Pre-Health Professions Practice Questions
Course Introduction
The Pre-Health Professions course is designed to introduce students to various careers in the health professions, including medicine, dentistry, pharmacy, nursing, allied health, and veterinary sciences. Students will explore the academic pathways and professional requirements for each field, gain insights into the application processes for professional schools, and develop a foundational understanding of the ethical, cultural, and societal issues in healthcare. The course also emphasizes the development of essential skills such as communication, leadership, teamwork, and scientific inquiry, preparing students for further study and eventual entry into health-related professions.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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2169 Verified Questions
2169 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Place the following levels of organization from the most complex to the simplest level of organization.
A)chemical level,tissue level,cellular level,organismal level organ level,
B)chemical level,cellular level,tissue level,organ level,organismal level
C)cellular level,tissue level,organ level,chemical level,organismal level
D)chemical level,organ level,cellular level,tissue level,organismal level
Answer: B
Q2) During a visit to your doctor,you complain about headache and anxiety.These changes in your body functions are considered
A)signs.
B)symptoms.
C)receptors.
D)controlled condition.
E)responsiveness.
Answer: B
Q3) Describe the differences between positive and negative feedback systems.
Answer: A positive feedback system will strengthen or reinforce a change in one of the body's controlled conditions while a negative feedback system will reverse a change in a controlled condition.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) This type of protein protects against pathogens.
A)contractile
B)immunological
C)regulatory
D)catalytic
E)transport
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a general term used to refer to the sum of all the chemical reactions occurring in the body?
A)anabolism
B)catabolism
C)metabolism
D)catalysis
E)homeostasis
Answer: C
Q3) Describe what happens to a protein's structure and function when it is denatured.
Answer: During denaturation,the folded conformation of a protein unravels and loses its unique shape.Loss of that shape destroys the protein's ability to accomplish its function.
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4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe the driving force for the movement of water across plasma membranes.
Answer: Water moves across membranes by osmosis,which is driven by solute concentration differences across the membrane.Water moves from the area of low solute concentration to the area of high solute concentrations.
Q2) The three main components of the lipid bilayer portion of a plasma membrane are
A)phospholipids,glycoproteins,and water.
B)proteins,cholesterol,and fatty acids.
C)cholesterol,triglycerides,and glycolipids.
D)phospholipids,cholesterol,and glycolipids.
E)phospholipids,cholesterol,and proteins.
Answer: D
Q3) Briefly describe the fluid mosaic model.
Answer: The fluid mosaic model states that the molecular arrangement of the plasma membrane resembles an ever-moving sea of fluid lipids containing a mosaic of many different proteins.
Q4) Define homologous chromosomes.
Answer: Homologous chromosomes contain similar genes arranged in the same (or almost the same)order.
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______ are abnormal joining of tissues resulting from the formation of scar tissue at a previous site of inflammation or surgical repair.
A)Adhesions
B)Fibrosis
C)Cysts
D)Granulations
E)Dehiscence
Q2) Discuss the three functional classifications of exocrine glands secretions.
Q3) An individual that becomes sedentary due to an ACL operation,will experience muscle ______ due to lack of physical activity.
A)atrophy
B)hyperplasia
C)hypertrophy
D)adhesion
E)anorexia
Q4) Name and describe the types of cells commonly found in connective tissue.
Q5) Compare and contrast the functional and structural characteristics of the three types of muscle tissue.
Q6) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) John has just been brought into the emergency room following a fiery explosion at a chemical plant.He is diagnosed with third degree burns over the anterior surfaces of his arms and trunk.What specific structural damage has occurred to his skin? What risks to John's life have resulted from this damage?
Q2) The buildup of bilirubin in an infant's blood can occur if the liver does not remove the chemical.This condition is
A)cyanosis
B)pallor
C)jaundice
D)alopecia
E)erythema
Q3) Tactile epithelial cells are located in the
A)stratum basale.
B)stratum spinosum.
C)stratum granulosum.
D)stratum lucidum.
E)stratum corneum.
Q4) Describe the structural characteristics of the epidermis that contribute to its ability to protect the surface of an animal.
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jamie has a tumor of the parathyroid glands that causes a hypersecretion of PTH from these glands.Predict the effect this hypersecretion would have on the skeletal system and on the secretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland.
Q2) List the order of the zones in an epiphyseal plate from the diaphyseal region to the distal epiphysis.
A: Zone of calcified cartilage
B: Zone of hypertrophic cartilage
C: Zone of proliferating cartilage
D: Zone of resting cartilage
A)a,c,d,b
B)b,a,c,d
C)a,b,d,c
D)a,b,c,d
Q3) Why do greenstick fractures commonly occur in children?
A)Their bones contain higher amounts of collagen.
B)Their bones contain higher amounts of hydroxyapatite.
C)Their bones are still composed of hyaline cartilage.
D)Their bones are still composed of mesenchymal tissue.
Q4) Briefly describe the processes by which bone increases in length and diameter.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: the Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ___ suture articulates with the most bones in the skull.
A)Coronal
B)Frontal
C)Sagittal
D)Squamous
E)Lambdoid
Q2) The tubercle found on the neck of a rib articulates with a facet found on the
A)spinous process of a thoracic vertebra.
B)spinous process of a lumbar vertebra.
C)transverse process of a thoracic vertebra.
D)xiphoid process of the sternum.
E)manubrium of the sternum.
Q3) Briefly describe the bones that make up the orbit of the eye.Include a description of the portion of the orbit formed by each bone.
Q4) The pituitary gland is contained in a depression found in which cranial bone?
A)ethmoid
B)sphenoid
C)lacrimal
D)yemporal
E)parietal
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System:
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sesamoid bone develops in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle and articulates with medial and lateral condyles of femur?
A)ischium
B)ilium
C)pubis
D)patella
E)fibula
Q2) What is the function of the pelvic girdle?
A)support for vertebral column
B)attachment site for lower limbs
C)attachment site for large pectoral muscles.
D)attachment site for lower limbs and for large pectoral muscles.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) When you are seated,what area bears most of your body's weight?
A)Iliac crest
B)Sacrum
C)Ischial tuberosity
D)Pubic arch
E)Pelvic brim
Q4) Name the bones that are included in each lower limb.
10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type(s)of joint(s)lack(s)a synovial cavity?
1)Fibrous joints
2)Cartilaginous joints
3)Synovial joints
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)1 and 2
E)1,2,and 3
Q2) Gliding occurs between
A)flat bones or slightly curved bones.
B)a rounded bone and a ring.
C)an oval shaped projection and an oval shaped depression.
D)a ball like surface and a cuplike depression.
E)a convex surface and a concave surface.
Q3) Craniosacral therapy occurs when an individual manipulates the joints in the skull.What are the functional and structural classifications of the joints in the adult skull? Based on your knowledge of the joints in the adult skull,explain why it is not plausible that this manipulation would move the skull bones to influence the flow of cerebrospinal fluid around the brain.
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Chapter 10: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the factors that lead to muscle fatigue.
Q2) Discuss the steps involved in contraction of smooth muscle and explain why smooth muscle has a slower contraction cycle.
Q3) Choose the correct term based on the feature
___________:Resists fatigue
___________:Uses aerobic and anaerobic
___________:Lowest myoglobin content
Choices:
Fast Glycolytic
Fast Oxidative Glycolytic
Slow oxidative
Q4) Place the muscle tissue type in order from least to most ability to regenerate.
A)smooth,skeletal,cardiac
B)skeletal,cardiac,smooth
C)cardiac,smooth,skeletal
D)skeletal,smooth,cardiac
E)cardiac,skeletal,smooth
Q5) In embryonic muscle development,what happens to the somites?
Q6) How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential?
Q7) What are the three ways that ATP can be produced in muscle fibers?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) With reference to the effort and load,describe the main difference between a lever operating with a mechanical advantage versus a lever operating at a mechanical disadvantage.
Q2) Name the three groups of muscles constituting the intrinsic muscles of the hand.Briefly describe the structure and function of each of these groups.
Q3) )Your friend nods back and forth to you,making the yes motion.What lever system is being represented by this 'yes' motion?
A)First-class lever
B)Second-class lever
C)Third-class lever
Q4) "How much wood would a woodchuck chuck if a woodchuck could chuck wood" is difficult to say.What muscles work together to allow this to be spoken?
A)masseter,buccinators,temporalis,platysma
B)palatoglossus,styloglossus,genioglossus,hyoglossus
C)risorius,zygomaticus minor,zygomaticus major
D)mentalis,orbicularis oris,levator labii superioris
E)sternohyoid,omohyoid,sternothyroid
Q5) Discuss the roles of agonists,antagonists,synergists,and fixators in movement.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
Q2) When an impulse arrives at the synaptic end bulb,the membrane becomes more permeable to [dropdown 1].The ion movement into the synaptic end bulbs causes [dropdown 2] of [dropdown 3] into the synaptic cleft.
Dropdown 1 choices: calcium chloride potassium sodium
Dropdown 2 choices: endocytosis exocytosis
Dropdown 3 choices: electrons ions neurotransmitters protons
Q3) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
Q4) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which layer of protective connective tissue covers a nerve and fuses with the outer menix layer?
A)dura mater
B)pia mater
C)endoneurium
D)perineurium
E)epineurium
Q2) Which type of descending motor pathway excites antigravity muscles in order to exert control over postural changes necessary to compensate for tilts and movements of the body.?
A)vestibulospinal tract
B)corticospinal tract
C)corticobulbar tract
D)spinothalamic tract
E)gracile fasciculus
Q3) Discuss the clinical significance of dermatomes.
Q4) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q5) Name and describe the locations of the four major plexuses of spinal nerves.
Q6) Describe the basic anatomy of a spinal nerve plexus.
Q7) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) During development,the [dropdown 1] gives rise to the midbrain and aqueduct of midbrain,the [dropdown 2] gives rise to the thalamus,hypothalamus,and third ventricle and the [dropdown 3] forms the medulla oblongata
Answer options diencephalon mesencephalon metencephalon myelencephalon telencephalon
Q2) A boy has been reported to lack fear and not show any stress in dangerous situations.These symptoms suggest issues with which area of the brain?
A)Parietal lobe
B)Frontal lobe
C)Occipital lobe
D)Amygdala
E)Midbrain
Q3) Describe the structural and functional relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla possess what type of receptor that makes them responsive to the ACh released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons?
A)muscarinic receptors
B)nicotinic receptors
C) <sub>1</sub>-adrenergic
D) <sub>2</sub>-adrenergic
E) <sub>3</sub>-adrenergic
Q2) Which neurotransmitter is released at the adrenal gland by the preganglionic neuron in the sympathetic pathway?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Acetylcholine
C)Epinephrine
D)Dopamine
E)Serotonin
Q3) Splanchnic nerves are primarily
A)sympathetic pregagnlionic fibers
B)parasympathetic pregagnlionic fibers
C)sympathetic postgagnlionic fibers
D)parasympathetic postgagnlionic fibers
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor, and Integrative Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following stages of non-rapid eye movement (NREM)sleep is considered the deepest level of sleep?
A)Stage one
B)Stage two
C)Stage three
D)Stage four
Q2) An individual with damage to their hippocampus may struggle with
A)explicit memory.
B)implicit memory.
C)long term memory.
D)memory consolidation.
E)short term memory.
Q3) Which disorder is characterized by difficulty in falling asleep and staying asleep?
A)narcolepsy
B)insomnia
C)sleep apnea
D)coma
E)amnesia
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) During embryonic development,the middle ear develops from a structure called the first
A)pharyngeal pouch.
B)pharyngeal cleft.
C)otic placodes.
D)otic vesicle.
E)rhombencephalon.
Q2) Emily was very ill with an upper respiratory infection.Her roommate gave her some chicken soup to make her feel better.Neither Emily nor her roommate realized that the soup was too hot to eat until after Emily put a spoonful in her mouth.Now Emily says she can't taste anything.Why? When will she be able to taste again?
Q3) What ear structure vibrates back and forth when sound waves strike?
A)cochlea
B)pinna
C)tympanic membrane
D)spiral organ
E)vestibulocochlear nerve
Q4) Explain what happens when rods are exposed to light.
Q5) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following is a possible progression of which of the following disorders: Inadequate dietary iodine intake \(\rarr\) low level of thyroid hormone in blood \(\rarr\) increased TSH secretion \(\rarr\) thyroid gland enlargement.
A)Acromegaly
B)Tetany
C)Goiter
D)Cushing's syndrome
E)Addison's disease
Q2) All prostaglandins are derived from a 20-carbon precursor molecule called A)thromboxane.
B)intrinsic factor.
C)thymopoietin.
D)arachidonic acid.
E)cholesterol.
Q3) Hypothyroidism during adulthood can produce which of the following disorders?
A)Acromegaly
B)Graves' Disease
C)Hypoglycemia
D)Cushing's syndrome
E)Myxedema
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following precursor cells gives rise to granular leukocytes?
A)Proerythroblast
B)Megakaryoblast
C)Lymphoblast
D)Myeloblast
E)None of the selections are correct.
Q2) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?
Q3) The gas [dropdown 1] is said to have [dropdown 2] in the body's everyday processes.
Dropdown 1 Choices: carbon dioxide hydrogen nitrogen oxygen
Dropdown 2 Choices: a role in carbohydrate metabolism a role in lipid metabolism a role in protein synthesis no known function
Q4) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which of the following periods does the largest volume of blood enter the arteries?
A)atrial diastole
B)ventricular diastole
C)atrial systole
D)ventricular systole
E)the volume is about the same during each period
Q2) The period of atrial systole lasts about [dropdown 1] while the period of ventricular systole lasts approximately [dropdown 2].
Dropdown 1 Choices:
0.4 second
0.3 second
0.1 second
0.6 second
Dropdown 2 Choices:
0.4 second
0.3 second
0.1 second
0.6 second
Q3) Define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias.
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiovascular center is located
A)in the thoracic cavity.
B)in the cerebral cortex.
C)in the cerebellum.
D)in the medulla oblongata.
E)in the hypothalamus.
Q2) How might an individual who develops a blood clot that totally blocks a coronary artery still survive with a minimal amount of damage to the cardiac muscle supplied by that artery?
Q3) Pericardial arteries supply blood to the
A)outer heart muscle
B)tissue of the aorta
C)tissue of the pulmonary trunk
D)tissues of the pericardial sac
E)all of these
Q4) Describe the vessel wall characteristics of the five main types of blood vessels that blood travels through from the time it leaves the left ventricle until it returns to the right atrium.
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Q5) Identify and discuss the factors that contribute to systemic vascular resistance.
Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) An acute (Type I)allergic response can lead to:
A)delayed hypersensitivity
B)autoimmunity
C)anaphylactic shock
D)passive immunity
E)immunodeficiency
Q2) Which of the following intensifies the effect of interferons and promotes the rate of repair?
A)Complement system
B)Acute inflammation
C)Fever
D)Chronic inflammation
E)Pus formation
Q3) Which cytokine released by macrophages acts on the hypothalamus to raise the body temperature during fever?
A)Interleukin-1
B)Interleukin-2
C)Interleukin-4
D)Gamma interferon
E)Perforin
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the rhythmicity center for respiration?
A)in the medulla
B)in the pons
C)in the cerebrum
D)in the hypothalamus
E)in the cerebellum
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a conducting zone action?
A)Clean air of debris
B)Conduct air into the lungs
C)Add water to air
D)Warm air
E)All of these are actions of the conducting zone.
Q3) Which of the following is a series of convulsive inhalations followed by a single prolonged exhalation where the rima glottidis closes earlier than normal after each inhalation so only a little air enters the lung with each inhalation?
A)sobbing
B)sneezing
C)coughing
D)hiccupping
E)Valsalva maneuver
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine?
A)Ingestion
B)Secretion
C)Mixing and propulsion
D)Absorption
E)None of these choices
Q2) Why do emotions such as anger or fear slow digestion?
A)Because they stimulate the parasympathetic nerves supplying the GI tract
B)Because they stimulate the somatic nerves that supply the GI tract
C)Because they stimulate the sympathetic nerves that supply the GI tract
D)They do not affect digestion
E)Because all emotions are controlled by the Vagus nerve
Q3) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism.
Q4) Elderly people are more prone to
A)constipation
B)malabsorption
C)duodenal ulcers
D)periodontal disease
E)all of these
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Nutrition
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Q1) Certain individuals must avoid consuming diet foods that contain the artificial sweetener Aspartame.These individuals suffer from
A)kwashiorkor
B)marasmus
C)rickets
D)scurvy
E)phenylketonuria
Q2) Chemical reactions that combine simple molecules and monomers to form complex structures are known as
A)Metabolism
B)Anabolism
C)Catabolism
D)Metatheses
E)None of these choices
Q3) A deficiency of vitamin B<sub>1 </sub>may cause
A)pellagra
B)pernicious anemia
C)beriberi
D)polyneuritis
E)scurvy
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This term means the return of substances into the blood stream from the filtrate.
A)reabsorption
B)filtration
C)secretion
D)excretion
E)none of these choices
Q2) Describe the structural features of the renal corpuscle that enhance its blood filtering capacity.
Q3) Which is the correct order of blood flow through the kidneys?
A)renal artery > segmental artery > interlobular artery > peritubular capillaries > afferent arterioles
B)interlobar arteries > arcuate arteries > glomerular capillaries > arcuate veins
C)arcuate veins > arcuate arteries > glomerular capillaries > renal vein
D)renal vein > segmental arteries > interlobar arteries > efferent arterioles
E)interlobar veins > afferent arterioles > efferent arterioles > glomerular capillaries
Q4) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.
Q5) Describe the flow of blood through the kidneys.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In extracellular fluid the most abundant cation is
A)Na<sup>+</sup>
B)Cl<sup>-</sup>
C)K<sup>+</sup>
D)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
E)HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q2) An individual is working outside during the summer and is not taking time to drink fluids to replenish water lost through moderate sweating.Explain how will his body respond to this situation to avoid dehydration.
Q3) Which of the following occurs when water loss is greater than water gain?
A)Dehydration
B)Evaporation
C)Precipitation
D)Insensible loss
E)None of these choices
Q4) Describe the negative feedback loop that stimulates thirst as a result of dehydration.
Q5) Hyperaldosteronism is known to cause hypertension (high blood pressure).Explain why this occurs.
Q6) Explain why infants suffer dehydration far more easily than adults.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trace the path of a sperm cell from the site of its maturation to the site where it leaves the male body.Include descriptions of fluids added along that path.
Q2) Which structure lies posterior to the bladder and anterior to the rectum and secretes an alkaline,fructose filled fluid?
A)Prostate
B)bulbourethral gland
C)Seminal vesicles
D)Spongy urethra
E)Prostatic urethra
Q3) Female reproductive system arises from
A)paramesonephric (Mullerian)ducts
B)mesonephric (Wolffian)ducts
C)spermatic ducts
D)oviducts
E)none of these
Q4) Describe the contributions of the reproductive systems to the integumentary systems.
Q5) Describe the functions of testosterone.
Q6) What is the mode of action of oral contraceptives (birth control pills)?
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67083
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a noninvasive prenatal test?
A)AFP
B)CVS
C)Amniocentesis
D)All of these
E)None of these
Q2) Which is the effector when oxytocin stimulates milk ejection?
A)glandular cells
B)plasma cells
C)neurosecretory cells
D)myoepithelial cells
E)all of these work together
Q3) What exam is performed between 14-16 weeks gestation and is used to detect genetic abnormalities?
A)Sonogram
B)Amniocentesis
C)CVS
D)AFP test
E)CBC
Q4) Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.
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