Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of Positron Emission Tomography (PET), a powerful imaging technique widely used in medical diagnostics and research. Students will learn the fundamental physical principles behind PET, including positron decay, coincidence detection, and image reconstruction. The course covers the instrumentation, radiopharmaceutical production, and clinical applications of PET, particularly in the diagnosis and management of neurological disorders, cardiovascular diseases, and oncology. Emphasis is also placed on advances in hybrid imaging modalities, such as PET/CT and PET/MRI, as well as considerations related to safety, quality assurance, and regulatory requirements. Through case studies and practical examples, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of the workflow and interpretation of PET scans within the broader context of nuclear medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Nuclear Medicine and PETCT Technology and Techniques 8th Edition by Kristen M. Waterstram
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
24 Chapters
583 Verified Questions
583 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2477 Page 2
Chapter 1: Mathematics and Statistics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49216
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient may have had a kidney function test last month that showed a kidney clearance rate of 45 milliliters per minute (ml/min).The patient returns today and has a kidney clearance rate of 60 ml/min.What is the percent increase in kidney function?
A)7%
B)14%
C)25%
D)33%
Answer: D
Q2) What is the proper number of significant figures for the quotient (6.1 *10<sup>-2</sup>)/(0.1232)?
A)0.49513
B)0.4951
C)0.495
D)0.50
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Cell and Molecular Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49217
Sample Questions
Q1) Messenger RNA (mRNA) is converted into a protein within the __________ of eukaryotic cell.
A)nucleus
B)mitochondria
C)ribosome
D)Golgi body
Answer: C
Q2) The large organelle often referred to as "the control center" of the cell is the A)lysosome.
B)nucleus.
C)centrosome.
D)Golgi body.
Answer: B
Q3) The three steps of the transcription process are
A)initiation, elongation, and termination.
B)interphase, prophase, and telophase.
C)expression, translation, and suppression.
D)synthesis, regulation, and termination.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 4
Chapter 3: Chemistry/biochemistry
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49218
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following organic compounds are used in radiopharmaceuticals, EXCEPT A)arenes.
B)alcohols.
C)phenols.
D)esters.
Answer: D
Q2) Avogadro's number is
A)the ratio of the weight of each element in a compound.
B)equal to the atomic mass of an element.
C)the number of atoms or molecules in 1 gaw or gmw.
D)the electron configuration of an element.
Answer: C
Q3) The chemical properties of a substance may be affected by a change in conditions.If this occurs, the change will
A)result in the formation of one or more "new" substances.
B)exhibit the initial properties of the substance.
C)always be irreversible.
D)result in a change of the physical state of the substance.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49219
Sample Questions
Q1) Radionuclides used to label radiopharmaceuticals for nuclear imaging should decay by
A)alpha or negative beta.
B)negative beta or positron.
C)positron or gamma.
D)gamma or auger electron.
Q2) It is expected in a normal patient who is injected with <sup>99m</sup>Tc-sulfur colloid (SC) that
A)85% will localize in the liver and the remainder is sequestered by the spleen and bone marrow.
B)85% will localize in the spleen and bone marrow and the remainder is sequestered by the liver.
C)85% will localize in the lungs and the remainder is sequestered by liver, spleen, and bone marrow.
D)85% will localize in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow and the remainder is eliminated via bowel.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: Radiation Safety in Nuclear Medicine
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49220
Sample Questions
Q1) According to NRC regulations, radioactive waste from P-32
A)should be shipped for land burial.
B)should be returned to the manufacturer.
C)can be held for decay-in-storage.
D)should be flushed into the sanitary sewer.
Q2) A right-handed nuclear medicine technologist puts on a ring badge before work.The ring should probably be worn
A)on the right hand with the thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) chip facing the palm of the hand.
B)on the right hand with the TLD chip facing the back of the hand.
C)on the left hand with the TLD chip facing the palm of the hand.
D)on the left hand with the TLD chip facing the back of the hand.
Q3) It is determined that a health care worker could receive 300 millirem per year.According to NRC regulations, this worker
A)needs to be issued a personnel dosimeter.
B)does not need to be issued a personnel dosimeter.
C)needs to be issued a body and hand personnel dosimeter.
D)needs to be issued a pocket dosimeter.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Patient Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49221
Sample Questions
Q1) The most direct way to intervene in the cycle of infection is to
A)provide a susceptible host for the pathogen outside of the human body.
B)limit contact with patients.
C)prevent transmission of the pathogen from the reservoir to a susceptible host.
D)isolate vector-borne pathogens.
Q2) The hospital in which a technologist is working is said to be accredited.The accreditation for the hospital would be issued by the A)AMA.
B)TJC.
C)NRC.
D)ACR.
Q3) The six rights of a correct administration of a pharmaceutical include A)the use of a generic drug.
B)following HIPAA regulations.
C)the right route.
D)an explanation of possible side effects.
Q4) MR contrast media is administered in high doses compared to CT contrast media.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Department Administration
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49222
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the first two digits for the CPT Category code for therapeutic nuclear medicine procedures?
A)78
B)79
C)09
D)10
Q2) CPT codes used to describe nuclear medicine procedures are Category:
A)I.
B)II.
C)III.
D)IV.
Q3) Which hospital-based quality management tool involves the review of active or past patient medical records to assure proper and complete documentation?
A)Benchmarking
B)Open- or closed-chart reviews
C)Satisfaction surveys
D)Time studies
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: Clinical Research
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49223
Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to the entity that accepts all responsibility for regulatory aspects of conducting the trial, including protection of human subjects and data integrity?
A)Principal investigator
B)Primary investigator
C)Clinical research associate
D)Sponsor
Q2) What is a protocol deviation?
A)A variation from processes or procedures defined in a protocol
B)A significant departure from the processes or procedures as required by the clinical trial protocol
C)An irrelevant consequence of clinical trial studies
D)An avoidable data breach that invalidates the clinical trial
Q3) Which term is used to denote the type of clinical research that involves the testing of interventions on health-related outcomes?
A)Clinical practice
B)Clinical trial
C)Developmental research
D)Developmental trial
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
10
Chapter 9: Health Informatics in Imaging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49224
Sample Questions
Q1) Hardware magnification or zoom
A)decreases resolution.
B)increases noise.
C)only increases image size.
D)increases sensitivity.
Q2) In an imaging computer system, the analog-to-digital converter (ADC) allows for the
A)localization of the appropriate pixel into which the gamma event is recorded.
B)averaging of the x, y, and z pulses.
C)processing of the energy pulse by the pulse-height analyzer.
D)conversion of x and y information into analog format.
Q3) Software magnification
A)increases resolution.
B)decreases noise.
C)only increases image size.
D)increases sensitivity.
Q4) Interpolation results in a loss of image data.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: Physics of Nuclear Medicine
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49225
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true about bremsstrahlung radiation EXCEPT
A)it occurs when a beta particle is deflected and slowed in its path.
B)there is a low probability of occurrence when shielding beta particles with lead.
C)its probability increases when shielding betas with materials that have a high Z number.
D)it is the method used to produce x-rays in computed tomography (CT) scanners.
Q2) For the photoelectric effect to occur, the energy of the incident photon must be
A)less than that of the binding energy of the orbital electron.
B)equal to that of the binding energy of the orbital electron.
C)greater than that of the binding energy of the orbital electron.
D)equal to the binding energy minus the photon energy.
Q3) Pair production is always followed by
A)annihilation.
B)Compton scatter.
C)electron capture.
D)the photoelectric effect.
Q4) Forms of electromagnetic radiation differ only in frequency and wavelength.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Instrumentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49226
Sample Questions
Q1) Digitization of the signal of each photomultiplier tube (PMT)
A)increases sensitivity.
B)decreases scan time.
C)increases contrast.
D)increases processing flexibility.
Q2) Detector efficiency is defined as
A)the ratio of the number of detected events to the number of source emissions.
B)the geometric efficiency and is defined as the fraction of emitted photons (gamma or x-rays) that hit the detector; it depends on the detector configuration and its distance from the source.
C)the fraction of gamma rays that are detected when they hit the detector; it depends on the thickness (t) and attenuation coefficient (\(\mu\)) of the detecting material.
D)the amount of blurring that is produced by an imaging system, characterized by point spread function and line spread function.
Q3) In SPECT/CT imaging, it is best if the patient does shallow breathing throughout the scan.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: CT Physics and Instrumentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49227
Sample Questions
Q1) In an x-ray tube, when the milliamperes (mA) are increased:
A)Bremsstrahlung and characteristic x-rays increase.
B)Bremsstrahlung and characteristic x-rays decrease.
C)Bremsstrahlung x-rays increases and characteristic x-rays decrease.
D)Bremsstrahlung x-rays decrease and characteristic x-rays increase.
Q2) Which of the following may be used to reduce streaking artifacts when scanning anatomy with high-density objects?
A)Bow-tie filter
B)Adaptive detector array
C)Thinner collimation
D)Decreased kVp
Q3) In a CT scanner, the oil bath that may surround the rotating anode tubes serves to
A)make the tubes rotate more quickly.
B)make the tubes rotate more smoothly.
C)cool the tubes.
D)provide efficient conduction of the current.
Q4) Thin collimation has an advantage because it results in faster scanning time.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Pet Instrumentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49228
Sample Questions
Q1) In comparing PET myocardial imaging to SPECT myocardial imaging for myocardial disease, PET demonstrates
A)increased resolution, decreased sensitivity, and increased specificity.
B)decreased resolution, increased sensitivity, and increased specificity.
C)increased resolution, increased sensitivity, and increased specificity.
D)decreased resolution, increased sensitivity, and decreased specificity.
Q2) In PET reconstructions, OSEM and RAMLA are most commonly used over FBP because A)they are faster with less data storage.
B)of reduced streak artifacts and image noise.
C)of increased image contrast.
D)of fewer mispositioning artifacts.
Q3) In PET scanning, blank scans are performed
A)daily.
B)quarterly.
C)annually.
D)upon installation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Principles of Magnetic Resonance Imaging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49229
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true regarding the gyromagnetic ratio EXCEPT
A)it is a constant.
B)it relates angular momentum and magnetic moment.
C)it is characteristic of each nuclei.
D)it relates the number of spin-up and spin-down nuclei.
Q2) Fat has a long T1 and a long T2.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a strong magnetic field, hydrogen atoms can align
A)perpendicular or antiperpendicular to the magnetic field.
B)parallel or antiparallel to the magnetic field.
C)oblique or antioblique to the magnetic field.
D)at random to the magnetic field.
Q4) A nucleus with an even number of protons and neutrons has a magnetic moment of A) 1.
B) 0.
C) 1.
D) Does not have a magnetic moment
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Clinical Petct in Oncology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49230
Sample Questions
Q1) Which anatomic areas present with normal variations in FDG localization?
A)Mouth and salivary glands
B)Myocardium of the left ventricle
C)Extraocular muscles
D)All of these
Q2) Which type of testicular tumor avidly takes up FDG?
A)Seminoma
B)Mature teratoma
C)Non-seminoma
D)Adenoma
Q3) Once in the cell's cytosol, FDG adds a phosphate group and proceeds with further transformation.This change in FDG results in
A)conversion of FDG to glucose.
B)release of FDG from the cell.
C)FDG becoming trapped in the cell.
D)removal of FDG from the cytosol.
Q4) Brain tumors are easily identified with FDG imaging.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Central Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49231
Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of dementia demonstrates on SPECT with hypoperfusion and PET with reduced glucose metabolism in the frontal and temporal lobes with sparing of the remaining cerebral cortex?
A)Alzheimer's disease
B)Parkinson's disease
C)Frontotemporal dementias
D)Lewy body dementia
Q2) A patient arrives at a nuclear medicine department for a CSF shunt evaluation.The technologist readies the patient for an injection into the A)antecubital vein.
B)shunt reservoir.
C)subarachnoid space.
D)shunt tubing.
Q3) All of the following may be spared from the effects of Alzheimer's disease, EXCEPT A)thalamus.
B)basal ganglia.
C)visual cortex.
D)frontal lobe.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
18
Chapter 17: Endocrine System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49232
Sample Questions
Q1) After a total thyroidectomy, a patient is referred to the nuclear medicine department for imaging.For effective evaluation and identification of residual thyroid tissue or tumor, the technologist should review the patient's recent history to determine if the patient has taken steps to raise the plasma
A)TSH level.
B)TRH level.
C)TBG level.
D)T<sub>3</sub> level.
Q2) When performing thyroid imaging, using an electronic zoom
A)is preferred over using a pinhole collimator.
B)can only be used when using <sup>99m</sup>Tc-pertechnetate.
C)is NOT preferred over using a pinhole collimator.
D)is best for evaluating thyroid nodules of about 1 cm.
Q3) When using a <sup>99m</sup>Tc-MIBI double-phase study for imaging the parathyroid gland, after the early phase, the technologist should repeat images
A)20 to 30 minutes after injection.
B)40 to 60 minutes after injection.
C)90 to 120 minutes after injection.
D)24 hours after injection.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 19
Chapter 18: Respiratory System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49233
Sample Questions
Q1) One-half dose (reduced number of particles) should be given to patients with all of the following EXCEPT
A)pulmonary hypertension.
B)right-to-left shunts.
C)a pneumonectomy.
D)bronchitis.
Q2) Which of the following is part of the patient preparation for lung scintigraphy?
A)Recent chest x-ray (within 24 hours)
B)Preceding meal withheld prior to contrast injection
C)NPO for a minimum of 8 hours prior to the exam
D)Pre-medications for increased uptake of radionuclide
Q3) The diameter of a normal capillary is approximately
A)0.05 to 0.1 µm.
B)7 to 10 µm.
C)30 to 40 µm.
D)45 µm.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 19: Cardiovascular System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49234
Sample Questions
Q1) In myocardial perfusion imaging, after high-level stress exercise it is recommended that SPECT imaging begin when respiration has returned to normal to avoid A)bradycardia effects.
B)upward creep.
C)attenuation by the stomach.
D)an increase in background uptake.
Q2) The quantity of blood in the ventricles at the end of ventricular relaxation is called A)stroke volume.
B)cardiac output.
C)end-systolic volume.
D)end-diastolic volume.
Q3) A patient with a history of bronchospasmatic disease arrives for a pharmacological myocardial stress test.The technologist will most likely perform the study using A)exercise stress.
B)dipyridamole.
C)adenosine.
D)dobutamine.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
21
Chapter 20: Gastrointestinal System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49235
Sample Questions
Q1) Two hours after injection of <sup>99m</sup>Tc-labeled, non-heat-treated RBCs, there remains increased activity in the liver.This finding is most consistent with A)hemangiomas.
B)hepatic carcinoma.
C)metastatic disease.
D)lymphoma.
Q2) After administration of the radiopharmaceutical for a radionuclide oropharyngeal study, the patient is instructed to
A)return for delayed imaging in 30 minutes.
B)return for delayed imaging in 1 1/2 to 2 hours.
C)dry swallow every 15 seconds for 5 minutes while images are taken.
D)take a sip of water every 15 seconds for 5 minutes while images are taken.
Q3) An oropharyngeal study is usually accompanied by A)sialography.
B)thyroid evaluation.
C)esophageal transit study.
D)gastric emptying evaluation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Genitourinary System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49236
Sample Questions
Q1) The best view for demonstrating a horseshoe kidney is the A)posterior view.
B)anterior view.
C)left posterior oblique.
D)left anterior oblique.
Q2) Morphologic renal imaging can be used to document A)GFR and ERPF.
B)global and regional changes in renal function.
C)the existence of an ileal loop.
D)the evaluation of acute renal failure.
Q3) The two most common agents used for morphologic renal imaging are
A)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-DMSA and <sup>99m</sup>Tc-glucoheptonate.
B)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-MAG3 and <sup>99m</sup>Tc-DTPA.
C)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-DMSA and <sup>99m</sup>Tc-DTPA.
D)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-MAG3 and <sup>99m</sup>Tc-glucoheptonate.
Q4) A neobladder made from a portion of the small bowel is called A)colostomy.
B)ileal loop.
C)ptotic.
D)jejunostomy.
Page 23
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 22: Skeletal System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49237
Sample Questions
Q1) Equal-time imaging for bone scanning refers to the technique in which A)one area is imaged for preset counts with the time recorded and all subsequent images are taken for that same time interval.
B)third- and fourth-phase images are taken for the same time interval.
C)second- and third-phase images are taken for the same time interval.
D)parameters are set so the same amount of time is used for each image in a flow sequence.
Q2) For lytic lesions to be seen radiographically, the loss of mineral content of the bone must be approximately
A)10%.
B)20%.
C)35%.
D)50%.
Q3) Strontium is an analog of A)calcium.
B)phosphorous.
C)hydroxyl.
D)technetium.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
24
Chapter 23: Inflammatory Tumoroncology Imaging and Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49238
Sample Questions
Q1) A technologist is performing a parathyroid study using MIBI.After the flow study, the first phase (thyroid phase) of imaging should begin within
A)5 to 10 minutes.
B)15 to 20 minutes.
C)60 to 90 minutes.
D)120 minutes.
Q2) The radiopharmaceutical used to gather additional diagnostic information on a patient with pulmonary lesions found on CT is A)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-depreotide.
B)(<sup>123 </sup>)I-MIBG.
C)(<sup>111</sup>)In-capromab pendetide.
D)(<sup>111</sup>)In-pentetreotide.
Q3) A <sup>67</sup>Ga image at 48 hours after injection displays bowel activity; the technologist should
A)be concerned that the wrong radiopharmaceutical was administered.
B)change the collimator to reduce the scatter activity from the bowel.
C)continue imaging because this is normal.
D)check to see if a radiographic study using contrast was performed.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Hematopoietic System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49239
Sample Questions
Q1) The life span of an RBC is approximately A)30 days.
B)60 days.
C)90 days.
D)120 days.
Q2) A patient can have anemia but have a normal Hct because A)he is sufficiently hydrated.
B)he has a decreased number of WBCs.
C)there is an increased rate of RBC production.
D)there is an increased rate of hemolysis.
Q3) The results of a 24-hour Stage I Schilling Test are 4% excretion of the administered dose.This patient should be considered A)normal.
B)a candidate for a Stage II Schilling test.
C)a candidate for a repeated Stage I Schilling test.
D)to have parasitic competition for the vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
Q4) In a blood sample, the fluid from which a clot is separated is called serum.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26