Pre-Medical Biology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Pre-Medical Biology is an introductory course designed to provide foundational knowledge necessary for students planning to enter medical or health-related fields. The course covers core topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, molecular biology, physiology, evolution, and ecology, emphasizing their connections to human health and disease. Students will develop their scientific reasoning, problem-solving, and laboratory skills through hands-on experiments and critical analysis of biological concepts. This course lays the groundwork for advanced studies in medicine and allied sciences, ensuring that students are well-prepared for further academic and professional pursuits.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 9th Edition by Peter Raven George B. Johnson
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Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Q1) Why was the determination of the actual sequence of the human genome considered to be descriptive science?
A)It involved hypothesis-driven research.
B)It did not involve hypothesis-driven research.
C)It involved deductive reasoning.
D)It did not involve deductive reasoning.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is not required for evolution to take place?
A)natural selection
B)adaptation
C)genetic variation
D)change over time
E)artificial breeding
Answer: E
Q3) The function of Pax6 in eye development can be viewed as an example of
A)an emergent property.
B)evolutionary conservation.
C)comparative anatomy.
D)natural selection.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Nature of Molecules
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Q1) Capillary action is one of the forces that aids water's upward movement in plants.The more narrow the diameter of the tube,the farther the water column will rise.Capillary action is a result of water molecules
A)storing heat and thus moving faster because of heat of vaporization.
B)producing sufficient surface tension to overcome the pull of gravity.
C)having a strong cohesive force and attaching to the surrounding vessel walls.
D)having an adhesive force,which allows them to attach to the vessel walls.
E)being associated with hydrophobic molecules,which can result in upward movement. Answer: D
Q2) Your final solution is
A)an acid.
B)a base.
C)a buffer.
D)cannot determine from the information provideD.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: The Chemical Building Blocks of Life
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Q1) Alpha helix and beta pleated sheets are examples of which level of protein structure?
A)zero order
B)primary
C)secondary
D)tertiary
E)quaternary
Answer: C
Q2) Chitin,a modified form of cellulose,is not only cross-linked with proteins but also its glucose units are modified with atoms of A)nitrogen.
B)hydrogen.
C)oxygen.
D)sulfur.
E)phosphorous.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure
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Q1) Ribosomes are
A)only DNA molecules.
B)only RNA molecules.
C)single,naked,and circular chromosomes.
D)only protein molecules.
E)large molecular aggregates of protein and RNA.
Q2) Which of the following animals has the largest surface area to volume ratio AND is matched correctly with its metabolic rate?
A)mouse,high metabolic rate
B)mouse,low metabolic rate
C)elephant,high metabolic rate
D)elephant,low metabolic rate
Q3) Which of the following is not visible by use of a light microscope?
A)paramecium
B)bacterium
C)large virus
D)red blood cell
E)eukaryotic nucleus
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6
Chapter 5: Membranes
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Q1) While eating lobster for dinner one night you begin thinking about the fact that this type of marine invertebrate is isosmotic with respect to the surrounding seawater.Your friend asks what would happen if the lobster you were eating had not been caught,but instead was moved to a bay with a slightly lower concentration of salt.You reply that in order for the lobster to be isosmotic with respect to new environment,
A)it must move water in to match the solute concentration of its new environment. B)it regulates its internal concentration of solutes to match that of its new environment.
C)it must move water out to match the solute concentration of its new environment.
D)it moves water in or out and regulates its internal concentration of solutes as needeD.
Q2) Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a membrane in response to the concentration of one or more of the ________.
A)solutes
B)membranes
C)compartments
D)cells
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Chapter 6: Energy and Metabolism
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Q1) As energy is being reconverted through the many forms,it is continuously lost as A)electricity.
B)light.
C)sound.
D)heat.
E)chemical energy.
Q2) Under standard conditions,ATP can release for every molecule converted to ADP
A)less than 1 cal of energy.
B)1 to 2 cal of energy.
C)7.3 Kcal of energy.
D)7.3 cal of energy.
E)different amounts of energy depending on the cell.
Q3) If the \(\Delta\)G of a reaction was -31.45 kJoules,you would know that A)the reaction would proceed spontaneously.
B)the reaction requires an energy input of 31.45 kJoules to proceed.
C)the products of the reaction have more free energy than the reactants.
D)it is an energonic reaction.
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy
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Q1) Which of the following statements accurately reflects what happens to a glucose molecule during the initial five phases of glycolysis?
A)Glucose,a six-carbon sugar,enters the cell by passive transport and is primed and converted into glucose three-phosphate,which requires two ATP molecules.The remaining four steps involve splitting the six-carbon molecule into two three-carbon molecules.
B)Glucose,a six-carbon sugar,enters the cell by active transport and is primed and converted into glucose three-phosphate,which requires two ATP molecules.The remaining four steps involve splitting the six-carbon molecule into two three-carbon molecules.
C)Glucose,a six-carbon sugar,enters the cell by simple diffusion and is primed and converted into glucose three-phosphate,which requires two ATP molecules.The remaining four steps involve splitting the six-carbon molecule into two three-carbon molecules.
D)Glucose,a six-carbon sugar,enters the cell by G protein mediation and is primed and converted into glucose three-phosphate,which requires two ATP molecules.The remaining four steps involve splitting the six-carbon molecule into two three-carbon molecules.
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Chapter 8: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Engelmann (1883)determined the wavelengths of light that plants could use most effectively.He used a green algae and __________ to obtain his results.
A)another green algae
B)anaerobic bacteria
C)aerobic bacteria
D)radioactive isotopes
E)a mass spectrometer
Q2) The general process whereby protons accumulate on one side of a membrane and can flow back across the membrane through ATP synthase resulting in ATP production is called _________________.
A)chemiosmosis
B)ATP synthesis
C)diffusion
D)active transport
Q3) In the plants that utilize the CAM pathway,what happens to the stomata?
A)The stomata open in the afternoon but close as soon as the sun sets.
B)The stomata open in the morning but close in the afternoon.
C)The stomata open in the evening but close in the morning.
D)The stomata open only when the sun is shining and close at night.
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Chapter 9: Cell Communication
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Q1) Which of the following proteins phosphorylates MAP kinase kinase?
A)MAP kinase
B)MAP kinase kinase
C)MAP kinase kinase kinase
D)MAP phosphatase
Q2) The space into which neurotransmitters are released is called a chemical
A)synapse.
B)junction.
C)channel.
D)desmosome.
E)vesiclE.
Q3) Hormones are an example of intercellular communication known as _____________ signaling.
A)neural
B)endocrine
C)paracrine
D)autocrine
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Chapter 10: How Cells Divide
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Q1) In prophase,ribosomal RNA synthesis stops when the chromosomes condense,and this makes the
A)chromosomes lengthen.
B)nuclear envelope reform.
C)nucleolus disappear.
D)chromosomes line up at the equator.
Q2) Which of the following is essentially the reverse of prophase?
A)anaphase
B)interphase
C)metaphase
D)telophase
E)cytokinesis
Q3) Nucleosomes are located in the
A)nucleus attached to the ends of DNA strands.
B)nucleus and are composed of DNA and histones.
C)nucleus and are associated with the nuclear membrane.
D)nucleus and are composed of mRNA and histones.
E)nucleus and are associated with the nucleolus and aid in ribosome synthesis.
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Chapter 11: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Q1) All of the following animal cells are diploid except
A)gametic.
B)muscles.
C)nerves.
D)skin.
E)reproductive organ.
Q2) The majority of the meiosis I is spent in prophase I and metaphase I.After metaphase I is completed,anaphase I and telophase I quickly proceed,thus ending meiosis I.What immediately follows meiosis I?
A)DNA synthesis
B)prophase II
C)metaphase II
D)developing of a synapsis
E)crossing over of the homologues
Q3) The four haploid cells resulting from meiosis may further divide by mitosis in all of the following organisms except?
A)plants
B)fungi
C)many protists
D)animals
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Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) When Mendel crossed dark purple-flowered pea plants with white-flowered pea plants,he never got any pea plants with light purple flowers.This was counter to the A)idea of acquired characteristic inheritance.
B)theory of blending inheritance.
C)the assumption of direct transmission of traits.
D)the law of dominance.
E)the laws of probability.
Q2) The ________ of an organism is the physical appearance resulting from the expression of the genes present.
A)phenotype
B)genotype
C)plasticity
D)karyotype
Q3) Mendel used the garden ___ plant for his studies on inheritance.
A)lily
B)carrot
C)onion
D)pea
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes Mapping and the MeiosisInheritance
Connection
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Q1) Why is mitochondrial DNA not a unique identifier?
A)Mitochondrial DNA is inherited through the paternal lineage.All offspring inherit their father's mitochondria,and therefore the same mitochondrial DNA.As a result,all family members that share a paternal lineage would have the same mitochondrial DNA.Mitochondrial DNA can therefore be used to confirm or eliminate a person's relationship within a paternal line,but cannot be used to identify a specific individual.
B)Mitochondrial DNA is inherited through the maternal lineage.All offspring inherit their mother's mitochondria,and therefore the same mitochondrial DNA.As a result,all family members that share a maternal lineage would have the same mitochondrial DNA.Mitochondrial DNA can therefore be used to confirm or eliminate a person's relationship within a maternal line,but cannot be used to identify a specific individual.
C)Mitochondrial DNA is inherited through the maternal lineage.All female offspring inherit their mother's mitochondria,and therefore the same mitochondrial DNA.As a result,all female family members that share a maternal lineage would have the same mitochondrial DNA.Mitochondrial DNA can therefore be used to confirm or eliminate a person's relationship within a maternal line,but cannot be used to identify a specific individual.
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Chapter 14: Dna: the Genetic Material
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Sample Questions
Q1) Griffith worked with A)bacteriophage.
B)Drosophila.
C)frog eggs.
D)Streptococcus.
Q2) DNA always contain amounts of the four bases,A,G,C,and T,characteristic of the species,but A = T and G = C,and purines equals pyrimidines.
A)Hershey and Chase
B)Chargaff
C)Franklin
D)Watson and Crick
Q3) Which of the following statements about replication of DNA is false?
A)The two strands are separated.
B)Each strand is used as a template for making a new duplex.
C)The synthesis on each strand is in the opposite direction.
D)The newly synthesized DNA is packaged into one nucleus,and the old DNA is packaged into another nucleus.
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16
Chapter 15: Genes and How They Work
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Q1) Which of the following best identifies the various types of RNA that play a role in protein synthesis in eukaryotes?
A)mRNA,rRNA,tRNA,snRNA,SRP RNA,and miRNA
B)mRNA,rRNA,tRNA,SRP RNA,and miRNA
C)mRNA,rRNA,tRNA,and snRNA
D)mRNA,rRNA,tRNA,snRNA,and SRP RNA
E)mRNA,rRNA,and tRNA
Q2) Protein synthesis proceeds by the ribosome
A)alternating between many chains.
B)moving three nucleotides at a time on the mRNA.
C)attaching amino acids in a random fashion.
D)selecting the tRNA molecule that fits.
E)attaching amino acids to the growing chain without charged tRNAs.
Q3) The coded order of nucleotides in a DNA specifies the order of specific amino acids to be assembled into a polypeptide chain.This code is therefore called the ________ code.
A)mitochondrial
B)ribosomal
C)DNA
D)genetic
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Chapter 16: Control of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA methylation is the only known natural modification of DNA.It affects
A)adenine bases.
B)guanine bases.
C)cytosine bases.
D)thymine bases.
Q2) The most common form of regulation in bacteria and eukaryotes is
A)transcriptional control.
B)translational control.
C)promotor control.
D)repressor control.
E)operator control.
Q3) Histones are tightly packed into ______,which are located within the DNA.
A)operons
B)nucleosomes
C)clusters of proteins
D)repressor genes
E)facilitators sites
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18
Chapter 17: Biotechnology
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Q1) A vaccine that depends on the cellular immune response of killer T cells is called a A)subunit vaccine.
B)DNA vaccine.
C)cellular response vaccine.
D)T cell vaccine.
Q2) Gel ________ is a process that separates DNA or protein fragments according to their size,by causing them to migrate within a gel in response to an electric field.
A)duplication
B)blotting
C)electrophoresis
D)migration
Q3) A commercially significant human protein now produced in bacteria is A)hemoglobin.
B)gamma globulins.
C)AZT.
D)human insulin.
E)HIV vaccinE.
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19
Chapter 18: Genomics
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Q1) A transgene is
A)hard to destroy once inserted into a genome.
B)hard to study because of its transposons.
C)created by several of the DNA motifs.
D)an inserted foreign gene.
E)a result of endosymbiosis.
Q2) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are bacterial relatives living within eukaryotes as a result of A)synteny.
B)exosymbiosis.
C)endosymbiosis.
D)draft sequencing of the proteomes of the mitochondria and chloroplasts by the nucleosome.
E)contiguous base pairing.
Q3) Inactive genes that have lost their function due to mutations are called A)introns. B)exons.
C)templates.
D)transposons.
E)pseudogenes.
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Chapter 19: Cellular Mechanisms of Development
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Q1) Cell transplantation experiments can be used to do all of the following except
A)to study the normal fate of cells.
B)to address the ability of cells to communicate with surrounding tissue.
C)to determine cell lineage.
D)to test the functional compatibility of cells between species.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the apoptotic pathway in mammalian cells?
A)Bcl2 inhibits Apar1,Apaf1 activates Caspase-8 or 9,caspases degrade cell components
B)Bcl2 activates Apar1,Apaf1 inhibits Caspase-8 or 9,caspases degrade cell components
C)Bcl2 activates Apar1,Apaf1 activates Caspase-8 or 9,caspases degrade cell components
D)Apar1 inhibits Bcl2,Bcl2 activates Caspase-8 or 9,caspases degrade cell components
Q3) A seed germinates as a result of
A)a predetermined internal clock set in place at fertilization.
B)responses to changes in its environment.
C)having tolerated a long winter.
D)being planted at the correct time.
E)its genetics.
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21
Chapter 20: Genes Within Populations
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Q1) The fitness of an individual may depend on all of the following factors except
A)life span of the individual.
B)climate change.
C)offspring produced per mating.
D)frequency of individual's phenotype in population.
E)presence of many pleiotropic genes.
Q2) The gene pool includes
A)all of the fitness within a population.
B)all of the individuals within a population.
C)all of the mutations within a population.
D)all of the adaptations within a population.
E)all of the alleles of genes within a population.
Q3) Small,drab,early reproduction is favored.
A)directional selection
B)stabilizing selection
C)disruptive selection
D)guppies with pike cichlids and killifish
E)guppies with killifish
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Chapter 21: The Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following seems to be least important in understanding the basis for industrial melanism?
A)abundance of lichens on trees
B)greater camouflage of the dark moths on trees in polluted woodlands
C)darkening of bark surfaces by pollutants
D)greater crypticity of the light moths on trees in unpolluted woodlands
E)differential predation by birds
Q2) A biologist seeing a sign describing evolution as "just a theory" would think that A)evolution is a theory that is supported with a tremendous amount of evidence.
B)evolution is just a collection of facts without a central theme and this is not a theory.
C)evolution is what Darwin proposed to account for all the changes he observed in the finches so it is a hypothesis,not a theory.
D)evolution occurred in the past,but it is not occurring in the present,so it cannot be a theory.
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Chapter 22: The Origin of Species
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Q1) The basic unit of evolution and taxonomy is the A)ecosystem.
B)population. C)species.
D)community.
E)nichE.
Q2) Two groups of organisms that differ from one another in one or more characteristics and do not hybridize extensively if they occur together in nature are considered to be different A)races.
B)species. C)kingdoms.
D)hybrids.
E)cohabitants.
Q3) The most common mechanism for sympatric speciation in plants is A)polyploidy.
B)geographic isolation.
C)spontaneous mutation.
D)punctuated equilibrium.
E)disruptive selection.
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Chapter 23: Systematics and the Phylogenetic Revolution
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Q1) Consider the cladogram associated with the question.Which pair of species shares the greatest number of derived characters (synapomorphies)?
A)1 and 4
B)3 and 4
C)4 and 5
D)2 and 4
E)2 and 5
Q2) Consider the cladogram associated with the question.Which pair of species shares the greatest number of derived characters (synapomorphies)?
A)1 and 4
B)2 and 3
C)2 and 4
D)6 and 4
E)6 and 5
Q3) A ______________ group consists of the most recent common ancestor and all of its descendants.
Q4) A ______________ group does not contain the most recent common ancestor.
Q5) A derived character that is shared by all members of a clade is called a ______________ of that clade.
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Chapter 24: Genome Evolution
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Q1) Which one of the following statements about gene function and expression in chimps and humans is false?
A)Little genetic divergence has occurred since chimps and humans shared a common ancestor.
B)Except for about 1% of their genomes,chimp and human genes are identical.
C)Using microarrays to detect mRNA transcribed from known human genes,it was possible to show that almost identical transcription patterns existed in the brains of both chimp and human.
D)The extra chromosome found in the other great apes contains few novel genes not present in the human genome.
Q2) The best explanation for why a mouse develops into a mouse and not a human is A)most of the coding genes are different.
B)most of the non-coding genes are different.
C)gene expression differs.
D)the genes are mostly the same but have been rearrangeD.
E)synteny has not been conserved.
Q3) The entire DNA sequence of a species is called its _________________.
Q4) Duplication of individual chromosomes instead of whole genomes can occur by
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Chapter 25: Evolution of Development
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the evolution of eyes is false?
A)The eyes of a fly,a squid,a human,and a planarian are homoplastic.
B)The eyes of a fly,a squid,a human,and a planarian evolved through convergence.
C)The eyes of vertebrates are homologous.
D)Different animal groups use different genes to code for eye development.
E)The common ancestor of most animal groups probably had the ability to detect light.
Q2) Regarding genome sequences and organismal development,it is important to remember that
A)development occurs almost exactly the same way in closely related species.
B)development takes longer in some species than in others,and this time factor is important.
C)gene sequence within a chromosome determines the timing of the gene expression.
D)timing plays an important part in genome sequencing.
E)changing the timing of gene expression can have dramatic changes in development.
Q3) Another name for analogous structures is _________________ structures.
Q4) Most mutations that affect developmental regulatory genes are
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Chapter 26: The Tree of Life
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Q1) In the taxonomic hierarchical system for grouping organisms,the next higher group to a family is
A)genus.
B)order.
C)class.
D)species.
E)phylum.
Q2) The first living organisms that arose on earth are believed to have evolved according to a series of steps represented by the appearance of specific molecules.Of the molecules listed,which one would most likely have appeared fourth?
A)hydrogen cyanide
B)ATP
C)Ribozymes
D)DNA
E)amino acids
Q3) Organelles such as the nucleus are not present in _________ organisms.
Q4) Prokaryotes were the only organisms for about _________ billion years after life began on Earth.
Q5) The names of genera were the basic point of reference in _____________ systems.
28
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Chapter 27: Viruses
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Q1) The infection cycle of HIV includes all of the following steps except A)attachment.
B)entry.
C)replication.
D)immediately killing the host cell.
E)viral DNA integrates into the host chromosomE.
Q2) The viruses that infect bacteria are called ____________.
Q3) Mad cow disease is caused by a A)bacterium.
B)virus.
C)viroid.
D)virion.
E)prion.
Q4) Which of the following would not be a component of a newly produced HIV virus?
A)protein capsid
B)RNA
C)reverse transcriptase
D)viral envelope
E)complementary DNA
Q5) The SARS virus is a completely new form of _______ _________.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Prokaryotes
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Q1) Prokaryotes split into two lines early in the history of life.The differences are so fundamental that they are assigned to two different domains,the ________________ and the Bacteria.
Q2) Gonorrhea and syphilis are most commonly controlled by A)abstinence.
B)antibiotics.
C)boiling water.
D)fluoride treatment.
E)pasteurization.
Q3) Which of the following statements about specialized transduction is false?
A)Specialized transduction always requires phage with a lysogenic life cycle.
B)The integrated phage is called a prophage.
C)Genes for excision and initiation of lysis are in the prophage.
D)Prophage can include bacterial genes.
E)Specialized transduction never produces cells that are partial diploids.
Q4) The earliest fossilized forms of microscopic life,known as ___________,were prokaryotes.
Q5) Some species of prokaryotes play a vital role both in productivity and in nutrient _____________,providing substances essential to all other life forms.
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Some protist cell surfaces have ___________,including silica or calcium carbonate.
Q2) A non-walled,multinucleate mass of cytoplasm that resembles a moving mass of slime that is produced by plasmodial slime molds is called a A)sorocarp.
B)plasmodium.
C)pseudopod.
D)filamental hyphe.
E)motile endosporE.
Q3) Which one of the following is not a difference between early eukaryotes and the prokaryotes that were their ancestors?
A)mitosis
B)organelles
C)nuclear envelope
D)infoldings of the plasma membrane
E)larger cell size
Q4) All apicomplexes are nonmotile,spore forming,and live as __________ in animals.
Q5) Mitochondria,chloroplasts,and ____________ are all thought to have arisen through endosymbiosis.
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Chapter 30: Overview of Green Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bryologist (a scientist that studies mosses,and their allies)gives a lecture to your biology class.In her lecture,she makes a reference to fern reproduction.She says,"Fern spores germinate into _____."
A)gametophytes,which are often heart-shaped and have rhizoids that anchor the fern to the substrate
B)gametophytes,which are often heart-shaped and have roots that anchor the fern to the substrate
C)sporophytes,which are often heart-shaped and have rhizoids that anchor the fern to the substrate
D)sporophytes,which are often heart-shaped and have roots that anchor the fern to the substrate
Q2) Which one of the following structures in the moss life cycle is not haploid?
A)germinating spore
B)antheridium
C)sperm
D)spore mother cell
E)rhizoid tissue
Q3) In _____,both the sporophytes and the smaller gametophytes are photosynthetic.
Q4) The most familiar gymnosperms are _______ which include pines,firs,and others.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ectomycorrhizae,associations in which the fungal hyphae surround but do not penetrate the cell walls of the plant roots,usually involve A)ascomycetes.
B)basidiomycetes.
C)zygomycetes.
D)ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
E)ascomycetes and zygomycetes.
Q2) The fungal group that is most closely related to ancestral fungi are the A)zygomycotA.
B)chytridomycota (chytrids).
C)ascomycota.
D)basidomycota.
E)zygomycota.
Q3) Lichens are adversely affected by A)humidity.
B)sunlight.
C)pollution.
D)sexual reproduction of the fungal partner.
E)asexual reproduction of the photosynthetic partner.
Q4) Fungi,together with bacteria are the principal _________ in the biosphere.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Overview of Animal Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nearly all major animal body plans evolved by the _______ period.
Q2) Which of the following is not correct regarding the origin of parazoans and eumetazoans?
A)The common ancestor was a protist.
B)The common ancestor was a hollow spherical colony of flagellated cells.
C)Cells within sponges resemble choanoflagellate protists.
D)Sponges evolved independently from eumetazoans.
E)Metazoans represent a monophyletic group.
Q3) Select the following phylum that includes protostome animals that are segmented,bilaterally symmetric,and have a chitinous exoskeleton.
A)Arthropoda
B)Annelida
C)Mollusca
D)Brachiopoda
E)Platyhelminthes
Q4) Animals are multicellular heterotrophs and obtain their food by ________.
Q5) Eumetazoa can be subdivided into two principal branches based on _____.
Q6) The process in which a definite head and brain evolves is called ________.
Q7) The embryonic layer found only in bilaterally symmetrical eumetazoans is the _______.
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Chapter 33: Noncoelomate Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are not correctly matched?
A)spicules-sponges
B)nematocyst-cnidaria
C)flame cells-flatworms
D)stylets-roundworms
E)scolex-rotifers
Q2) Which one of the following is not a cell type found in the cnidarians?
A)epidermal
B)gastrodermal
C)nerve
D)myoepithial
E)nematocyst
Q3) Anthozoan corals are characterized by all of the following except
A)some may have hard calcium carbonate exoskeletons.
B)the coral animals are always found in nutrient-rich waters.
C)some participate in the formation of shallow-water limestone ridges.
D)many harbor symbiotic algae.
E)they are a class of cnidarians.
Q4) The most primitive bilaterally symmetrical and the simplest acoelomatic animals in which organs occur are the _________.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Coelomate Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) These echinoderms have soft,slug-like bodies with tough,leathery skin.They are the A)sea pansies.
B)sea lilies.
C)sea daisies.
D)sea cucumbers.
E)sea anemones.
Q2) Which of the following are dwellers of deep ocean floor and shallow waters,where they pull themselves along two arms at a time,like oars rowing a boat?
A)sea lilies
B)brittle stars
C)sea stars
D)sea urchins
E)sand dollars
Q3) Reproduction in the earthworm involves A)asexual budding.
B)self-fertilization.
C)cross-fertilization between two dioecious organisms.
D)cross-fertilization between two hermaphroditic organisms.
E)recombination between opposite mating types.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Vertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) To which group of fishes does the following description apply: swim bladder,bony skeleton,and paired fins supported by bony rays.
A)Sarcopterygi
B)Actinopterygi
C)Chondrichthyes
D)Placodermi
E)Acanthodii
Q2) Amphibians share all of the following characteristics,except A)legs.
B)coetaneous respiration and lungs.
C)a partially divided heart.
D)pulmonary veins.
E)keratinized skin.
Q3) Amphibians are not completely free to live on dry land because
A)their ancestors were fish.
B)their food organisms live in water.
C)their reproduction depends on water.
D)they can escape from predators by jumping into the water.
E)they obtain oxygen from water through gills.
Q4) The first hominids to evolve were _______.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form
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Sample Questions
Q1) A birdhouse is nailed into a tree 6 feet up from the ground.If the tree grows about 2 feet taller each year,where will the birdhouse be 25 years later?
A)50 feet
B)56 feet
C)26 feet
D)6 feet
E)4 feet
Q2) The pattern of leaf arrangement on a stem is called A)protodermis.
B)phyllotaxy.
C)nodular termini.
D)meristematic spacing.
E)axillary arrangement.
Q3) Axillary buds are produced
A)at the tip of a stem.
B)in roots.
C)in the angle between a petiole and a stem.
D)by lateral meristems.
E)in the cork cambium.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Vegetative Plant Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The elongated structure that links the embryo to the nutrient tissue of the seed is called the
A)suspensor.
B)epidermal tissue.
C)ground tissue.
D)embryo sac.
E)ovulE.
Q2) Nutritive tissue within angiosperm seeds.
A)hypocotyl
B)endosperm
C)scutellum
D)radicle
E)epicotyl
Q3) The single cotyledon within the kernels of cereal grains is known as A)an aleurone.
B)a hypocotyl.
C)a dicot.
D)a scutellum.
E)an amyloplast.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Transport in Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which water is "pulled" up through the xylem columns of plants and evaporated out of the leaves is called A)root pressure.
B)transpiration.
C)osmosis.
D)adhesion of water molecules.
E)cohesion of water molecules.
Q2) The movement of oxygen through the aquatic plant may depend on A)osmotic absorption by the roots.
B)aquaporins.
C)negative pressures created by transpiration.
D)differences in the water potential of different tissues.
E)aerenchyma tissuE.
Q3) Water may be lost in liquid form at the edges of the leaves of herbaceous plants through a process known as A)guttation.
B)cohesion.
C)phloem loading.
D)mesophyll adhesion.
E)aeration.
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Chapter 39: Plant Nutrition and Soils
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is not considered a potentially dangerous heavy metal contaminant in soil?
A)cadmium
B)iron
C)arsenic
D)lead
E)zinc
Q2) Which of the following is not a plant micronutrient?
A)iron
B)phosphorus
C)chlorine
D)copper
E)manganese
Q3) Which of the following statements about plants grown in hydroponic culture is true?
A)They no longer need to transport water through their xylem.
B)They cannot be used for commercial purposes.
C)They rarely get enough micronutrients.
D)They are unable to photosynthesize.
E)They are suspended with their roots in a nutrient solution.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Defense Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does jasmonic acid contribute to the activation of the wound response in tomato plants?
A)It moves through the phloem of the plant until it reaches the wound site.
B)It produces a polypeptide that binds with membrane lipids.
C)It binds to enzymes in the gut of the predator.
D)It increases the energy available for the plants to fight the predator.
E)It signals gene expression,leading to the production of a proteinase inhibitor.
Q2) Systemin can correctly be described as a(n) A)peptide.
B)apoplast.
C)receptor.
D)leaf lipiD.
E)carbohydratE.
Q3) The steps in the pathogen-specific response do not include A)responding to the pathogen.
B)development of antibodies.
C)recognizing the pathogen.
D)triggering the hypersensitive response.
E)the pathogen releases distinctive proteins.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Sensory Systems in Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are uses of synthetic auxins,such as NAA and IBA,in agriculture and horticulture except
A)to promote flowering and fruiting in pineapples.
B)to prevent fruit drop.
C)to induce formation of roots in plant cuttings.
D)to prevent leaf and fruit abscission.
E)to produce bushier plants.
Q2) The plant hormone that is functional as a gas is A)auxin.
B)abscisic acid.
C)cytokinin.
D)ethylene.
E)gibberellin.
Q3) Removing the apical bud of a stem usually results in A)faster flowering.
B)a bushier plant.
C)stunted growth.
D)leaf abscission.
E)starch accumulation.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about plant tissue culture is false?
A)Callus tissue can form roots and shoots.
B)Individual cells can give rise to whole plants through tissue cultures.
C)Individual protoplasts are isolated from tissues by breaking down the cells walls with enzymes.
D)Virus-free crop species can be propagated by culturing meristems.
E)A callus is a mass of undifferentiated cells.
Q2) Another name for a light-dependent flowering pathway is A)autonomy.
B)phototropism.
C)photoperiodism.
D)competence.
E)vernalization.
Q3) Flowering plants use animals or wind to transfer ________ between flowers. A)spores
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)ovules
D)seeds
E)pollen
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Page 44
Chapter 43: The Animal Body and Principles of Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Integrating Center
A)oxytocin causes increased uterine contractions
B)pituitary gland secretes oxytocin
C)fetus pushed against uterine opening
D)receptors in uterus detect stretch
E)brain receives and compares stretch information
Q2) Which of the following is considered a similarity between all connective tissues?
A)all originate as embryonic mesoderm
B)all contain abundant organic extracellular matrix
C)all contain inorganic matrix
D)all contain mast cells
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the levels of organization in the vertebrate body?
A)cells
B)bones
C)tissues
D)organs
E)organ systems
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45
Chapter 44: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gap into which neurotransmitters are released by the arrival of an impulse is called a(n)
A)gap junction.
B)synaptic cleft.
C)postsynaptic membrane.
D)presynaptic membrane.
E)impulse channel.
Q2) A(n)_______________ diffuses across a narrow synaptic cleft between the presynaptic axon and the postsynaptic cell to transmit a nerve impulse.
A)neurotransmitter
B)electrical impulse
C)Na<sup>+</sup> ion
D)vesicle
E)action potential
Q3) The central and peripheral nervous systems in the vertebrates is comprised of A)axons.
B)cell bodies.
C)dendrites.
D)neurons.
E)synapses.
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Chapter 45: Sensory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following constitute the vestibular apparatus?
A)saccule and utricle
B)semicircular canals,saccule,and utricle
C)ampullae of Lorenzini
D)Merkel cells
E)saccule,utricle,and ventricle
Q2) The receptors that transmit impulses that are perceived by the brain as pain are called
A)baroreceptors.
B)chemoreceptors.
C)nociceptors.
D)thermoreceptors.
E)propioceptors.
Q3) Free nerve endings,the simplest sensory receptors,respond to all of the following except
A)bending of the sensory neuron membrane.
B)changes in temperature.
C)changes in chemicals like oxygen in the extracellular fluid.
D)smell and hearing changes.
E)stretching of the sensory neuron membranE.
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Chapter 46: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland except A)oxytocin.
B)prolactin.
C)thyroid-stimulating hormone.
D)melanocyte-stimulating hormone.
E)adrenocorticotropic hormonE.
Q2) Stimulates production of testosterone.
A)luteinizing hormone
B)parathyroid
C)oxytocin
D)follicle-stimulating hormone
E)adrenocorticotropic hormone
Q3) Which is the best explanation for how ibuprofen works?
A)thins the blood to relieve joint pain
B)inhibits cyclooxygenase-2,which is needed to produce prostaglandins
C)activates cyclooxygenase-2,which then produces more prostaglandins
D)down-regulates the production of substance P
E)activates cyclooxygenase-2,which promotes healing of tissue
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Chapter 47: The Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The myosin heads form a cross bridge with the neighboring actin filaments.The energy for the cross-bridge cycle and muscle contraction is provided by A)pyruvate.
B)lactic acid.
C)ATP.
D)NADH.
E)glucosE.
Q2) Select the incorrect statement about muscle fibers.
A)A quick contraction and relaxation of an isolated skeletal muscle is called tetanus.
B)Slow-twitch muscle fibers,for example the soleus muscle of the leg,require about 100 milliseconds to reach maximum tension.
C)Slow-twitch muscle fibers have high concentrations of myoglobin.
D)Fast-twitch fibers,for example the muscles of the human eye,reach maximum tensions in 7.3 milliseconds.
E)Fast-twitch fibers have fewer capillaries and mitochondria than slow-twitch fibers.
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Chapter 48: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which digestive hormone stimulates the secretion of HCl?
A)gastrin
B)cholycystokinin
C)gastric inhibitory peptide
D)secretin
Q2) According to the diagram,which one of the following processes would occur the most after eating a meal of french fries and ice cream?
A)II
B)I
C)III
D)II and III equally
E)I and II equally
Q3) Which digestive hormone stimulates the secretion of bicarbonate by the pancreas?
A)gastrin
B)cholycystokinin
C)gastric inhibitory peptide
D)secretin
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Chapter 49: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The oxygen content of dry air in the atmosphere
A)is about 78.1%.
B)is about 2l.0%.
C)is about 0.03%.
D)varies depending on the altitude.
E)varies depending on the amount of air in the atmospherE.
Q2) Ram ventilation is used by _____ during respiration.
A)frogs
B)tuna
C)sharks
D)birds
Q3) ______________ is the carrier molecule that transports oxygen through the circulatory system of vertebrates.
A)Hemocyanin
B)Carbonic anhydrase
C)Myoglobin
D)Hemoglobin
Q4) During exhalation,the diaphragm ________.
A)contracts
B)relaxes
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Chapter 50: The Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reptile heart is distinguished from the amphibian heart by the presence of
A)two separate atriA.
B)systemic and pulmonary circulation.
C)cutaneous respiration.
D)a partially divided ventricle.
E)two separate ventricles.
Q2) Blood is pumped from the heart into the arterial system,which branches from arteries into fine __________.
A)arterioles
B)venules
C)capillaries
D)veins
Q3) The cardiovascular center of the vertebrates receives information on all of the following except
A)blood pressure.
B)blood volume.
C)oxygen content of blood.
D)carbon dioxide content of the blooD.
E)blood glucose level.
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Chapter 51: Osmotic Regulation and the Urinary System
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Q1) The two hormones that influence kidney function are produced in the A)adrenal cortex.
B)adrenal medulla.
C)posterior pituitary.
D)adrenal cortex and posterior pituitary.
E)adrenal medulla and posterior pituitary.
Q2) Blood volume and osmolarity are kept within normal limits by A)effectors.
B)positive feedback loops.
C)negative feedback loops.
D)countercurrent multipliers.
E)secreting extra amounts.
Q3) Marine reptiles eliminate excess salt by means of _____________ located near the nose or the eye.
A)pores
B)tubules
C)salt glands
D)scales
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53
Chapter 52: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a class of immunoglobin?
A)IgM
B)IgD
C)IgC
D)IgG
E)IgA
Q2) When a person is tested for HIV,if _______ to the HIV are present the test is called positive.
A)bacteria
B)antigens
C)antibodies
D)T-cells
E)natural killer cells
Q3) Allergy is a term used interchangeably with A)autoimmunity.
B)antibodies.
C)hypersensitivity.
D)antigen shifting.
E)asthma.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The uterine lining proliferates during the female cycle and then sloughs off in the process of A)birth.
B)fertilization.
C)menstruation.
D)ovulation.
E)placentation.
Q2) You notice that in your aquarium full of undoubtedly male fish,one is laying eggs.Upon a bit of research,you find out that the species of fish you purchased is a sequential hermaphrodite.Which of the following is true?
A)One of the male fish underwent protandry.
B)One of the male fish fertilized its own eggs.
C)Since the fish are hermaphrodites,one of the male fish laid eggs and another will likely fertilize them.
D)The fish show parthenogenesis therefore their eggs do not have to be fertilized to be viable.
E)The fish show protogyny,which allows the males to lay eggs.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Animal Development
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Q1) The head of a sperm is capped with an organelle that contains glycoprotein-digesting enzymes.This organelle is the A)zona pellucidA.
B)acrosome.
C)granulosa.
D)blastula.
E)neural cap.
Q2) There is a protective layer between the granulosa cells and the egg's plasma membrane or zona pellucida.This layer is made of a A)glycoprotein.
B)glycolipid.
C)protein.
D)lipoprotein.
E)saturated fatty acid.
Q3) The production of milk,called lactation,is stimulated by ____________. A)adrenaline
B)prolactin
C)estradiol
D)oxytocin
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Behavioral Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a scientist is conducting a study of how a male bird's song and the female bird's response evolved,she would be asking about the
A)ultimate causation.
B)proximate causation.
C)stereotyped causation.
D)ethnological causation.
E)fixed action pattern causation.
Q2) One type of evolutionary analysis of behavior pioneered by Tinbergen was the study of the
A)inheritance of behavior.
B)innate releasing mechanisms.
C)neural networks involved.
D)survival value of behavior.
E)timing of rhythmic behavior.
Q3) Chemical messengers used for communication between animal species are called A)hormones.
B)pheromones.
C)genes.
D)enzymes.
E)immune chemicals.
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Chapter 56: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spacing within a population for a species that is strongly territorial would be expected to be
A)uniform.
B)clumped.
C)random.
D)uniform or clumped depending if it is a source or sink metapopulation.
E)uniform or clumped depending on the life history strategy of the species.
Q2) Most density-dependent factors show negative feedback relative to population size.Which one of the following is more likely to show positive feedback relative to population size?
A)competition in small,sink populations
B)competition in large,source populations
C)fecundity in small,sink populations
D)fecundity in large,source populations
E)mortality in large,source populations
Q3) An example of clumped distribution of a population is
A)an introduction of a new species into a new environment.
B)a herd of antelope.
C)a behavioral interaction between two members of the same species.
D)not very common in nature.
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Chapter 57: Community of Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two or more unrelated but protected species resemble one another,having bright colors,thus achieving a kind of group defense.This phenomenon of similar coloration is called
A)Batesian mimicry.
B)Müllerian mimicry.
C)aposematic coloration.
D)warning coloration.
E)mutualistic coloration.
Q2) Gause said that if two species attempt to occupy the same niche,with limited resources,one of them will become
A)a commensalist.
B)parasitic.
C)a predator.
D)extinct.
E)symbiotic.
Q3) All organisms living together in a place are called a ___________.
A)community
B)population
C)species
D)ecosystem
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Chapter 58: Dynamics of Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following feed directly on the green plants?
A)primary producers
B)primary consumers
C)secondary consumers
D)secondary producers
E)decomposers
Q2) Even though nitrogen constitutes 78% of Earth's atmosphere,the amount available for living things nearly all comes from
A)a few groups of nitrogen-fixing bacteriA.
B)the breakdown of minerals.
C)a few genera of detritivores.
D)the breakdown of dead plants.
E)nitrogen-containing fertilizers.
Q3) The net weight of all of the organisms living in an ecosystem is its A)productivity.
B)biomass.
C)vital force.
D)photosynthesis minus metabolism.
E)combined output of metabolism and photosynthesis.
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Page 60
Chapter 59: The Biosphere
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79 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Very high solar energy input;temperature and moisture not limiting;high biomass,high total productivity;many species.
A)desert
B)savanna
C)taiga
D)temperate grassland
E)tropical rain forest
Q2) Which of the following choices best describes the relationship that exists between moisture and air temperature?
A)The moisture-holding capacity of air decreases when it is warm and increases when it is cool.
B)The moisture-holding capacity of air remains the same (warm or cool)and is not related to its temperature.
C)The moisture-holding capacity of air increases when it is warm and decreases when it is cool.
D)The moisture-holding capacity of air increases as the higher altitude winds of the polar regions descend onto the continents.
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Chapter 60: Conservation Biology
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Q1) Which one of the following is not a problem that results from a population being small?
A)allee effect
B)genetic drift
C)reduce genetic diversity
D)increased edge effects
E)extinction vortex
Q2) A major problem with hotspots is humans moving in and causing A)habitat destruction.
B)increased genetic diversity.
C)increased immigration among species.
D)decreased introductions.
E)decreased biomagnification.
Q3) Natural colonization can happen in all of the following ways except
A)a flock of birds gets blown off course.
B)a bird eats a fruit on the mainland and defecates the seed on an island.
C)people plant new species on an island.
D)lowered sea levels connect two areas previously isolateD.
E)birds pick up seeds on their feed wading in mud,drop them elsewherE.
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