm Hg
D)3.7 mm Hg
Q3) The heart indents into the __________ of the left lung.
A)oblique fissure
B)hilum
C)apex
D)cardiac impression
E)base
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ system does not excrete waste?
A)The urinary system
B)The cardiovascular system
C)The integumentary system
D)The digestive system
E)The respiratory system
Q2) Hypocalcemia stimulates __________.
A)a decrease in aldosterone production
B)secretion of parathyroid hormone
C)secretion of renin
D)an increase in blood urea nitrogen
E)vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles
Q3) Which of the following is not true about the anatomy of the urinary system?
A)The kidneys are retroperitoneal.
B)The ureters connect the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
C)The urethra of males is longer than the urethra of females.
D)The kidneys are at equal heights within the pelvic cavity.
E)The right kidney is located more inferiorly than the left kidney.
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Chapter 24: Water,Electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Fluid intake is governed mainly by hypothalamic neurons called __________.
A)baroreceptors
B)proprioceptors
C)nociceptors
D)osmoreceptors
E)mechanoreceptors
Q2) Chloride homeostasis is achieved mainly as a result of ____________ homeostasis.
A)H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>
B)PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup>
C)HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
D)Na<sup>+</sup>
E)K<sup>+</sup>
Q3) Hypokalemia can result from all of the following except __________.
A)chronic vomiting
B)diarrhea
C)heavy sweating
D)aldosterone hyposecretion
E)excessive use of laxatives
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Q1) The movement of colonic contents from one puckered section to another is called
A)the gastrocolic reflex
B)the duodenocolic reflex
C)mass movement
D)haustral contraction
E)defecation
Q2) Infants have __________ deciduous teeth,whereas adults have __________ permanent teeth.
A)20; 32
B)16; 20
C)28; 20
D)32; 20
E)32; 32
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of gastric hydrochloric acid (HCl)?
A)Activate pepsinogen to pepsin
B)Activate lingual lipase
C)Emulsify lipids
D)Destroy ingested pathogens
E)Convert Fe<sup>3+</sup> to Fe<sup>2+</sup>
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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is not a function of proteins in the body?
A)Muscle contraction
B)Transport of blood lipids
C)Maintaining blood viscosity and osmolarity
D)Catalyzing enzymatic reactions
E)Serving as cofactors for enzymes
Q2) Where are most carbohydrates in the body found?
A)Adipose tissue
B)Muscle glycogen
C)Blood glucose
D)Liver glycogen
E)Pancreas glucose
Q3) The inner membrane of a mitochondrion contains the protein __________,which harnesses the energy created by H<sup>+</sup> flow to produce ATP by a process called __________.
A)enzyme complex; reduction
B)ATP synthase; oxidation
C)enzyme complex; proton pumping
D)ATP synthase; the chemiosmotic mechanism
E)cytochrome c; reduction
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Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following explains the neural mechanism of an erection?
A)It is an autonomic reflex mediated predominantly by parasympathetic nerve fibers.
B)It is an autonomic reflex mediated predominantly by sympathetic nerve fibers.
C)It is a somatic reflex mediated predominantly by parasympathetic nerve fibers.
D)It is a somatic reflex mediated predominantly by sympathetic nerve fibers.
E)It is an exclusively voluntary action mediated by the cerebral cortex.
Q2) Only germ cells undergo meiosis,which produces four haploid cells with 23 chromosomes each.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Erectile dysfunction prevents ejaculation in most cases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the process of spermiogenesis,__________ become __________.
A)spermatocytes; spermatozoa
B)spermatozoa; spermatids
C)spermatogonia; spermatocytes
D)spermatocytes; spermatids
E)spermatids; spermatozoa
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) During climacteric,what can cause hot flashes?
A)Vasoconstriction of cutaneous arteries
B)Vasodilation of cutaneous arteries
C)Vasodilation of cranial arteries
D)Vasoconstriction of cranial arteries
E)Vasodilation of facial arteries
Q2) What is the earliest sign of puberty in girls?
A)The onset of breast development
B)The appearance of pubic and axillary hair
C)The appearance of sebaceous and axillary glands
D)The first menstrual period
E)The increase in muscle mass
Q3) Which of the following occurs during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?
A)Several follicles are developing an antrum
B)The corpus luteum is shrinking
C)The corpus luteum is enlarging
D)Oogonia are transforming into primary oocytes
E)The oocyte completes meiosis II
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Q1) Which of the following is not a reason muscular weakness tends to develop in old age?
A)Aged muscle has less glycogen, myoglobin, and creatine phosphate.
B)There are fewer motor neurons in the spinal cord.
C)Aged muscle fibers have fewer myofibrils.
D)There are fewer and smaller mitochondria in aged muscle.
E)The myocytes of aged muscle no longer synthesize myosin.
Q2) The observation that there is a limit to how many times a cell can divide is the basis for the __________ theory of senescence.
A)autoimmune
B)free radical
C)cross-linking
D)replicative
E)abortive
Q3) The slow block refers to the mechanism that prevents fertilization of another egg when one is already pregnant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: General Orientation to Human Anatomy
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Q1) In the cat,the head is _________ to the tail.In the human,the head is ________ to the gluteal region (buttock).
A)superior; superior
B)anterior; superior
C)posterior; dorsal
D)ventral; distal
E)anterior; posterior
Q2) The __________ part of the small intestine is the part closest to the stomach.
A)dorsal
B)ventral
C)proximal
D)distal
E)medial
Q3) Most of the stomach is located in the _________ of the abdomen.
A)right upper quadrant (RUQ)
B)right lower quadrant (RLQ)
C)left upper quadrant (LUQ)
D)left lower quadrant (LLQ)
E)left middle quadrant (LMQ)
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