

Pre-medical Biochemistry Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Pre-medical Biochemistry introduces students to the fundamental chemical principles and molecular mechanisms that underlie living systems, with a focus on concepts essential for medical studies. Topics include the structure and function of biomolecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids; enzyme kinetics and regulation; metabolism and energy production; and the biochemical basis of diseases. The course emphasizes the integration of biochemical knowledge with clinical examples to provide a strong foundation for future courses in physiology, pharmacology, and pathology.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Biochemistry Life at the Molecular Level 4th Edition by Donald Voet
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28 Chapters
1538 Verified Questions
1538 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to the Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phylogeny is
A)the science of biological classification based on gross morphology.
B)the science of biological classification based on the evolutionary relationships between organisms.
C)the science of biological classification based on reproductive strategies.
D)the branch of science that studies phyllopods.
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) A reaction with a ______ \(\Delta\)H and a ______ \(\Delta\)S, will never be spontaneous.
A)positive, positive
B)positive, negative
C)negative, positive
D)negative, negative
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) Carbohydrates, proteins, nucleotides, and nucleic acids are important groups of molecules found in living organisms.Which 6 elements do living organisms need to build these molecules?
Answer: C, H, O, N, S, P
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Chapter 2: Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) You mix 999 mL pure water and 1 mL of 2.0 M NaOH.Calculate the pH of the resulting solution.(assume the total volume is 1.0 L).
A)0.3
B)0.7
C)2.7
D)11.3
E)13.7
Answer: D
Q2) Sheets composed of two layers of amphipathic molecules arranged with the hydrophilic groups on the surface and the hydrophobic groups buried in the center that form in water are called
A)micelles.
B)liposomes.
C)vacuoles.
D)bilayer membranes.
E)none of the above
Answer: D
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Page 4

Chapter 3: Nucleotides, Nucleic Acids, and Genetic Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the structure of a DNA molecule by listing 6 characteristics.
Answer: 1.DNA forms a double helix
2.the two strands run anti-parallel
3.the sugar is deoxyribose
4.the sugar-phosphate groups are on the outside of the helix
5.the bases are in the center of the helix
6.the bases are planar and their plane is orientated perpendicular to the axis of the helix
6.there are four bases: Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Thymine
7.The strands are held together by H-bonding between complementary bases: AdenineThymine and Guanine-Cytosine
8.The helix has a minor and a major groove on its surface.
Q2) Genomic DNA is ______, resulting in the production of _________.
A)transcribed; mRNA
B)translated; tRNA
C)transcribed; protein
D)translated; protein
E)translated; rRNA
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the early 1930's William Rose fed laboratory rats a mixture of all 19 amino acids known to be present in proteins.He observed that his rats lost weight.This observation led to the discovery of ______ as the 20th amino acid found in proteins.
A)Gly
B)Ala
C)Tyr
D)Asn
E)Thr
Q2) The isoelectronic point of an amino acid is the point where
A)the pK<sub>a</sub> of the \(\alpha\)-carboxylic acid is the same as the pK<sub>a</sub> of the \(\alpha\)-amino group.
B)the \(\alpha\)-carboxylic acid is protonated and the \(\alpha\)-amino group is unprotonated.
C)the solubility of the amino acid is maximized.
D)the \(\alpha\)-carboxylic acid and the \(\alpha\)-amino group are both half protonated.
E)the amino acid carries no net electrical charge.
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Page 6

Chapter 5: Proteins: Primary Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pK<sub>1</sub>, pK<sub>2</sub>, and pK<sub>R</sub> of the amino acid lysine are 2.2, 9.1, and 10.5, respectively.The pK<sub>1</sub>, pK<sub>2</sub>, and pK<sub>R</sub> of the amino acid arginine are 1.8, 9.0, and 12.5, respectively.A student at SDSU wants to use ion exchange chromatography to separate lysine from arginine.What pH is likely to work best for this separation?
A)1.5
B)2.5
C)5.5
D)7.5
E)10.5
Q2) Proteins can vary in size from approximately 40 to 34,000 amino acids.
a.Why is there a lower limit to the size of proteins?
b.Why is there an upper limit to the size of polypeptides?
Q3) ______________ has emerged as a technique for protein sequencing.
A)NMR spectroscopy
B)Mass spectrometry
C)Gel electrophoresis
D)Phylogenetic analysis
E)Limited proteolysis
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Page 7

Chapter 6: Proteins: Three-Dimensional Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of these characteristics is not true for the \(\alpha\) helix?
A)There are 3.6 amino acids per turn.
B)There is a requirement for glycine every third amino acid residue.
C)A hydrogen bond forms between the carbonyl oxygen of the nth amino acid residue and the - NH group of the (n + 4)th amino acid residue.
D)Proline is typically not found in the \(\alpha\) helix.
E)It is right-handed.
Q2) Of the following, which amino acid is most likely to be found in position 1 or 4 on keratin?
A)Phe
B)Ala
C)Lys
D)Trp
E)Pro
Q3) Evolutionary processes have
A)increased the stability of 4° structures.
B)decreased the number of subunits.
C)increased similarity amount 1° structures.
D)enhanced efficient folding pathways.
E)all of the above
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Chapter 7: Protein Function Part I: Myoglobin and Hemoglobin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mammals and other animals have a circulatory system because diffusion is to slow to supply the tissues with oxygen in animals that are larger than 2 millimeter.Explain in one sentence why these circulatory systems contain hemoglobin or other oxygen binding proteins?
Q2) Hemerythrin and hemocyanin are:
A)human mutant hemoglobins with decreased oxygen affinity. B)hemoglobin variants that are found in animals at high altitude.
C)synthetic derivatives of hemoglobin's heme group used in artificial blood substitutes. D)oxygen transport proteins found in invertebrates.
E)tetrameric hemoglobin derivatives containing only \(\alpha\)-chains (\(\alpha\)<sub>4</sub> tetramers).
Q3) What is the primary physiological function of myoglobin in most mammals?
Q4) How many antigen-binding sites are present on an IgM molecule?

Page 9
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Chapter 8: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ______ sugars are monosaccharides in which a hydroxyl group is replaced with a hydrogen atom.
A)eight
B)deoxy
C)peptidoglycan
D)axial
E)anomers
F)two
G)lactose
H)glyceraldehyde
I)amylopectin
J)epimers
K)sixteen
L)glycogen
M)equatorial
N)chitin
O)hyaluronic acid
P)amylose
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Lipids and Biological Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _________ model describes the cell membrane as an assortment of integral proteins suspended freely in a lipid bilayer.
A)FRAP
B)cellular fusion
C)transverse diffusion
D)lateral diffusion
E)fluid mosaic
Q2) Botox is used cosmetically to reduce wrinkles for a limited time interval.The function of Botox is described by which of the following?
A)Botox inhibits function of the hemagglutinin tag.
B)Botox relaxes small muscles by cleaving the leader peptide prior protein folding.
C)Botox functions by inhibiting function of the SNARE protein.
D)Botox functions by inhibiting the lysosomal protease cathepsin D.
E)None of the above describes the function of Botox.
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11

Chapter 10: Membrane Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______ are bacterial proteins forming a \(\beta\) barrel structure with a central aqueous channel.
A)Porins
B)gap junctions
C)symport
D)active
E)ion channel
F)secondary active
G)channel-forming
H)carrier ionophores
I)passive-mediated
J)uniport
K)simple diffusion
L)anti-ion transport
Q2) The greater the magnitude of the concentration gradient:
A)the more rapid the rate of diffusion.
B)the more likely mediated transport is required.
C)the easier it is to reverse the flux.
D)the higher number of ATPs required to diffuse.
E)All of the above are true.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Enzyme Catalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following amino acid residues would provide a side chain capable of increasing the hydrophobicity of a binding site?
A)histidine
B)lysine
C)isoleucine
D)arginine
E)serine
Q2) Carbohydrate metabolic enzymes bind D-glucose specifically.D-glucose has an estimated caloric value of 1 kcal per 4 grams of carbohydrate.Based on the methods used to convert the energy of D-glucose into a useable form, what would you estimate the caloric value of L-glucose to be using the same method?
A)1 kcal per 4 grams
B)1 kcal per 2 grams
C)1 kcal per 8 grams
D)0 kcal per 4 grams
E)2 kcal per 8 grams
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13
Chapter 12: Enzyme Kinetics, Inhibition and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) At substrate concentrations much lower than the enzyme concentration, A)the rate of reaction is expected to be inversely proportional to substrate concentration.
B)the rate of reaction is expected to be directly proportional to substrate concentration.
C)first order enzyme kinetics are not observed.
D)the K<sub>M</sub> is lower.
E)the rate of reaction is independent of substrate concentration.
Q2) Pseudo-first-order reaction kinetics would be observed for the reaction A + B \(\rarr\) C
A)if [A] or [B] > [C].
B)if [C]>[A] and [C]>[B].
C)if [A] or [B] = 0.
D)if [C] = 0.
E)none of the above
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14
Chapter 13: Biochemical Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone _____ is responsible for a variety of actions including the ability to cope with stress.
A)receptors
B)phosphoinositide
C)rhodopsin
D)calmodulin
E)insulin
F)hypothalamus
G)cortisol
H)adrenal cortex
I)cyclic AMP
J)RasGAP
K)islets of Langerhans
L)adenylate cyclase (AC)
M)receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK)
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Page 15

Chapter 14: Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) In redox half-reactions, a more positive standard reduction potential means
I.the oxidized form has a higher affinity for electrons.
II.the oxidized form has a lower affinity for electrons.
III.the reduced form has a higher affinity for electrons.
IV.the greater the tendency for the oxidized form to accept electrons.
A)I only
B)II only
C)II, III
D)I, IV
E)II, IV
Q2) Consider the following metabolic reaction: Succinyl-CoA + Acetoacetate \(\rarr\) Acetoacetyl-CoA + Succinate \(\Delta\)G°' = -1.25 kJ/mol
This reaction is
A)favorable under standard conditions.
B)not favorable under standard conditions.
C)nonspontaneous as written regardless of reactant concentrations
D)spontaneous as written only when [succinate] and [acetoacetyl-CoA] are high.
E)favorability of this reaction as written depends on temperature and reactant concentrations
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Glycogen Metabolism and Gluconeogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best explains the energetically favorable formation of UDP-glucose in the liver and muscle?
A)(\(\Delta\)G°' for the reaction glucose-1-phosphate + UTP \(\rarr\)UDP-glucose + PP<sub>i</sub> is very negative.)
B)(\(\Delta\)G°' for the reaction glucose-1-phosphate + UTP \(\rarr\) UDP-glucose + PP<sub>i</sub> is very positive.)
C)(\(\Delta\)G°' for the reaction PP<sub>i</sub> \(\rarr\) 2P<sub>i</sub> is very negative.)
D)(\(\Delta\)G°' for the reaction PP<sub>i</sub> \(\rarr\) 2P<sub>i</sub> is very positive.)
E)(\(\Delta\)G°' for the overall reaction is very positive.)
Q2) In glycogen synthesis, the intermediate between glucose-1-phosphate and glycogen is
A)UDP-glucose .
B)UDP-glycogen.
C)glucose-1,6-bisphosphate.
D)glucose-6-phosphate.
E)glucose.
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Page 17

Chapter 16: Glucose Catabolism
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Q1) Which of the following reactions does not occur in mammals?
A)pyruvate + NADH lactate + NAD<sup>+</sup>
B)ribulose-5-phosphoate ribose-5-phosphate
C)mannose + ATP mannose-6-phosphate + ADP + P<sub>i</sub>
D)6-phophogluconate + NADP<sup>+</sup> ribulose-5-phosphate + NADPH + CO<sub>2</sub>
E)pyruvate + NADH + H<sup>+</sup> CO<sub>2</sub> + ethanol + NAD<sup>+</sup>
Q2) The metabolism of mannose requires _____ to produce ____ for entry into the glycolytic pathway.
A)hexokinase; glucose-6-phosphate
B)hexokinase; fructose-6-phosphate
C)phosphomannose isomerase; glucose-6-phosphate
D)phosphomannose isomerase; fructose-6-phosphate
E)phosphofructokinase; bisphosphoglycerate
Q3) Which glycolytic enzyme catalyzes a reaction with an enediolate intermediate?
A)phosphoglucomutase
B)triose phosphate isomerase
C)phosphofructokinase
D)aldolase
E)none of the above
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Chapter 17: Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) The isomerization of citrate to isocitrate
A)is the reaction of the citric acid cycle that occurs spontaneously without enzymatic catalysis.
B)protects cells from the toxic effects of arsenite ion.
C)converts a tertiary alcohol, which cannot easily be oxidized, to a secondary alcohol that can be oxidized.
D)is one major regulatory step for the citric acid cycle because it functions as a rate limiting step.
E)A and B
Q2) The reaction catalyzed by pyruvate carboxylase is an example of a(n)______ reaction because it replenishes the citric acid cycle intermediates that have been siphoned off for use in other reactions.
A)amphibolic
B)amphipathic
C)anaplerotic
D)cataplerotic
E)none of the above
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Chapter 18: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Complexes I and II each transfer electrons to ______.
A)shuttle
B)matrix
C)respiration
D)copper
E)heme
F)tunnel
G)plasma membrane
H)coenzyme Q
I)cytosol
J)antioxidant
K)wire
L)proton pump
Q2) Which of the prosthetic groups listed can accept or donate either one or two electrons due to the stability of the semiquinone state?
A)cytochrome c
B)NADH
C)CoQ
D)[2Fe-2S]
E)Rieske center

Page 20
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Chapter 19: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The major sugar transported to nonphotosynthesizing cells is A)sucrose.
B)fructose.
C)UDP-glucose.
D)fructose-6-phosphate.
E)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
Q2) Binding of oxygen to RuBisCo
A)destroys enzymatic function because oxygen is a suicide inhibitor of the enzyme.
B)targets the enzyme for proteolytic degradation.
C)decreases the enzyme's K<sub>m</sub> for oxygen since binding is cooperative.
D)activates the enzyme for carbon fixing reactions.
E)costs the cell ATP since energy is required to replace intermediates necessary for carbon fixation.
Q3) In plants and cyanobacteria, PSII ______, and PSI ______.
A)oxidizes H<sub>2</sub>O, reduces NAD<sup>+</sup>
B)oxidizes H<sub>2</sub>O, reduces NADP<sup>+</sup>
C)oxidizes O<sub>2</sub>, reduces FAD
D)oxidizes H<sub>2</sub>O, reduces FAD
E)none of the above are true
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Page 21

Chapter 20: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following compounds is produced by the multistep cyclization of squalene?
A)lanosterol
B)geranyl pyrophosphate
C)fanesyl pyrophosphate
D)isoprene
E)isopentyl pyrophosphate
Q2) Which enzyme catalyses the key regulatory step of cholesterol synthesis?
A)(\(\beta\)-ketothiolase)
B)HMG-CoA synthase
C)HMG-CoA reductase
D)mevalonate-5-phosphotransferase
E)phenyltransferase
Q3) Which of the following would result in a net increase in uptake of LDL by the liver?
A)increased availability of LDL receptors
B)high levels of cholesterol synthesis
C)increased availability of clathrin triskelions
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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22

Chapter 21: Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following require a cyclic carbohydrate precursor for synthesis?
I.histidine
II.alanine
III.arginine
IV.tyrosine
A)I, II
B)II only
C)I, III
D)I , IV
E)II, IV
Q2) A number of compounds, including neurotransmitters, are synthesized from amino acids via decarboxylations.The enzymes catalyzing these steps usually use _______ as a cofactor.
A)pyridoxal-5 -phosphate
B)thiamine pyrophosphate
C)biotin
D)cobalt containing compounds [vitamin B<sub>12</sub>]
E)tetrahydrofolate
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Chapter 22: Mammalian Fuel Metabolism: Integration and Regulation
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Q1) Following prolonged starvation, ______ are used as fuel by the brain.
A) -adrenergic receptor
B) -adrenergic receptor
C)Cori cycle
D)urea cycle
E)leptin
F)phosphatase
G)liver
H)hormones
I)acetyl CoA
J)ketone bodies
K)urea
L)kidney
M)brain
N)pancreas
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Page 24

Chapter 23: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) The proposed mechanism of the Class I RNR involves
A)electron transfer directly from substrate to tyrosine 122.
B)electron transfer from substrate to various cysteine residues.
C)an exposed tyrosine which accepts an electron from the ribosyl radical.
D)electron donation to external reducing agents.
E)none of the above
Q2) The anticancer drug methotrexate inhibits nucleotide synthesis.Which of the following explains why it also inhibits the synthesis of histidine and methionine?
A)The synthetic pathways for these amino acids require tetrahydrofolate for group transfer reactions.
B)These amino acids are derivatives of the nucleotides UTP and GTP.
C)Without the synthesis of nucleotides, there is not sufficient energy for the synthesis of the amino acids.
D)<ethotrexate inhibits also inhibits the precursors for these amino acids.
E)all of the above
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Chapter 24: Nucleic Acid Structure
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Q1) Which of the following can be determined from a Northern blot?
A)the size of a gene transcript
B)the abundance of a gene transcript
C)the tissue specificity of gene transcript
D)the stage-specificity of a gene transcript
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following best describes the structure of RNA-DNA hybrids?
I.They are most similar to A-DNA.
II.They are most similar to B-DNA.
III.They are most similar to Z-DNA.
IV.They are most similar to RNA.
A)I only
B)II only
C)I, II
D)III only
E)IV only
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Chapter 25: Dna Replication, Repair and Recombination
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Q1) Pol I synthesizes new DNA with very high fidelity, due to its A)high processivity.
B)3' <sup> </sup>\(\rarr\)5' exonuclease activity.<sup> </sup> C)helicase association with the primase.
D)5' <sup> </sup>\(\rarr\) 3'exonuclease activity.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Free radical damage to DNA often results in I.pyrimidine dimers
II.point mutations
III.insertions
IV.base excision
A)I only.
B)II only.
C)I, II.
D)II, III.
E)I, IV.
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Chapter 26: Transcription and Rna Processing
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Q1) Which of the following types of splicing RNAs uses a free nucleotide to perform a nucleophilic attack?
I.group I introns
II.group II introns
III.self splicing introns
A)I, II, III
B)I, II
C)I, III
D)II, III
E)none of the above
Q2) Why is TBP referred to as a universal transcription factor?
I.TBP is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms.
II.TBP catalyzes the initiation of all RNA polymersase in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
III.TBP is required for initiation by RNAP I, RNAP II, and RNAP III.
A)I, II, III
B)I, II
C)I, III
D)II, III
E)III only
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28

Chapter 27: Translation
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of events in formation of the ribosome assembly and associated RNAs and proteins?
A)small ribosome subunit associates with large subunit; mRNA associates next; IF with bound NTP brings in first f-Met-tRNA; IF then hydrolyses bound NTP.
B)IF with bound NTP binds f-Met-tRNA; small ribosome subunit associates next; mRNA associates next; then large subunit; IF then hydrolyses bound NTP.
C)small subunit associates with mRNA; IF w/ bound NTP brings in first f-Met-tRNA; IF then hydrolyses bound NTP; large subunit associates
D)large subunit associates with mRNA; IF w/ bound NTP brings in first f-Met-tRNA; small subunit associates; IF then hydrolyses bound NTP.
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a feature of tRNA structure?
A)acceptor or amino acid stem
B)D arm
C)anticodon loop
D)3F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 terminal phosphate arm
E)variable arm
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Chapter 28: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) How do steroid hormones influence gene expression?
A)They bind cell surface receptors which influence the concentration of second messengers.
B)They migrate between the cytosol and nucleus binding the hormone response elements to affect transcription.
C)They bind to histones, influencing their ability to form nucleosomes.
D)They bind to histones, influencing their ability to be methylated.
E)None of the above.
Q2) Of the human genome approximately 80% ___.
A)is made up of exonic DNA.
B)may be transcribed.
C)is made up of protein encoding genes.
D)A and C
E)A and B
Q3) Which of the following best describes caspases?
A)They are cysteine proteases that participate in apoptosis.
B)They are cyclin-dependent protein kinases that regulate the cell cycle.
C)They are tumor suppressor DNA-binding proteins.
D)They are a class of high mobility group (HMG)proteins.
E)They are DNA repair enzymes involved in splicing immunoglobulin genes.
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