Pre-Medical Anatomy and Physiology Practice
Questions
Course Introduction
Pre-Medical Anatomy and Physiology provides an in-depth exploration of the human body's structure and function, with an emphasis on foundational concepts essential for students preparing for medical studies. The course covers major organ systems, including the musculoskeletal, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems, highlighting the interplay between anatomy and physiological processes. Students will develop an understanding of cellular and tissue organization, homeostasis, and the mechanisms underlying health and disease. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and interactive activities, learners will gain practical knowledge and critical thinking skills necessary for advanced study in medicine and the health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many medical terms are rooted in
A) Latin.
B) German.
C) Greek.
D) Phoenician.
E) Greek or Latin.
Answer: E
Q2) Terms of anatomical direction are used to describe
A) one body part in relation to another.
B) surgical procedures.
C) a supine position.
D) the nervous system.
E) living matter.
Answer: A
Q3) Name the organs found in the thoracic cavity.
Answer: lungs, heart, trachea, esophagus, thymus, major blood vessels connected to the heart
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the process of ________ a phosphate group is transferred to a molecule.
A) ionization
B) buffering
C) amination
D) dissociation
E) phosphorylation
Answer: E
Q2) During ionization, water molecules disrupt the ionic bonds of a salt to produce a mixture of ions. Theseions can carry a current and so are called A) cations.
B) anions.
C) acids.
D) electrolytes.
E) counterions.
Answer: D
Q3) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The duplication of DNA is called ________, the copying of DNA to mRNA is called ________, and the readingof the mRNA by the cell to make a protein is called
A) replication; transcription; translation
B) interphase; replication; active transport
C) replication; translation; transcription
D) mitosis; duplication; protein synthesis
E) reproduction; duplication; initiation
Answer: A
Q2) Which form of endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins?
A) all forms of endoplasmic reticulum
B) simple endoplasmic reticulum
C) raised endoplasmic reticulum
D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E) rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of loose connective tissue provides padding, cushions shock, reduces heat loss, and stores energy? Where are some places in the body this type of tissue is commonly found? (Figure 4-11)
A) reticular tissue; spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow
B) areolar tissue; deep to the dermis, between muscles and around joints
C) adipose tissue; deep to the skin at sides, buttocks, and breasts
D) areolar tissue; liver and kidney
E) reticular tissue; around eyes and kidneys
Q2) Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways except
A) providing strong connections between muscles and bones.
B) supporting epithelia.
C) anchoring blood vessels and nerves.
D) cushioning and stabilizing.
E) filling spaces between organs.
Q3) Each of the following is an example of dense connective tissue except A) tendons.
B) ligaments.
C) aponeuroses.
D) areolar tissue.
E) elastic tissue.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are located whereverhair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas.
A) Sebaceous; merocrine; apocrine
B) Apocrine; merocrine; sebaceous
C) Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine
D) Merocrine; apocrine; sebaceous
E) Apocrine; sebaceous; merocrine
Q2) Which of the following is not true of melanin?
A) There is more than 1 type of melanin.
B) Melanin is released by exocytosis.
C) It is manufactured from tyrosine.
D) It is packaged in vesicles called melanosomes.
E) It absorbs UV radiation.
Q3) All of the following are true of the subcutaneous layer except it
A) contains many blood vessels.
B) permits independent movement of deeper structures.
C) contains large amounts of adipose tissue.
D) is attached to the dermis by a basement membrane.
E) is well supplied with nerves that pass into the skin.
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following chemicals is not present in bone?
A) calcium phosphate
B) collagen fibers
C) calcium carbonate
D) chondroitin sulfate
E) hydroxyapatite
Q2) Hundreds of years ago, explorers often died of scurvy. How can this bone-related disease be prevented?
A) Supplement the diet with more calcium from meat.
B) Increase levels of testosterone to stimulate bone repair.
C) Supplement the diet with fresh fruit rich in vitamin C.
D) Drink more water to promote bone remodeling and repair.
E) Amputate fractured limbs to prevent the spread of scurvy.
Q3) The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the A) diaphysis.
B) epiphysis.
C) osseophysis.
D) metaphysis.
E) medullary cavity.
Q4) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) transverse process
B) superior articular process
C) pedicle
D) inferior articular process
E) lamina
Q2) The four primary sutures are lambdoid, coronal, sagittal, and
A) lateral.
B) cuboidal.
C) parietal.
D) squamous.
E) frontal.
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) pedicle
B) transverse process
C) lamina
D) spinous process
E) transverse articular facet
Q4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ligament attaches the acetabulum to the femur at the ________, a small pit in the center of the femoral head.
A) greater trochanter
B) lesser trochanter
C) fovea capitis
D) gluteal tuberosity
E) lateral lip
Q2) Which of the following processes is not found on the ulna?
A) styloid process of ulna
B) olecranon
C) radial notch
D) coronoid process
E) trochlea
Q3) To settle a bet, you need to measure the length of your lower limb (head of femur to distal end of tibia). What landmarks would you use to make the measurement?
Q4) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?
Q5) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoralgirdle?
Q6) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The joints that connect the four fingers with the metacarpal bones are
A) condylar joints.
B) saddle joints.
C) pivot joints.
D) hinge joints.
E) condyloid joints.
Q2) An epiphyseal line is an example of a A) gomphosis.
B) synchondrosis.
C) synostosis.
D) symphysis.
E) syndesmosis.
Q3) Pronation is defined as
A) a rolling of the distal epiphysis of the radius over the ulna.
B) a twisting of the ulna medially.
C) twisting the forearm so that the palms face anteriorly.
D) the shortening of the angle between the radius and the humerus.
E) movement of the mandible anteriorly, as seen when biting the upper lip.
Q4) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?
Q5) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) mitochondria
B) glycogen
C) ATP
D) myofibril
E) synaptic vesicle
Q2) When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the sarcolemma becomes
A) more permeable to sodium ions.
B) less permeable to sodium ions.
C) more permeable to calcium ions.
D) less permeable to potassium ions.
E) less permeable to potassium and sodium ions.
Q3) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the A) sarcolemma.
B) sarcomere.
C) sarcosome.
D) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
E) sarcoplasm.
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles that laterally rotate the thigh include all of the following except the A) gluteus maximus.
B) obturator internus.
C) obturator externus.
D) piriformis.
E) tensor fasciae latae.
Q2) Muscles visible at the body surface are often called A) internus.
B) extrinsic.
C) profundus.
D) intrinsic.
E) superficialis.
Q3) Alever consists of
A) a tendon and a muscle.
B) a rigid structure.
C) a fulcrum.
D) a bone, a muscle, and a nerve.
E) a rigid structure and a fulcrum.
Q4) How do first-, second-, and third-class levers differ?
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not involved in creating the resting membrane potential of a neuron?
A) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell
B) diffusion of sodium ions into the cell
C) membrane permeability for sodium ions greater than potassium ions
D) membrane permeability for potassium ions greater than sodium ions
E) The interior of the plasma membrane has an excess of negative charges.
Q2) A movement of charges in response to a potential difference is called
A) current.
B) depolarization.
C) hyperpolarization.
D) action potential.
E) electricity.
Q3) When pressure is applied to neural tissue, all of the following effects are possible except
A) a decrease in blood flow.
B) a decrease in available oxygen.
C) a change in neuron excitability.
D) glial cells degenerate.
E) neurons are triggered to divide.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enlarged area of the spinal cord from which nerves to the shoulder and upper limbs arise.
A) cervical enlargement
B) lumbar enlargement
C) thoracic region
D) conus medullaris
E) sacral region
Q2) Nerve tracts or fasciculi make up the
A) central canal.
B) posterior gray horns.
C) gray commissures.
D) white columns.
E) anterior gray horns.
Q3) Masses of gray matter within the central nervous system are
A) ganglia.
B) columns.
C) nuclei.
D) commissures.
E) horns.
Page 15
Q4) What is a reflex arc? What components must be present to qualify?
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the optic chiasm,
A) axons from the medial halves of each retina cross.
B) axons from the lateral halves of each retina cross.
C) axons from the retinae synapse on those from the other half.
D) the olfactory nerve crosses to the opposite side of the brain.
E) the optic nerve enters the cerebellum.
Q2) Which statement is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid?
A) CSF is identical in composition to blood plasma.
B) CSF is made during fetal development and does not change through the lifetime of the person.
C) There is about a liter of CSF within the brain and spinal cord.
D) If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus.
E) CSF moves back into the blood supply by the process of osmosis.
Q3) The choroid plexus is composed of
A) lymphatic vessels.
B) blood vessels.
C) nerve fibers.
D) ganglia.
E) subarachnoid granulations.
Q4) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the motor homunculus, which of the following body regions has the fewest number of motor unitsinvolved?
A) tongue
B) face
C) hands
D) back trunk
Q2) The conversion of a sensory input to a change in membrane potential in the receptor is known as
A) transduction.
B) reception.
C) effection.
D) potential.
E) stimulation.
Q3) Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled "2."
A) motor commands to skeletal muscles
B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex
C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex
D) crude touch and pressure sensations
E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a sympathetic neurotransmitter used for vasodilation?
A) acetylcholine
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) serotonin
E) nitric oxide
Q2) Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers leave the CNS in all of the following locations except
A) the midbrain.
B) the pons.
C) the medulla oblongata.
D) spinal segments T1-L2.
E) spinal segments S2-S4.
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "6."
A) somatic motor neuron
B) preganglionic neuron
C) sensory neuron
D) ganglionic neuron
E) astrocyte
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young child has been diagnosed with a recessive hereditary disease that results in destruction of thelateral geniculate body. The result of this would be
A) inability to change the focus with your lens.
B) excessive light bouncing around within the posterior portion of the eyeball.
C) total blindness.
D) no production of rhodopsin.
E) partial loss of vision.
Q2) The external acoustic meatus ends at the A) tympanic membrane.
B) auditory ossicles.
C) cochlea.
D) pinna.
E) vestibule.
Q3) The first step in the process of photoreception is A) the bleaching of rods.
B) the bleaching of cones.
C) absorption of a photon by a visual pigment.
D) inhibition of the sodium pumps.
E) release of neurotransmitter.
Q4) What six basic steps are involved in the process of hearing?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does the chemical reaction between thyroglobulin and iodine take place?
A) in lysosomes
B) in rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) in the follicle cavity
D) in pinocytotic vesicles
E) in apical microvilli
Q2) The control of calcitonin excretion is an example of direct ________ regulation.
A) endocrine
B) pancreatic
C) homeostatic
D) hepatic
E) vascular
Q3) The posterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the A) basal ganglion.
B) infundibulum.
C) adenohypophysis.
D) mesencephalon.
E) neurohypophysis.
Q4) What does it mean to say that the pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine organ?
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of platelets is to assist in the
A) destruction of bacteria.
B) process called hemostasis.
C) removal of worn out red blood cells.
D) immune response during an infection.
E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.
Q2) A person who has a low blood volume is said to be
A) hypovolemic.
B) hypervolemic.
C) normovolemic.
D) isovolemic.
E) antivolemic.
Q3) ________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation.
A) Erythroblasts
B) Normoblasts
C) Myeloblasts
D) Band cells
E) Reticulocytes
Q4) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood?
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ carry blood away from the heart.
A) arterioles
B) arteries
C) veins
D) venules
E) capillaries
Q2) As blood leaves the right ventricle, it passes through the ________ and then into the pulmonary trunk.
A) pulmonary veins
B) conus arteriosus
C) aorta
D) inferior vena cava
E) superior vena cava
Q3) Identify the structure(s) labeled "8."
A) moderator band
B) pectinate muscles
C) papillary muscles
D) trabeculae carneae
E) chordae tendineae
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Venoconstriction ________ the amount of blood within the venous system, which ________ the volume in thearterial and capillary systems.
A) doubles; decreases
B) reduces; increases
C) decreases; doubles
D) increases; reduces
E) reduces; reduces
Q2) The resistance to blood flow of the entire cardiovascular system is known as A) severe combined constriction.
B) vasomotion.
C) vasoconstriction.
D) total peripheral resistance.
E) systemic resistance.
Q3) The external iliac artery branches to form the ________ arteries.
A) radial and ulnar
B) femoral and popliteal
C) femoral and tibial
D) tibial and popliteal
E) femoral and deep femoral
Q4) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Class II MHC molecules are found on which of the following?
A) all body cells with a nucleus
B) red blood cells
C) granulocytes and microphages
D) lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells
E) liver cells and macrophages in the spleen
Q2) The process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and complement, rendering it more likely to be phagocytized, is called
A) opsonization.
B) activation.
C) agglutination.
D) precipitation.
E) neutralization.
Q3) In IgG, the antigen binding site is formed by the
A) variable segment of the light chain.
B) variable segment of the heavy chain.
C) constant segment of the heavy chain.
D) variable segments of both the light and heavy chains.
E) ionized segment of the light chain and the isotropic segment of the heavy chain.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the chloride shift is false?
A) It involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs.
B) It depends on the chloride-bicarbonate countertransporter.
C) It involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma.
D) It is driven by a rise in PCO2.
E) It causes RBCs to swell.
Q2) All of the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla oblongata except the
A) olfactory epithelium.
B) medullary chemoreceptors.
C) aortic body.
D) carotid body.
E) central chemoreceptors.
Q3) Alveolar ventilation refers to the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) movement of air into and out of the alveoli.
C) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
D) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli.
E) utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.
Q4) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prominent ridges in the lining of the empty stomach are called
A) cardia.
B) papillae.
C) rugae.
D) plicae.
E) villi.
Q2) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term pancreatic juice?
A) produced by endocrine tissue
B) produced by pancreatic islets
C) rich in bile
D) rich in insulin and glucagon produced by pancreatic islets
E) alkaline mixture of enzymes, water and ions produced by acinar cells
Q3) Digestion refers to the
A) progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.
B) mechanical breakdown of food.
C) chemical breakdown of food.
D) mechanical and chemical breakdown of food.
E) release of water, acids, enzymes and buffers by organs.
Q4) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?
Q5) Outline the usual pathway for digestion and absorption of triglycerides (fats).
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Q1) The nutrients that yield the most energy per gram when metabolized are
A) carbohydrates.
B) proteins.
C) fats.
D) nucleic acids.
E) vitamins.
Q2) In a warm environment, does more blood return to the trunk through deep or superficial veins? Why? (Figure 25-14)
A) superficial veins; allows heat to radiate
B) deep veins; allows heat to radiate
C) superficial veins; allows heat to evaporate
D) deep veins; allows heat to evaporate
E) deep veins; allows heat conduction
Q3) Linoleic acid and linolenic acid are examples of A) transport proteins.
B) lipoproteins.
C) essential fatty acids.
D) essential amino acids.
E) vitamins.
Q4) Briefly outline the role of the liver in glucose metabolism.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldosterone-sensitive portions of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct allow for the exchangeofwhich ions? (Figure 26-13)
A) reabsorption of hydrogen ions in exchange for chloride ions
B) reabsorption of chloride ions in exchange for hydrogen ions
C) reabsorption of sodium ions in exchange for potassium ions
D) reabsorption of potassium ions in exchange for sodium ions
E) reabsorption of bicarbonate ions in exchange for hydrogen ions
Q2) The proximal convoluted tubule cells are
A) cuboidal cells with microvilli.
B) cuboidal cells without microvilli.
C) squamous cells.
D) columnar cells with microvilli.
E) columnar cell without microvilli.
Q3) The region of the nephron containing intercalated cells primarily associated with pH balance is the
A) glomerulus.
B) proximal convoluted tubule.
C) nephron loop.
D) collecting duct.
E) papillary duct.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) What is a serious condition that could occur if the potassium ion concentration is >7 mEq/L? (Figure 27-7)
A) muscle weakness leading to paralysis
B) increased urine volume
C) respiratory depression
D) acidosis
E) cardiac arrhythmias
Q2) A drowning victim will likely experience a period of ________ until resuscitation begins.
A) acute respiratory acidosis
B) acute respiratory alkalosis
C) chronic respiratory alkalosis
D) metabolic acidosis
E) metabolic alkalosis
Q3) The release of atrial naturetic peptides from the heart will cause the body to
A) conserve sodium ions.
B) decrease ECF.
C) excrete potassium ions.
D) conserve sodium ions and decrease ECF.
E) excrete sodium ions and decrease ECF.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not found within the seminiferous tubule?
A) spermatogonia
B) spermatocytes
C) nurse cells
D) interstitial endocrine cells
E) spermatids
Q2) Frank is experiencing difficulty urinating, painful urination, low back pain and a slight fever. The doctorprescribes antibiotics and Frank recovers. It is likely that Frank suffered from
A) impotence.
B) prostate cancer.
C) prostatitis.
D) a vasectomy.
E) a circumcision.
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning the vagina is false?
A) It serves as a passageway for the elimination of menstrual fluids.
B) It receives the penis during sexual intercourse.
C) It holds sperm prior to their passage to the uterus.
D) It forms the lower portion of the birth canal.
E) It loses a portion of its lining during menses.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
146 Verified Questions
146 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/3103
Sample Questions
Q1) The extraembryonic membrane that forms blood is the A) yolk sac.
B) amnion.
C) allantois.
D) chorion.
E) decidua.
Q2) The developmental period that is the period of all embryological and early fetal development is
A) the first trimester.
B) the second trimester.
C) the third trimester.
D) infancy.
E) adolescence.
Q3) The transfer of genetically determined characteristics from generation to generation is termed
A) development.
B) differentiation.
C) inheritance.
D) phylogeny.
E) maturity.
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