
Course Introduction

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Practical Nursing is a foundational course designed to equip students with the essential skills and knowledge required for entry-level nursing practice. Emphasizing hands-on training, the course covers topics such as basic patient care, medical terminology, anatomy and physiology, pharmacology, and common clinical procedures. Students learn to assist with daily living activities, monitor vital signs, administer medications, and communicate effectively with patients and healthcare teams. Through a combination of classroom instruction, laboratory practice, and supervised clinical placements, students develop the competencies necessary to provide safe, compassionate care in various healthcare settings, preparing them for licensure as practical or vocational nurses.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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57 Chapters
2259 Verified Questions
2259 Flashcards
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of licensing laws for LPN/LVNs?
A) To limit the number of LPN/LVNs.
B) Prevention of malpractice
C) Protection of the public from unqualified people
D) To increase revenue for the state board of nursing
Answer: C
Q2) What is a cost-effective delivery of care used by many hospitals that allows the LPN/LVN to work with the RN to meet the needs of patients?
A) Focused nursing
B) Team nursing
C) Case management
D) Primary nursing
Answer: C
Q3) What is a modern educational advancement program for the LPN/LVN to enter RN education?
A) Repetition
B) Exclusion
C) Articulation
D) Coexistence
Answer: C
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient in the acute care setting assumes responsibility for a patient's care. What is this legally binding situation?
A) Nurse-patient relationship
B) Accountability
C) Advocacy
D) Standard of care
Answer: A
Q2) A lumbar puncture was performed on a patient without a signed informed consent form. This patient might sue for:
A) punitive damages.
B) civil battery.
C) assault.
D) nothing; no violation has occurred.
Answer: B
Q3) Acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited are defined by ___________ of ______________.
Answer: standards, care
Standards of care define acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of QA (quality assurance)?
A) To screen employment applications
B) To evaluate care results against accepted standards
C) To conduct in-services for "quality documentation"
D) To report deviation from standards to the state health department
Answer: B
Q2) What is the documentation format that uses the acronym SOAPE?
A) Problem-oriented
B) Focused
C) Traditional
D) Crisis
Answer: A
Q3) Why is documentation especially significant in managed care?
A) The hospital needs to show that employees care for patients.
B) Institutions are reimbursed only for patient care that is documented.
C) Patients might bring lawsuits if care was not given.
D) Documents may become part of a lawsuit.
Answer: B
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which defining characteristics support the nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Aphasia
B) Geriatric patients
C) Profoundly deaf
D) Legally blind
E) Severe COPD
Q2) What therapeutic communication technique requires a great deal of skill and is not used as frequently as other communication techniques?
A) Touch
B) Silence
C) Listening
D) Summarizing
Q3) ____________ is the reciprocal process in which messages are sent and received between people.
Q4) The term that describes an individual's perception or understanding of a particular word or phrase is _____________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A systemic, dynamic process by which the nurse, through interaction with the patient, significant others, and health care providers, collects and analyzes data about the patient is known as ______________________.
Q2) What is the basis for designing and selecting nursing interventions to meet patient needs?
A) Nursing diagnosis
B) Care plan
C) Physician's orders
D) Nurse's notes
Q3) What organized approach might the nurse use when performing a complete physical examination?
A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
B) A head-to-toe assessment
C) Subjective data collection
D) Objective data collection
Q4) What is the primary purpose of nursing orders?
A) To support physician's orders
B) To provide direction for all caregivers
C) To provide broad, general statements
D) To clarify nursing principles
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who is a Latter-Day Saint. The nurse is aware members of this faith may wear sacred undergarments. What intervention is appropriate for the nurse caring for this patient?
A) Instruct the patient to remove the undergarments
B) Allow the patient to wear the undergarments only at night
C) Allow the patient to wear the undergarments only during the day
D) Remove the undergarments in emergency situations only
Q2) Which health belief system focuses on restoring balance with physical, social, and metaphysical worlds?
A) Folk health belief system
B) Holistic health belief system
C) Biomedical health belief system
D) Alternative/complementary belief system
Q3) A nurse is caring for an Orthodox Jewish patient. What is the most appropriate dietary requirement for the nurse to implement?
A) Mixing of milk and meat at a meal
B) Use of separate cooking utensils for meat and milk products
C) Use of one set of cooking utensils for meat and milk products
D) Consumption of food not slaughtered in accordance with Jewish law
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What bacteria can lie dormant when conditions for growth are not favorable?
A) Residue
B) Capsules
C) Spores
D) Flagella
Q2) The nurse is instructing a patient about the most important preventive technique for breaking the chain of infection. What technique is the patient learning about?
A) Sterilization
B) Standard Precautions
C) Hand hygiene
D) Medical asepsis
Q3) The emergency department nurse is assessing a puncture wound of the foot. What is the most likely type of infection in this wound?
A) Aerobic bacterial infection
B) Anaerobic bacterial infection
C) Viral infection
D) Fungal infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) What implementation might the nurse use to improve safety during a transfer?
A) Weighing the patient first
B) Using a transfer belt
C) Putting shoes on the patient
D) Supporting a flaccid arm
Q2) The LPN/LVN assists a patient into the semi-Fowler position per physician order. What would indicate that this patient is in the correct position?
A) Patient is leaning over the bedside table
B) Head of bed is at a 30-degree angle
C) Knee is drawn toward the chest
D) Arms are flexed toward the head
Q3) The nurse is performing passive range of motion (ROM) for the patient. How will the nurse move the joint through ROM?
A) The fullest extent
B) Place the joint in normal position
C) The point of pain
D) Relax the patient
Q4) _________________________________machines flex and extend joints to mobilize them passively without the strain of active exercises.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse assesses an area of sustained redness on the coccyx area of a resident in long-term care. What is the most likely cause of this pressure area?
A) Heat from pressure
B) Collapse of blood vessels
C) Friction from pressure
D) Collapse of skin tissue
Q2) How frequently should the nurse clean the nares of patients who have a nasogastric tube or are receiving oxygen by nasal cannula?
A) At least every 2 hours
B) At least every 6 hours
C) At least every 8 hours
D) At least every 10 hours
Q3) How often should the nurse cleanse the meatal-catheter junction of a patient with an indwelling catheter?
A) At least once a day
B) At least twice a day
C) At bedtime
D) Each shift
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Sample Questions
Q1) What must the nurse do before applying a safety reminder device (SRD)?
A) Get permission from the family
B) Assess patient's skin condition
C) Get a physician's order
D) Explain the SRD to the patient
Q2) What is important for the nurse to determine in order to decrease the risk for injury to a patient?
A) If patient can read English
B) If patient is left-handed
C) If patient is able to eat unassisted
D) If patient can dress independently
Q3) What should the nurse do when offering a cup of hot coffee to a frail, older adult patient?
A) Give the patient a straw
B) Dilute the coffee with cold water
C) Fill the cup half full
D) Offer a bib or an apron
Q4) When reinforcing the PASS acronym for fire extinguisher use, the nurse reminds the staff that the final "S" stands for ______________.
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Q1) When instructing a primary caregiver about keeping a daily log of blood pressure readings, what instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Take the reading at different times during the day.
B) Apply the cuff approximately 2 inches above the antecubital fossa.
C) If unable to get a reading the first time, immediately reinflate the cuff.
D) Assess pulse with the bell of the stethoscope.
E) Apply the cuff snugly.
Q2) When assessing vital signs on a 40-year-old male, the nurse identifies a pulse rate of 120. What is this pulse interpreted as by the nurse?
A) Normal
B) Bradycardic
C) Arrhythmic
D) Tachycardic
Q3) The nurse assesses the blood pressure as 192/86, noting that the patient has a pulse pressure of ________.
Q4) If a patient has an axillary temperature of 96.2°F, the nurse understands that the true temperature is ______.
Q5) The nurse assesses for the fifth vital sign, which is______________.
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90 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician needs to insert a vaginal speculum into a patient for a vaginal examination. In what position should the nurse place the patient?
A) Sims
B) Prone
C) Lithotomy
D) Dorsal recumbent
Q2) A symptom of itching and an uncomfortable sensation leading to an urge to scratch is known as _____________.
Q3) The signs and symptoms of both infection and inflammation include erythema, edema, and pain. What is considered the major difference between infection and inflammation?
A) Inflammation is a result of bacteria.
B) Inflammation is a protective response.
C) Inflammation is a disease process.
D) Inflammation produces tissue damage.
Q4) An abnormal condition in which a person must sit or stand to breathe deeply or comfortably is known as ___________________.
Q5) Symptoms that are perceived by the patient are known as _____________
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse completes thorough documentation before, during, and after a transfer to ensure _______ of _______.
Q2) The nurse adheres to the discharge standards set by The Joint Commission (TJC), which include that patients will receive instruction regarding which aspect(s) of care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Medications
B) Rehabilitation techniques
C) Referral to community agencies
D) Medical equipment to be used
E) Obtaining health insurance
Q3) How can the nurse help reduce the stress of a hospital admission? (Select all that apply.)
A) Show the patient how bedside equipment works.
B) Explain the need to establish a clear source of reimbursement.
C) Give simple explanation of policies.
D) Involve the patient in the plan of care.
E) Keep family interventions to a minimum.
Q4) Because of the stress caused by hospitalization, the nurse assesses a newly admitted older adult patient for ________________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse observes a loop of bowel protruding from the surgical incision. What is the first intervention the nurse should implement?
A) Call the RN
B) Cover the bowel with a sterile saline dressing
C) Turn the patient to the side of the evisceration
D) Raise the patient up to a high Fowler position
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient during the first 24 hours following surgery. How often will the nurse assess for bleeding under the dressing?
A) Every 30 minutes
B) Every 60 minutes
C) Every 2 to 4 hours
D) Every 5 to 8 hours
Q3) The nurse assures a patient that the purple, raised, immature scar of a surgical wound is normal and caused by _______ formation.
Q4) The nurse encourages a patient recovering from a hysterectomy to drink at least _______ mL of fluid a day.
Q5) When preparing to remove a dressing, the nurse should don __________ gloves.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing a patient for a barium enema. What color will the nurse inform the patient his stools will be following this procedure?
A) Blue
B) White
C) Green
D) Brown
Q2) What health care professional has the responsibility for notifying the physician when laboratory and diagnostic studies deviate from the norm?
A) Laboratory technician
B) Cooperating physician
C) Nurse
D) Supervisor
Q3) What should the nurse do when preparing the patient for an amniocentesis?
A) Restrict food intake
B) Restrict fluid intake
C) Monitor fetal heart tones
D) Inform patient results will be available immediately
Q4) When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be left on no more than ____ to ____ minutes.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted to the emergency department, having suffered frostbite to the hands, which are grayish-white in color. What action should the nurse implement when attempting to warm the hands?
A) Have the patient rub the hands together briskly
B) Wipe the hands vigorously with a warm towel
C) Run tepid water over the hands to warm slowly
D) Wrap the hands in hot, moist towels
Q2) The nurse is attempting to control bleeding in a patient with a profusely bleeding scalp wound. What is the most effective initial treatment of this bleeding?
A) Elevate the head
B) Apply direct pressure
C) Apply an ice pack
D) Apply indirect pressure
Q3) CPR has been initiated at an accident site. When can CPR be terminated?
A) Victim is clinically dead
B) Victim is brain dead
C) Paramedics arrive
D) Rescuer perceives CPR is futile
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Q1) The nurse reassures a patient that almost _____% of all health care consumers in the United States take some form of herbal or natural supplement alone or in combination with conventional medicines but rarely report this practice to their health care providers.
Q2) Founded in 1992, the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (NCCAM) has the responsibility for what actions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Evaluating alternative treatments
B) Distributing information to the public
C) Coordinating and conducting research
D) Removing defective products from the market
E) Regulating third-party reimbursement
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient recovering from a hip replacement and is providing education regarding exercises in physical therapy. What type of therapy should the nurse call these exercises?
A) Alternative therapies
B) Complementary therapies
C) Comfort therapies
D) Body therapies
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Q1) An American Indian patient requests that an egg yolk be placed in a saucer and put under his bed to absorb the pain. What should the nurse do?
A) Explain that medication will relieve the pain better
B) Place the egg in a saucer under the bed
C) Ask the physician for permission
D) Warn that housekeeping staff will remove the egg
Q2) Where does the nurse recognize that many institutions are now including pain assessment in implementing patient care?
A) The initial assessment
B) Discharge planning
C) Assessing vital signs
D) Care planning
Q3) The nurse teaches noninvasive pain relief techniques, such as guided imagery, biofeedback, and relaxation. What is the primary advantage of these techniques?
A) Can be done any time
B) Does not require a nurse
C) Gives the patient some control
D) Is most effective
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Q1) What is a nursing intervention to decrease the thirst of a patient who is on a fluid restriction?
A) Rinsing the mouth with warm water
B) Sipping carbonated drinks
C) Sucking on occasional ice chips
D) Limiting tooth brushing to once per day
Q2) At approximately 4 to 6 months of age, solid food is introduced to a baby. What foods with high iron content should be recommended by the nurse?
A) Pureed fruit
B) Fortified cereals
C) Fruit juice
D) Rice
Q3) The patient who had a gastrostomy complains to the nurse about frequent episodes of dumping syndrome. What can the nurse recommend to this patient to decrease this problem?
A) Eat small, frequent meals
B) Include more fiber in meals
C) Increase seasoning on food
D) Limit intake to semi-liquids
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Q1) When a patient takes substances into the body, they first enter the extracellular compartment. What must the substances enter to carry out their function?
A) Horizontal compartment
B) Intracellular compartment
C) Compartmental
D) Vertical compartment
Q2) The nurse explains to a patient that the drug Lasix reduces edema by drawing water from the interstitial space into the intravascular space. What is this process called?
A) Diffusion
B) Filtration
C) Osmosis
D) Homeostasis
Q3) The nurse expects an adult with normal kidney function to void a minimum of ____ mL of urine in 4 hours.
Q4) The nurse explains that a normal adult will lose approximately _____ mL of water through respiration in the course of a day.
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Q1) What important principle should be taken to prevent medication errors?
A) Placing an unlabeled syringe on the medication cart
B) Following the six rights of medication administration
C) Leaving a medication with the patient only when family is there
D) Always charting medications before the end of the shift
Q2) To help relax the anal sphincter during the insertion of a suppository, the nurse should ask the patient to ____________.
Q3) Which is the same ratio as 2:100?
A) 1:50
B) 5:300
C) 1:20
D) 4:25
Q4) The nurse administered a sedative to an older adult who was having difficulty sleeping. Later, the patient was walking the halls and becoming agitated. What is this drug response known as?
A) Expected
B) Untoward
C) Idiosyncratic
D) Hypersensitive
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Q1) When explaining the difference between a colostomy and an ileostomy, the nurse explains which of the following about an ileostomy?
A) It is always permanent
B) It drains semi-liquid stool
C) It has a much larger stoma
D) It does not need a pouch
Q2) Before inserting a nasogastric tube, what measurement should the nurse take?
A) Tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process
B) Bridge of the nose to the xiphoid process
C) Nose to the top of the ear to the stomach
D) Clavicular notch to the stomach
Q3) When an order for eye irrigation is received, to whom can the nurse delegate the procedure to?
A) The patient
B) Another nurse
C) A nursing assistant
D) A family member
Q4) The nurse is alert for a serious condition called ___________ that results from pathogens being introduced into the blood stream.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the stage of family development that begins when the couple acknowledges that they are considering marriage?
A) Expectant stage
B) Parenthood stage
C) Establishment stage
D) Engagement/commitment stage
Q2) What is the leading cause of death in young adults?
A) Diabetes
B) Accidents
C) Hypertension
D) Testicular cancer
Q3) Growth and development that proceeds from the head toward the feet is known as
Q4) Which of the following measures would be included in a teaching plan to instruct new parents on reducing the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome?
A) Bottle-feed an infant at night
B) Place infants on their stomach to sleep
C) Keep an infant's room well ventilated
D) Place soft bedding and pillows in an infant's crib
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Q1) A nurse is caring for the dying mother of a 7-year-old child. What is important for the nurse to understand regarding the child?
A) The child associates death with aggression.
B) The child believes his or her own death cannot be avoided.
C) The child lacks understanding of the concept of death.
D) The child understands death as the inevitable end of life.
Q2) After a physician in the emergency department has pronounced a 2-year-old dead following a swimming pool accident, the mother tearfully says to the father, "I am so sorry. I am so sorry." What is the mother expressing?
A) Fear
B) Guilt
C) Hostility
D) Grief
Q3) How does a perceived loss differ from an actual loss?
A) A perceived loss is more quickly resolved.
B) A perceived loss is situational.
C) A perceived loss is easily overlooked.
D) A perceived loss has a superficial response.
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Q1) The nurse concludes that the prenatal patient has no need for further instruction when she correctly states that amniocentesis can determine which of the baby's characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sex
B) Maturity
C) Approximate weight
D) Health
E) Genetic defects
Q2) What is the cause of frequent urination in early pregnancy?
A) Increased fluid intake
B) The fetus's kidneys functioning
C) Retention of fluid
D) Increased circulating volume
Q3) When can the sex of the fetus be confirmed?
A) Conception
B) 2 weeks
C) 6 weeks
D) 9 weeks
Q4) The nurse assesses a reactive result to a nonstress test when the fetal heart rate increases _____ beats per minute.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When trying to differentiate false labor from true labor, the nurse realizes which of the following statements regarding true labor is correct?
A) Discomfort of the contraction is in the fundus.
B) Contractions do not follow a pattern.
C) Contractions get stronger with ambulation.
D) Contractions may stop with ambulation.
Q2) The nurse is admitting a patient to the labor and delivery unit. While performing the initial assessment, which assessment is the priority?
A) The number of previous pregnancies
B) When the baby is due
C) When the patient last ate
D) The timing of contractions
Q3) A woman who is 38 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that the baby has dropped and she is having urinary frequency again. What do these symptoms describe?
A) Lightening
B) Braxton-Hicks contractions
C) Initiation of labor
D) Engagement
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Q1) A new Native American mother tells the nurse that when she goes home, her mother-in-law will be caring for the baby while she rests. The nurse has concerns. What should the nurse do?
A) Explain the importance of ambulating to recover
B) Explain the importance of maternal-infant bonding
C) Explore ways to blend this with safe health teaching
D) Encourage this cultural behavior
Q2) When is breast engorgement most likely to occur?
A) When the infant's mouth surrounds the areola when feeding
B) When the breast tissue becomes congested
C) When the breast is emptied completely at each feeding
D) When the infant's mouth grasps the nipple firmly
Q3) What is the term for the cream cheese-like substance that protects the infant's skin from amniotic fluid?
A) Lanugo
B) Meconium
C) Desquamation
D) Vernix caseosa
Q4) The nurse describes the return of the postpartum patient's uterus to a pregravid state as ________________.
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Q1) Compared to older infants of comparable weight, how much higher is the morbidity and mortality rate for preterm infants?
A) 1 to 2 times
B) 2 to 3 times
C) 3 to 4 times
D) 4 to 5 times
Q2) A woman who is 14 weeks pregnant calls the clinic nurse to report that after a brief bleeding episode a week ago, her uterus seems to have gotten smaller, but her periods have not begun. The nurse assesses the indicators for a _____________ abortion.
Q3) An infant born to a diabetic mother should be closely monitored for the presence of what condition?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Cardiac abnormalities
Q4) The nurse explains that severe preeclampsia needs to be controlled because it can develop into another syndrome called _________________.
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Q1) The school nurse recognizes that lack of physical activity and increased consumption of fast food by children are causative factors contributing to which of the following problems?
A) Nutritional disorders
B) Weight gain
C) Type I diabetes
D) Dental caries
Q2) Which are physical risks associated with excess weight? (Select all that apply.)
A) Poor eyesight
B) Heart disease
C) Arthritis
D) Stroke
E) Appendicitis
Q3) Because the water in the infant's residential area is not fluoridated, when should the nurse suggest that the infant receive supplemental fluoride?
A) 2 months old
B) 4 months old
C) 5 months old
D) 6 months old
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Q1) What should be included in the teaching plan for the parents of a 3-year-old child who has been prescribed an opioid analgesic?
A) The opioid is likely to cause significant respiratory depression.
B) The medicine is prescribed with the knowledge that addiction may occur.
C) The opioid is very effective as a pain control method.
D) The opioid is only to be given in cases of severe pain.
Q2) When using anticipatory guidance to prepare a 5-year-old for an IM injection, what statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?
A) "Ethan, I'm going to give you a shot."
B) "Ethan, the doctor wants you to have some medicine, and it will hurt."
C) "Ethan, some medicine can only be given with a needle."
D) "Ethan, I am going to give you some medicine that will sting, but only for a little while."
Q3) What is one way to enhance the nutrition of the hospitalized toddler?
A) Reward with sweets for eating meals
B) Discourage participation in noneating activities
C) Offer nutritious fluids frequently
D) Leave nutritious finger foods out for the child to eat
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Q1) A 2-year-old child with laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) is fussy and restless in the oxygen tent. The oxygen level in the tent is 25%, and blood gases are normal. What would be the correct action by the nurse?
A) Restrain the child in the tent and notify the physician
B) Increase the oxygen concentration in the tent
C) Take the child out of the tent and into the playroom
D) Ask the mother for help in comforting the child
Q2) Which additional congenital malformation is expected in 80% of infants with a myelomeningocele?
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Hydrocephalus
C) Meningitis
D) Neuroblastoma
Q3) The nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what?
A) Experiences an elevation in temperature
B) Sleeps on the left side
C) Cries vigorously
D) Eats

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Q1) When discussing aging, to whom does the term older adulthood apply?
A) Age 55 and above
B) Age 65 and above
C) Age 70 and above
D) Age 75 and above
Q2) When should family members of a stroke victim expect to see some of the neurologic involvement disappear?
A) Within 2 to 3 weeks
B) Within 1 to 2 months
C) Within 3 to 6 months
D) Within 6 to 9 months
Q3) The nurse reminds the 80-year-old patient that her respiratory system has decreased resistance to respiratory infections. For what is this patient at increased risk?
A) COPD
B) Bronchitis
C) Pneumonia
D) Atelectasis
Q4) The nurse recognizes that a term referring to mechanical difficulty of swallowing is
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Q1) What does any event that requires change stimulate?
A) Anger
B) Depression
C) Stress
D) Anxiety
Q2) What is the most likely result when an attempt at adaptation fails?
A) Depression
B) Anger
C) Frustration
D) Anxiety
Q3) Which theorist believed that personality development was based on task mastery?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Erik Erikson
C) Jean Piaget
D) Friedrich Nietzsche
Q4) A perceived threat to self causes what emotion?
A) Fear
B) Anger
C) Depression
D) Anxiety

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Q1) What is the typical schedule for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
A) 3 treatments over 2 weeks
B) 6 treatments over 2 months
C) 8 treatments over several weeks
D) 10 treatments over several weeks
Q2) The nurse alters the care plan for a patient with depression to include what type of activity?
A) Domino game with three other patients
B) Ping-Pong game with one other patient
C) Group outing to view wildflowers
D) Magazine to read alone
Q3) A patient admitted for delirium demonstrates increased disorientation and agitation only during the evening and nighttime. What is the term applied to this type of delirium?
A) Disordered thinking
B) Schizophrenia
C) Dementia
D) Sundowning syndrome
Q4) The nurse recognizes that stress can cause an ulcer, which is classified as a _______________ illness.
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Q1) During the detoxification period, what does the nurse aim to achieve when designing interventions?
A) Enroll the patient in Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)
B) Keep the patient safe from aspiration and seizure
C) Help the patient interact in nonaddictive activities
D) Help the patient gain insight into the addiction
Q2) The nurse is performing an initial assessment on an alcoholic patient. Which of the following actions by the nurse would best ensure honest answers?
A) Not asking personal questions
B) Having a nonjudgmental attitude
C) Including the family
D) Promising the patient not to tell anyone
Q3) A nurse suspects her a co-worker is abusing drugs. Which of the following symptoms, noticed in the co-worker, would contribute to the suspicions?
A) Spending more time with co-workers
B) Frequently absent from the unit
C) Rapid changes in mood and performance
D) Increased somatic complaints
E) Patients report they did not receive their medications
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Q1) The nurse describes a new technological service to the patient that will monitor several assessments remotely. This new intervention is known as ___________ home visits.
Q2) The evaluation and admission process for entry to the home health care system includes physical and psychosocial examination, explanation of the patient's rights, and evaluation of family, home, and nursing interventions. What is the normal minimum time for the admission visit?
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 2 hours
D) 3 hours
Q3) Medical social services focus on the emotional and social aspects of illness. What is another area of service?
A) Home problems
B) Marriage problems
C) Crisis intervention
D) Work problems
Q4) The nurse can best confirm that the patient understands the communication by obtaining ____________ from the patient.
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Q1) Two unique members of the caregiving team in a long-term care facility are the ___________ ___________ aide/technician and the ___________ _____________ assistant.
Q2) The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) defines the requirements for which aspect of care as it relates to long-term care?
A) Nursing care
B) Nutritional support
C) Quality of care
D) Staffing requirements
Q3) What would be the most appropriate guidance the nurse could provide an older adult couple that is considering a continuing care retirement community (CCRC)?
A) Admittance is limited to people who are relatively unimpaired.
B) A contract is usually a lifetime commitment.
C) A contract is an acceptable tax shelter.
D) Contracts can be signed on a month-to-month basis.
Q4) When a resident who is a Muslim becomes concerned about his religiously dictated dietary requirements, the nurse may refer this concern to the long-term care ____________ department.
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Q1) The nurse recognizes that the rehabilitation process involves the efforts of various disciplines. The focus of rehabilitation is to build on which area?
A) A person's losses
B) A person's long-term plans
C) A person's drives
D) A person's abilities
Q2) When planning care for children, the nurse uses a concept that recognizes the pivotal role of the family in the lives of children with disabilities or other chronic conditions. What is this philosophy called?
A) Child-centered care
B) Systems-centered care
C) Family-centered care
D) Individual-centered care
Q3) The acquisition of adaptive skills and behaviors by an individual who has been disabled since birth refers to:
A) training.
B) education.
C) development.
D) habilitation.
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Q1) The hospice nurse clarifies that hospice service is initiated when what type of treatment is no longer effective?
A) Proactive
B) Palliative
C) Alternative
D) Curative
Q2) Who was responsible for renewing the hospice philosophy in the 1960s?
A) Cicely Saunders
B) Lillian Wald
C) Dorothea Dix
D) Florence Nightingale
Q3) The hospice nurse requests that the patient designate a primary caregiver for himself. What is true of the primary caregiver?
A) Must be a relative
B) Has complete control over the patient's care
C) Assumes ongoing responsibility for health maintenance of the patient
D) Must have power of attorney
Q4) When the dying patient becomes confused, the nurse should ____________ him or her.
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Q1) In anatomic terminology, posterior means toward the: A) tail.
B) head.
C) back.
D) trunk.
Q2) What are tissues that cover the outside of the body and some internal structures?
A) Connective
B) Epithelial
C) Nerve
D) Muscle
Q3) Place the body structures in cranial-caudal priority. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Ribs
B) Neck
C) Clavicle
D) Mandible
E) Radius
F) Occiput
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Q1) The removal of a nondiseased appendix during a hysterectomy is classified as:
A) major, emergency, diagnostic
B) major, urgent, palliative
C) minor, elective, ablative
D) minor, urgent, reconstructive
Q2) A postoperative patient who had a left inguinal hernia repair is ready for his discharge instructions. Which information should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.)
A) Care of the wound site and any dressings
B) When he may operate a motor vehicle
C) Signs and symptoms to report to the physician
D) Call the physician's office once he arrives home
E) Report bowel movements to the physician
F) Actions and side effects of any medications
Q3) Which of the following early postoperative observations should be reported immediately?
A) "Coffee ground" emesis
B) Shivering
C) Scanty urine output
D) Evidence of pain
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Q1) Melanocytes give rise to the pigment melanin, which is responsible for skin color. Where can the melanocytes be found?
A) Dermis
B) Superficial fascia
C) Epidermis
D) Loose connective tissue
Q2) What is the best instruction by the nurse regarding reducing the risk factors for melanoma?
A) Avoid exposure to the sun and use protective measures when exposure occurs.
B) Have all nevi removed.
C) Watch for changes in moles, especially on the back.
D) Use a sun lamp for tanning.
Q3) What should the nurse do when administering a therapeutic bath to a patient who has severe pruritus?
A) Use Burow's solution to help promote healing
B) Rub the skin briskly to decrease pruritus
C) Limit bathing to 3 times a week
D) Ensure that bath area is at least 85 degrees and dehumidified
Q4) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
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Q5) The three major glands of the skin are __________, ___________, and
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Q1) A patient, age 68, has suffered an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip. Before surgery, to provide support and comfort, an immobilizing device of a ______ is applied.
A) Thomas splint
B) Bryant traction
C) Russell traction
D) Buck traction
Q2) What should the nurse instruct the patient before a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) procedure?
A) Void to completely empty the bladder
B) Omit all citrus food for 12 hours before the procedure
C) Remove all metal, such as jewelry, glasses, and hair clips
D) Wear only cotton garments for the procedure
Q3) The 14-year-old boy who is scheduled for left leg amputation says to the nurse, "What in the world am I going to do with only one leg?" What is the nurse's most therapeutic response?
A) "What are you thinking about right now?"
B) "With a prosthesis, you will be as good as new."
C) "It is way too early to be concerned about that now."
D) "When my brother had his leg removed, he did great!"
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Q1) The nurse points out which of the following as an example of a nonmechanical bowel obstruction?
A) A paralytic ileus
B) Narrowed bowel lumen from an inflammatory process
C) Tumor of the bowel
D) Fecal impaction
Q2) Flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
Q3) The nurse explains to the patient with Crohn disease that the tube feedings allow for:
A) Rapid absorption in the upper GI tract
B) Decompression of the stomach
C) Reduction of diarrheic episodes
D) A permanent nutritional support
Q4) Why are peptic ulcers a common problem of aging?
A) Because of overuse of antibiotics
B) Because of overuse of antacids
C) Because of overuse of NSAIDs
D) Because of overuse of laxatives
Q5) The nurse explains that ___________, the chief enzyme of gastric juice, is activated by hydrochloric acid to begin digestion of protein.
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Q1) The nurse caring for a patient who has had an open cholecystectomy with a T-Tube will:
A) open the T-tube to the air so that it will drain freely.
B) position and secure the drainage bag at the chest level.
C) Place the collection bag so the tube is not kinked.
D) Irrigate the T-tube with normal saline to ensure the free flow of bile.
Q2) The nurse assisting in the treatment of a patient with ruptured esophageal varices who has received vasopressin IV will carefully assess for:
A) Muscular twitching/spasm
B) Hematuria
C) Macular rash on trunk and arms
D) Evidence of cardiac ischemia
Q3) The tumor marker that is elevated in patients with pancreatic cancer is______.
Q4) What is the challenge in encouraging coughing and deep breathing for a postoperative patient who had an open cholecystectomy?
A) High placement of incision
B) Excessive nausea
C) Weakened abdominal muscles
D) Poor oxygenation
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Q1) What is the process by which certain cells engulf and digest microorganisms and cellular debris?
A) Erythrocytosis
B) Hematocrit
C) Phagocytosis
D) Hemostasis
Q2) The mother of a 4-year-old child with leukemia says to the nurse, "I don't understand why he is crying about his legs hurting." The nurse's most informative response would be based on the information that bone pain is related to:
A) Elevated WBCs in differential
B) Long periods of inactivity
C) Splenomegaly
D) Bone marrow congested with white cells
Q3) Which patient statement from a 15-year-old girl with thrombocytopenia would require more assessment to report to the charge nurse?
A) "I think these red spots on my skin are going away."
B) "I am so bored lying in bed I could scream."
C) "My bowel movement is brown and stinks."
D) "I have this really weird Coke-colored urine."
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Q1) The nurse making a teaching plan for a patient with Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) will focus on the need for:
A) reduction of alcohol intake.
B) avoiding cold remedies.
C) cessation of smoking.
D) weight reduction.
Q2) The nurse is aware that the symptoms of an impending myocardial infarction (MI) differ in women because acute chest pain is not present. Women are frequently misdiagnosed as having:
A) hepatitis A.
B) indigestion.
C) urinary infection.
D) menopausal complications.
Q3) The nurse notes a run of three ventricular contractions (PVC) that are not preceded by a P wave. This particular arrhythmia can progress into:
A) atrial fibrillation and possible emboli.
B) sinus tachycardia and syncope.
C) ventricular tachycardia and death.
D) sinus bradycardia and fatigue.

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Q1) What is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient, age 40, who is diagnosed with active tuberculosis?
A) Place the patient in drainage and secretion precautions
B) Place the patient in acid-fast bacillus (AFB) Isolation Precautions
C) Maintain the patient in enteric isolation
D) Place the patient in any Isolation Precautions
Q2) The young man who had a bronchoscopy 1 hour ago asks when he can eat. Which response would be most helpful?
A) In 24 hours, but must take cold liquids for the rest of the day
B) If there is no blood in his sputum
C) In 8 hours after a period of nothing by mouth
D) When the gag reflex returns
Q3) An 83-year-old patient is admitted with a temperature of 102° F (38.8° C), chest pain, and fatigue. What is the infected fluid that the physician removes called?
A) Emboli
B) Emphysema
C) Sputum
D) Empyema
Q4) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
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Q1) When the home health patient is started on dialysis, the home health nurse refers the patient to a community support group that assists with the adjustments necessary to living with dialysis. Which group offers this service?
A) National Kidney Foundation
B) American Association of Kidney Patients
C) American Red Cross
D) Veterans Administration
Q2) Which foods should the home health nurse counsel hypokalemic patients to include in their diet?
A) Bananas, oranges, cantaloupe
B) Carrots, summer squash, green beans
C) Apples, pineapple, watermelon
D) Winter squash, cauliflower, lettuce
Q3) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
Q4) _________ is a prostatic pain without evidence of infection or inflammation.
Q5) Exercises to increase muscle tone of the pelvic floor are known as ____________ exercises.
Q6) The prostatectomy technique, which involves an incision through the abdomen and the bladder, is a ____________prostatectomy.
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Q1) The nurse is administering long-acting insulin once a day, which provides insulin coverage for 24 hours. This insulin is _________________.
Q2) The human insulin whose onset of action occurs within ____ minutes is lispro (Humalog).
A) 30
B) 60
C) 15
D) 45
Q3) What are the three major life-threatening complications postoperatively of a thyroidectomy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hemorrhaging
B) Seizures
C) Tetany
D) Hypoglycemia
E) Thyroid crisis (storm)
F) SIADH
Q4) ________________is the term that describes a condition of normal thyroid function.
Q5) Only ________insulin can be administered intravenously.
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Q1) Select the interventions that should be performed with caution, in the affected arm, on patients who have undergone a modified radical mastectomy. (Select all that apply.)
A) Vaccinations
B) Taking of blood pressure or samples
C) Insertion of IV line
D) Physical therapy on uninvolved arm
E) Wear watch and jewelry on involved arm
F) Surgical interventions
Q2) What is the recommended age range for a baseline mammogram?
A) 25 and 30 years
B) 31 and 34 years
C) 35 and 39 years
D) 40 and 45 years
Q3) The nurse is assisting the physician in removing a small sample of tissue from the patient's cervix to have it evaluated. This procedure is called a cervical
Q4) When the veins in the scrotum become dilated, and the scrotum becomes enlarged and dilated, the condition is called a __________.
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Q5) ________are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.

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Q1) What would a nurse do when the patient arrives in the PACU after a left stapedectomy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Turn the patient to his right side
B) Change dressing as it becomes soiled
C) Turn patient every 2 hours
D) Leave the bed flat
E) Medicate immediately on the complaint of nausea
Q2) The nurse will assess for _____________ when the older adult home health patient complains that the entire right side of his head hurts and he cannot chew without pain.
A) mumps
B) external otitis
C) otitis media
D) labyrinthitis
Q3) Progressive deafness caused by the ankylosis of the stapes is the condition of__________.
Q4) The surgical incision into the eardrum with either a knife or a heated wire loop to relieve pressure in the middle ear is a(n) ___________.
Q5) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
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Q1) A patient has recently suffered a stroke with left-sided weakness and has problems with choking, especially when drinking thin liquids. What nursing interventions would be most helpful in assisting this patient to swallow safely?
A) Use a straw
B) Tuck chin when swallowing
C) Take a sip of liquid with each bite
D) Turn head to the left
Q2) A ___________ is a diagnostic procedure used to identify lesions by observing the flow of radiopaque dye through the subarachnoid space.
Q3) Following a myelogram the nurse should include in the postprocedure care assessment for:
A) elevation of blood pressure.
B) urine retention.
C) sensation in lower extremities.
D) slurred speech.
Q4) The nurse explains that the triad of signs of Parkinson disease is: _______, _______ and _______
Q5) _________________ is/are responsible for the transmission of impulses between synapses.
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Q1) Which of the following are diseases which result from one's own immune system attacking the body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lupus erythematosus
B) Glomerulonephritis
C) Polio
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
E) Thrombocytopenic purpura
F) Osteoarthritis
Q2) What is the term for transplantation of tissue between members of the same species?
A) Allograft
B) Autograft
C) Isograft
D) Homograft
Q3) The process of immunity through a controlled exposure to an attenuated organism to stimulate the production of antibodies is _______________.
Q4) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
Q5) The transfer of tissue between genetically identical individual (twins) is a(n)
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Q1) Which of the following are examples of the AIDS wasting syndrome in a patient with an HIV infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Episodes of vomiting for 20 days
B) Appearance of Kaposi sarcoma
C) Loss of 10% of body mass
D) Marked hair loss
E) Episodes of diarrhea for 30 days
Q2) Which of the following are methods in which children with AIDS could have contracted their disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) During intrauterine life with an HIV-positive mother
B) During the birth process of an HIV-positive mother
C) From other children who are HIV positive
D) From receiving a transfusion contaminated with the HIV virus
E) From breastfeeding by an HIV-positive mother
Q3) The nurse explains that an enzyme ____________ ____________ allows the RNA of the retrovirus to be changed to DNA and incorporated into the host's genetic material.
Q4) The term that describes an immunosuppressed patient's inability to react to a skin test is __________________.
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Q1) A patient, age 56, has been advised that his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is elevated. The physician then performed a digital rectal examination (DRE). What should the next definitive diagnostic test be?
A) CA-125 test
B) Transrectal ultrasound
C) Needle biopsy of the prostate
D) MRI
Q2) Why is seeking medical attention when any cancer warning signs occur frequently delayed?
A) Difficulty accessing a physician or getting a referral consult.
B) Lack of knowledge of the seven warning signs of cancer.
C) Fear of the possible diagnosis of cancer and hoping signs will go away.
D) Self-examination being complex and difficult to perform.
Q3) How many minutes of daily exercise does the American Cancer Society recommend as a prevention of cancer?
A) 10 minutes
B) 15 minutes
C) 20 minutes
D) 30 minutes
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Q1) Which health care employment setting would provide the nurse a very good salary, the opportunity to refuse to take an assignment, and more flexibility in the personal schedule but with an uncertainty of work availability?
A) Temporary agency
B) Long-term care center
C) Outpatient clinic
D) Adult day care center
Q2) Which actions would best aid the new nurse in coping with working the night shift? (Select all that apply.)
A) Eat large meals during the night to stay awake
B) Use dark shades to block out light when sleeping
C) Obtain a prescription for sedatives to aid sleep
D) Wear sunglasses on the drive home from work
E) Go directly to bed when arriving home from work
Q3) What is the best way to resolve most disagreements?
A) Agreement
B) Argument
C) Communication
D) Withdrawing
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