
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Population Oral Health is an interdisciplinary course that explores the factors influencing oral health at a community and population level. It examines the distribution and determinants of oral diseases, the impact of social, economic, and environmental factors, and the principles of dental public health. Students learn about epidemiology, preventive strategies, health promotion, and the development of policies aimed at improving oral health outcomes for diverse populations. The course emphasizes evidence-based approaches and the role of oral health professionals in reducing disparities through community engagement and public health initiatives.
Recommended Textbook
Primary Preventive Dentistry 8th Edition by Norman O. Harris
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of primary prevention?
A)Oral evaluation
B)Dental prophylaxis
C)Periodontal debridement
D)Xylitol
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a category of dental disease?
A)Dental caries/periodontitis
B)Acquired oral conditions
C)Craniofacial disorders
D)None of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Secondary prevention can also be termed:
A)Restorative care
B)Dental visits
C)Prophylaxis
D)Rehabilitation
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the skill areas assessed in the Cross-Cultural Adaptability Inventory (CCAI)?
A)Emotional resilience
B)Flexibility/openness
C)Nonjudgmental
D)Personal acuity
Answer: C
Q2) In order to be culturally competent,one should eliminate idioms in speech because these have a basis in American culture are NOT universally understood.Avoiding "yes" and "no" questions and encouraging clients to ask questions is also a basic tenet for all health communication.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Answer: A
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Q1) In which dental hygiene process phase does treatment begin?
A)Implementation phase
B)Treatment phase
C)Assessment phase
D)Evaluation phase
Answer: A
Q2) What phase of the dental hygiene process involves determining dental hygiene therapy and the establishment of realistic patient goals?
A)Implementation phase
B)Planning phase
C)Treatment phase
D)Assessment phase
Answer: B
Q3) Whose responsibility is it to educate patients about oral diseases and their prevention?
A)Dental hygienist
B)Dentist
C)Dental assistant
D)All of the above
Answer: D
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Q1) Supragingival calculus is 60% mineralized,subgingival calculus is 30% mineralized.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q2) Adhesion is mediated by a variety of bonding mechanisms,which include:
A)Exogenous antimicrobial agents
B)Etching agents
C)Physiochemical interactions
D)Antimicrobial interactions
Q3) Pyrophosphates decrease the formation of which of the following?
A)Plaque
B)Calculus
C)Early carious lesions
D)Gingivitis
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Q1) Which bacterial group is MOST implicated with dental caries?
A)Streptococcus Mutans d.
B)Lactobacillus species e.
C)Streptococcus aureus f.
D)Both A and B g.
E)All of the above
Q2) Though food types are important in producing a cariogenic (low pH)environment,frequent in-between-meal snacks and drinks can maintain a low pH environment throughout the day,which shifts the demineralization/remineralization continuum toward caries formation.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q3) Which of the following is tooth enamel composed of?
A)Enamel junctions
B)Dentin
C)Enamel rods
D)Dentinal tubules
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Q1) A diagnosis of gingivitis implies that junctional epithelium has migrated apically,but is still on the enamel or cementoenamel junction.A diagnosis of periodontitis implies that junctional epithelium has migrated apically 2,3,or more millimeters.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) Gingival crevicular fluid is an exudate.It contains many cells and proteins.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q3) How many different species of bacteria are estimated to inhabit the oral cavity?
A)100-200
B)100-300
C)300-500
D)400-500
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Q1) How long after initial detection of a lump or lesion should a patient be sent by a dental professional for a reevaluation?
A)14 days
B)60 days
C)6 months
D)1 year
Q2) Which of the following is the ONLY definitive method available for diagnosing oral carcinoma?
A)Surgical biopsy
B)Chemiluminescence
C)MRI
D)Exam by dental professional
Q3) Performing oral cancer screenings annually on all patients is the current standard of care in dentistry.A visual exam of all tissues is sufficient to meet this requirement.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
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Q1) Once a tooth has been placed back in a patient's mouth,what type of splint should be used?
A)Very rigid
B)Flexible
C)Across the occlusal surface
D)Pushing on the gingiva
Q2) Which of the following is a method of pulp testing?
A)Electric vitality testing
B)Cold testing
C)Laser Doppler flometry
D)All of the above
Q3) Avulsed primary teeth are ________ replanted because of concern that permanent teeth may be damaged.
A)Always
B)Never
C)Seldom
D)Partially
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Q1) The blood has a system of granulocytes to find and attack foreign invaders.Granulocytes include which of the following EXCEPT:
A)Neutrophils
B)Candida albicans
C)Macrophages
D)Basophils
Q2) Dentistry is MOST concerned with which immunoglobulins?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Q3) Epithelium stands as a barrier to microbial invasion.Infection cannot occur without microbes getting past this anatomic barrier.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
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Q1) The Bass method is NOT acceptable for all patients.However,this method is effective at removing plaque at the gingival margin and directly below it.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q2) The scrub toothbrushing technique uses which movements?
A)Horizontal strokes
B)Vertical strokes
C)Circular strokes
D)All of the above
Q3) The purpose of toothbrushing includes:
A)Removal of plaque biofilm and disturbance of its reformation
B)Removal of food,debris,and stain from the oral cavity
C)Application of a dentifrice containing specific ingredients to address
D)All of the above
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Q1) Important characteristics that lead to public acceptance of a dentifrice are:
A)Flavor,smell,color,and consistency
B)Flavor,smell,and texture
C)Smell,color,and consistency
D)Flavor,smell,texture,and consistency
Q2) Humectants were added to maintain the moisture and prevent hardening.Commonly used humectants are sorbitol,mannitol,glycerol,and propylene glycol.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q3) The MOST common types of abrasives used are:
A)Carbonates
B)Phosphates
C)Silicas
D)All the above
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Q1) When are floss holders NOT recommended?
A)Poor dexterity
B)Small hands
C)Strong gag reflex
D)Physical disabilities
Q2) What is defined as the formation of a V-shaped slit in the gingiva that extends apically from the gingival margin?
A)Recession
B)Clefting
C)Abfraction
D)Floss cut
Q3) What oral-hygiene aid is used primarily for gingival massage and recontouring of gingival papilla after periodontal therapy?
A)End-tuft brush
B)Toothpick holder
C)Sulca brush
D)Rubber tip stimulator
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Q1) Candidiasis appears as raised,white patches on the mucosa and can be painful.The patches can be scraped off revealing healthy mucosa.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q2) The endosseous dental implant includes which component?
A)Implant body
B)Abutment
C)Superstructure
D)All of the above
Q3) Which condition in denture wearers presents as patches of erythema (inflamed area)on the oral mucosa as a result of trauma,poor hygiene,irritation?
A)Candidiasis
B)Periodontal abscess
C)Stomatitis
D)Dental decay
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Q1) Why is the fluoridation cost per person lower in larger communities and higher in smaller communities?
A)Inverse relationship
B)Reverse relationship
C)Direct relationship
D)Indirect relationship
Q2) What compound was the FIRST used in controlled water fluoridation programs and is still used in smaller communities?
A)Stannous fluoride
B)Neutral fluoride
C)Sodium silicofluroide
D)Sodium fluoride
Q3) What are optimal fluoride concentrations levels based on?
A)Water temperatures
B)Humidity
C)Air temperatures
D)Water consumption
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Q1) If fluoride is ingested,what can occur?
A)Nausea and vomiting
B)Hives
C)Feverish chills
D)Numbness of the oral mucosa
Q2) Which type of APF fluoride is more tolerated by patients?
A)Gel
B)Foam
C)Paste
D)Powder
Q3) When is fluoride recommended for newly erupted teeth?
A)12 months
B)16 months
C)2 years
D)3 years
Q4) What are the three procedures used for administering fluoride treatments?
A)Toothpaste,trays,and mouthrinse
B)Toothpaste,varnish,and painting
C)Varnish,painting,and mouthrinse
D)Varnish,painting,and trays
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Q1) When is a sealant contraindicated?
A)When there is incipient caries on the occlusal surfaces
B)When there is a presence of a large occlusal restoration
C)When there is dark staining in the pits and fissure
D)When there is a high caries rate
Q2) Deep,irregular pits and fissures offer a much more favorable surface contour for sealant retention compared with broad,shallow fossae.The deeper fissures protect the resin sealant from the forces occurring as a result of masticatory movements.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q3) Which is NOT a barrier to the placement of sealants?
A)Legal restrictions on dental providers
B)Patient's cost
C)Shortage of dentists accepting Medicaid
D)Lack of consumer knowledge
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Q1) Which is NOT a cause of dental demineralization?
A)Bruxism
B)Excessive toothbrushing
C)Stomach acid
D)Consumption of acidic foods or drinks
Q2) AIDS and cancer patients can experience which of the following oral condition?
A)Oral candidiasis
B)Herpes simplex
C)Anorexia
D)All of the above
Q3) Which is a sign of B-complex vitamin deficiencies?
A)Enlarged papilla
B)Recession
C)Cracks in the corners of the mouth
D)Aphthous ulcers
Q4) What is essential for taste and odor sensitivity?
A)Vitamin A
B)Zinc
C)Proteins
D)Vitamin D
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Q1) What is MOST commonly used as a tabletop sweetener?
A)Aspartame
B)Molasses
C)Saccharin
D)Sucrose
Q2) When someone has this particular condition they experience nausea and vomiting,and sweat excessively after consuming fructose.What is the condition known as?
A)Diabetes
B)Hypoglycemia
C)Hereditary fructose intolerance
D)Food allergies
Q3) In addition to sugars,what other agents can be cariogenic?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Fibrous meats
C)Enzymes
D)Vegetables
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Q1) The theory of reasoned action is more effective with which of the following?
A)A collective community
B)An individual
C)A small group setting
D)None of the above
Q2) What closely examines the role of stressors and tensions as contributing factors for health and disease?
A)Salutogenesis model
B)Generalized resistance resources
C)Sense of coherence
D)Stressor
Q3) What theory states that changes take place bidirectional;environment,information,and behavior all affect one another?
A)Locus of control
B)Sense of coherence
C)Social Learning Theory
D)Theory of Reasoned Action
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Q1) One can of snuff equals approximately what?
A)Two packs of cigarettes
B)Three packs of cigarettes
C)Four packs of cigarettes
D)Five packs of cigarettes
Q2) Patients who smoke are more likely to present with what periodontal condition?
A)Healthy tissue
B)Gingivitis
C)Early periodontal disease
D)Moderate to advanced periodontal disease
Q3) Smokers have greater probing depths,gingival recession,loss of attachment,and bone loss than non-smokers.Cigarette smoking is a potential contributing factor in necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
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Q1) Mouthguards work by moving soft tissue in the oral cavity away from the teeth and into the upper jaw.This prevents laceration and bruising of the lips and cheeks.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) What was the FIRST mouthguard constructed of?
A)Rubber
B)Acrylic
C)Plastic
D)Cotton
Q3) What is defined as injury to the mouth,including teeth,periodontium,soft tissues,and temporomandibular joint?
A)Trauma
B)Injury
C)Dental emergency
D)Dental trauma
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Q1) What is defined as specific sequences of bases that encode instructions on how to make proteins?
A)Genome
B)Chromosomes
C)Genes
D)Proteome
Q2) How many chromosomes does DNA have?
A)20
B)26
C)22
D)24
Q3) What major genetic factor influences an individual's response to periodontal disease?
A)Cytokines
B)Gamma globulins
C)Proinflammatory cytokine interleukin 1B
D)Immunoglobulin A
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Q1) When completing the interview process for a child's first visit what are some areas to inquire about?
A)Social activities,speech,and feeding history
B)Feeding history,medical history,and social activities
C)Growth and development,siblings,and family dental history
D)Growth and development,feeding history,medical history
Q2) What type of toothpaste should be used on infants?
A)Pea-size amount
B)Minimal amount
C)Fluoridated toothpaste
D)None
Q3) At what age should the child be weaned from the bottle?
A)6 months
B)12 months
C)18 months
D)24 months
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Q1) What is described as critical thinking,conceptual thinking,and introspection through their increased speed,automaticity,and capacity of information processing?
A)Formal operational thinking
B)Classical operational thinking
C)Informal operational thinking
D)None of the above
Q2) Which is NOT a reason why parents play an important role in their child's dental health care?
A)Supervision of oral health care
B)Scheduling dental visits
C)Monitoring diet
D)Staying in the room during the cleaning
Q3) What does culture help determine?
A)Values,beliefs,sense of self,and expected behavior
B)Values,beliefs,communication,and expected behavior
C)Values,communication,attitude,and expected behavior
D)Values,religion,sense of self,and expected behavior
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Q1) Which of the following impacts a patient's attitude towards oral health?
A)Culture
B)Education
C)Economic status
D)All of the above
Q2) Almost half of U.S.adults aged 35-44 years have gingivitis.Approximately one-half of the U.S.population has periodontitis.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q3) Which gland is responsible for the control of the production of estrogens from the ovaries in females and androgens from the testes in males?
A)Brain stem
B)Pituitary gland
C)Thyroid
D)Frontal lobe
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Q1) What portion of the elderly population has oral health problems?
A)1/4
B)1/3
C)1/2
D)1/8
Q2) What causes the teeth of the elderly to appear darker in color?
A)Dentinal tubules
B)Pulp chamber
C)Diet
D)Medications
Q3) A cognitive decline as the brain ages is a result of what?
A)Absence of disease
B)Trauma
C)Stress
D)Hormonal changes
Q4) What percentage of elderly needs periodontal treatment?
A)90%
B)95%
C)100%
D)None of the above
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Q1) What medical condition presents with an enlarged tongue and delayed eruption of the dentition?
A)Hyperthyroidism
B)Hypothyroidism
C)Asthma
D)Renal disease
Q2) A condition of hemophilia will MOST significantly interfere with what dental treatment?
A)Prophylaxis
B)Scaling and root planning
C)Restorations
D)Extractions
Q3) What is the major oral complication associated with epilepsy?
A)Mucositis
B)Xerostomia
C)Gingival overgrowth
D)Gingival recession
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Q1) What percentage of persons with Down syndrome have mitral valve prolapse?
A)20%
B)30%
C)40%
D)50%
Q2) What is the BEST preventive measure a dental provider can use for a patient with a developmental disability?
A)Regular maintenance visits
B)Sealants
C)Electric toothbrushes
D)Fluoride
Q3) Persons with this developmental disability have variable tooth morphology and short roots.
A)Down syndrome
B)Cerebral palsy
C)Autism
D)Mental retardation
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